# legal_provisions

document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 19
title: Term of appointment
content:
19. —(1) Subject to section 21, each member of the Agency holds office for a period of 3 years or any shorter period specified in the instrument of appointment. (2) A member of the Agency may be re‑appointed.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 20
title: Remuneration, etc.
content:
20. The members of the Agency may be paid, out of the funds of the Agency, such salaries, fees and allowances as the Minister determines.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 21
title: Vacation of office
content:
21. —(1) A member of the Agency ceases to hold office if he or she — ( a ) dies; ( b ) is adjudicated a bankrupt or makes an arrangement with any of his or her creditors; ( c ) becomes otherwise disqualified from being a member under section 12(2); ( d ) is removed from office in accordance with section 16; ( e ) resigns in accordance with section 17; ( f ) fails, without reasonable cause, to disclose any interest required under Division 1 of Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018 and a notice is given under that Act to the Minister about that default; ( g ) fails to attend 3 consecutive meetings of the Agency without the approval of the Agency; or ( h ) is not re-appointed when his or her term of office expires. (2) A member of the Agency is not entitled to any compensation or other payment or benefit relating to his or her ceasing, for any reason, to hold office as a member.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 22
title: Other terms and conditions
content:
22. The Minister may specify other terms and conditions of appointment of a member in the instrument of appointment.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 23
title: Procedure generally
content:
23. Subject to this Act and the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018, the members of the Agency may regulate their own proceedings and business.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 24
title: Notice of meetings
content:
24. —(1) The Agency must hold such meetings as are necessary for the performance of its functions. (2) The Chairperson must appoint the times and places of the meetings of the Agency, and cause notice of those meetings to be given to each member, including those not present when the appointment is made. (3) The meetings of the Agency must be held in accordance with the provisions of this Act and Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s25
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 25
title: Quorum
content:
25. —(1) The quorum for a meeting of the Agency is the higher of the following: ( a ) one-third of the number of members; ( b ) 3 members. (2) No business may be transacted at a meeting of the Agency if a quorum is not present.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s26
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 26
title: Presiding at meetings
content:
26. —(1) At a meeting of the Agency, the following person presides: ( a ) if there is a Chairperson and he or she is present and is not interested (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018) in the matter — the Chairperson; ( b ) if there is no Chairperson, or the Chairperson is not present or is interested (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018) in the matter, and a Deputy Chairperson who is not so interested in the matter is present — the Deputy Chairperson; ( c ) in any other case — the member elected from among the members present at the meeting to preside. (2) The person specified in subsection (1)( b ) or ( c ) may perform the functions and exercise the powers of the Chairperson for the purposes of the meeting.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s27
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 27
title: Voting at meetings
content:
27. —(1) Each member of the Agency has one vote. (2) In addition to his or her general vote, the person presiding at a meeting has, in the case of an equality of votes at the meeting, a casting vote. (3) A resolution of the Agency is passed if it is agreed by all members present without dissent, or if a majority of the members who are entitled to vote on the matter cast votes in favour of it. (4) A member present at a meeting of the Agency is presumed to have agreed to, and to have voted in favour of, a resolution of the Agency unless he or she expressly dissents from or votes against the resolution at the meeting or is prevented from voting by section 26 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s28
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 28
title: Execution of documents
content:
28. —(1) The Agency must have a seal. (2) The seal of the Agency is to be kept and used as authorised by the Agency. (3) A document is duly executed by the Agency if — ( a ) the seal of the Agency is affixed to the document in the presence of one of its members who must sign the document to attest that the seal was so affixed, and the document is signed — (i) by any 2 members generally or specially authorised by the Agency for the purpose; or (ii) by one member and the Chief Executive; or ( b ) the document is signed on behalf of the Agency by a person or persons authorised to do so by the Agency and in accordance with the terms of that authorisation. (4) A document purporting to be executed in accordance with this section is presumed to be duly executed until the contrary is shown. (5) All courts, judges and persons acting judicially must take judicial notice of the imprint of the seal of the Agency appearing on a document. (6) When a document is produced bearing a seal purporting to be the seal of the Agency, it must be presumed that the seal is the seal of the Agency until the contrary is shown. Division 2 &#x2014; Committees and delegation


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s29
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 29
title: Appointment of committees
content:
29. —(1) The Agency may, by resolution, appoint any number of committees that the Agency thinks fit for purposes which, in the opinion of the Agency, would be better regulated and managed by means of those committees. (2) A committee appointed under this section may consist of any number of individuals that the Agency thinks fit, and may include individuals who are not members of the Agency. (3) Without limiting subsection (1), the Agency may appoint committees — ( a ) to advise the Agency on any matters relating to the Agency’s functions and powers that are referred to the committee by the Agency; or ( b ) to perform or exercise any of the Agency’s functions and powers that are delegated to the committee, if the committee includes at least one member of the Agency. (4) An individual may not be appointed as a member of a committee unless, before appointment, he or she discloses to the Agency the details of any interest (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018) the individual may have if he or she were a member of that committee.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s30
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 30
title: Proceedings of committees
content:
30. —(1) Section 18 applies to a committee, and to committee members or individuals purporting to be committee members, with the necessary modifications. (2) Subject to this Act and the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018, a committee may regulate its own proceedings and business.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s31
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 31
title: Ability to delegate
content:
31. —(1) The Agency may delegate any of its functions or powers, either generally or specially and subject to any conditions or restrictions that it thinks fit, to any of the following persons: ( a ) a member of the Agency; ( b ) the Chief Executive or an officer of the Agency; ( c ) a committee of the Agency that includes at least one member of the Agency; ( d ) a company that is incorporated in Singapore and is a subsidiary of the Agency. (2) A delegation under subsection (1) must be by resolution and written notice given to the delegate. (3) Subsection (1) does not apply to any function or power under this Act or any other Act that is declared by this Act or that other Act to be non‑delegable. (4) A delegation in accordance with this section is not affected — ( a ) by any change in the membership of a committee (where the delegate is the committee), so long as the committee includes at least one member of the Agency; or ( b ) by any change in the individual appointed as the Chief Executive or holding any specified office in the Agency (where the delegate is the Chief Executive or the holder of the specified office). (5) For the purposes of subsection (1)( d ), a company is a subsidiary of the Agency if — ( a ) the Agency is the sole member of that company; or ( b ) the Agency, as a member of that company, holds more than half of the voting power in that company.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s32
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AGENCY
section: 32
title: Validity of delegate’s acts, etc.
content:
32. A delegate who purports to perform a function or exercise a power under delegation — ( a ) is taken to do so in accordance with the terms of the delegation under section 31, unless the contrary is shown; and ( b ) must produce evidence of the delegation, if reasonably requested to do so.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s33
chapter: PART 5 - PERSONNEL MATTERS
section: 33
title: Appointment of Chief Executive
content:
33. —(1) There must be a Chief Executive of the Agency, whose appointment, removal, discipline and promotion must be in accordance with the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018. (2) The Agency may, subject to the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018, appoint an individual to act temporarily as the Chief Executive during any period, or during all periods, when the Chief Executive — ( a ) is absent from duty or Singapore; or ( b ) is, for any reason, unable to perform the duties of the office.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s34
chapter: PART 5 - PERSONNEL MATTERS
section: 34
title: Officers, etc.
content:
34. The Agency may, subject to the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018, appoint and employ, on such terms and conditions as the Agency may determine, such other officers, consultants and agents as may be necessary for the effective performance of its functions.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s35
chapter: PART 5 - PERSONNEL MATTERS
section: 35
title: Preservation of secrecy
content:
35. —(1) A member, an officer, an agent or a delegate of the Agency, the Chief Executive or a committee member, who has information in his or her capacity as such that would not otherwise be available to him or her, must not disclose that information to any person except — ( a ) in the performance of the Agency’s functions; ( b ) with the prior authorisation from the Agency to do so; ( c ) for the purposes of any proceedings for an offence under this Act, or any report of those proceedings; ( d ) as required by an order of court; ( e ) in complying with the requirements in this Act for a member of the Agency or a committee member to disclose an interest; or ( f ) as required or allowed by this Act or any other Act. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s36
chapter: PART 5 - PERSONNEL MATTERS
section: 36
title: Protection from personal liability
content:
36. No liability shall lie against any member of the Agency, any committee member, the Chief Executive or any officer or delegate of the Agency, or any other person acting under the direction of the Agency, for anything which is done or purported to be done, or omitted to be done, in good faith and with reasonable care in — ( a ) the performance or purported performance of any function under this Act; or ( b ) the exercise or purported exercise of any power under this Act.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s37
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 37
title: Financial year
content:
37. The financial year of the Agency begins on 1 April of each year and ends on 31 March of the succeeding year except that the first financial year of the Agency begins on the date of commencement of this Act and ends on 31 March of the succeeding year.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s38
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 38
title: Revenue and property of Agency
content:
38. The funds and property of the Agency include — ( a ) all moneys paid to the Agency by way of grants, subsidies, donations, gifts and contributions for the purposes of the Agency; ( b ) all moneys paid to, and all other moneys and property lawfully received by, the Agency for the purposes of the Agency; ( c ) all fees and charges payable to the Agency under this Act or any other Act administered by the Agency; ( d ) all moneys, dividends, royalties, interest or income received from any transaction made pursuant to the powers of the Agency under this Act or any other Act administered by the Agency; ( e ) all moneys borrowed by the Agency under this Act; and ( f ) all accumulations of income derived from any property or money mentioned in paragraphs ( a ) to ( e ).


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s39
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 39
title: Bank accounts
content:
39. —(1) The Agency must open and maintain one or more accounts with such bank or banks as the Agency thinks fit. (2) Every such account may only be operated by a person who is authorised to do so by the Agency.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s40
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 40
title: Financial accounts and records
content:
40. The Agency must — ( a ) keep proper accounts and records of its transactions and affairs; and ( b ) do all things necessary to ensure that — (i) all payments out of its moneys are correctly made and properly authorised; and (ii) adequate control is maintained over the property and assets of, or in the custody of, the Agency and over the expenditure incurred by the Agency.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s41
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 41
title: Power of investment
content:
41. The Agency may invest its moneys in accordance with the standard investment power of statutory bodies as defined in section 33A of the Interpretation Act 1965.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s42
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 42
title: Issue of shares, etc.
content:
42. As a consequence of — ( a ) the vesting of any property, rights or liabilities in the Agency under this Act; or ( b ) any capital injection or other investment by the Government in the Agency in accordance with any other written law, the Agency must issue such shares or other securities to the Minister charged with the responsibility for finance as that Minister may direct.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s43
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 43
title: Borrowing power
content:
43. —(1) The Agency cannot raise loans for the performance of its functions under this Act or any other Act administered by the Agency except in accordance with this section. (2) Subject to subsection (3), the Agency may raise loans by — ( a ) mortgage, overdraft or other means, with or without security; ( b ) charge, whether legal or equitable, on any property vested in the Agency or on any other revenue receivable by the Agency under this Act or any other written law; or ( c ) the creation and issue of debentures, bonds or any other instrument as the Minister may approve. (3) The Agency may raise loans — ( a ) from the Government; or ( b ) with the approval of the Minister, from another source, whether within or outside Singapore. (4) For the purposes of this section, the power to raise loans includes the power to make any financial agreement under which credit facilities are granted to the Agency for the purchase of goods, materials or things.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s44
chapter: PART 7 - GENERAL
section: 44
title: Composition of offences
content:
44. —(1) The Chief Executive, or an employee of the Agency authorised in writing by the Agency, may compound any offence under this Act that is prescribed as a compoundable offence by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: ( a ) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; ( b ) $2,000. (2) On payment of the sum of money, no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. (3) All sums collected under this section must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s45
chapter: PART 7 - GENERAL
section: 45
title: Offences by corporations
content:
45. —(1) Where, in a proceeding for an offence under this Act, it is necessary to prove the state of mind of a corporation in relation to a particular conduct, evidence that — ( a ) an officer, employee or agent of the corporation engaged in that conduct within the scope of his or her actual or apparent authority; and ( b ) the officer, employee or agent had that state of mind, is evidence that the corporation had that state of mind. (2) Where a corporation commits an offence under this Act, a person — ( a ) who is — (i) an officer of the corporation; or (ii) an individual involved in the management of the corporation and in a position to influence the conduct of the corporation in relation to the commission of the offence; and ( b ) who — (i) consented or connived, or conspired with others, to effect the commission of the offence; (ii) is in any other way, whether by act or omission, knowingly concerned in, or is party to, the commission of the offence by the corporation; or (iii) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the offence by the corporation (or an offence of the same type) would be or is being committed, and failed to take all reasonable steps to prevent or stop the commission of that offence, shall be guilty of that same offence as is the corporation, and shall be liable on conviction to be punished accordingly. (3) A person mentioned in subsection (2) may rely on a defence that would be available to the corporation if it were charged with the offence with which the person is charged and, in doing so, the person bears the same burden of proof that the corporation would bear. (4) To avoid doubt, this section does not affect the application of — ( a ) Chapters 5 and 5A of the Penal Code 1871; or ( b ) the Evidence Act 1893 or any other law or practice regarding the admissibility of evidence. (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) also does not affect the liability of the corporation for an offence under this Act, and applies whether or not the corporation is convicted of the offence. (6) In this section — “corporation” includes a limited liability partnership within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; “officer”, in relation to a corporation, means any director, partner, chief executive, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the corporation, and includes — ( a ) any person purporting to act in any such capacity; and ( b ) for a corporation whose affairs are managed by its members, any of those members as if the member were a director of the corporation; “state of mind” of a person includes — ( a ) the knowledge, intention, opinion, belief or purpose of the person; and ( b ) the person’s reasons for the intention, opinion, belief or purpose.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s46
chapter: PART 7 - GENERAL
section: 46
title: Offences by unincorporated associations or partnerships
content:
46. —(1) Where, in a proceeding for an offence under this Act, it is necessary to prove the state of mind of an unincorporated association or a partnership in relation to a particular conduct, evidence that — ( a ) an employee or agent of the unincorporated association or partnership engaged in that conduct within the scope of his or her actual or apparent authority; and ( b ) the employee or agent had that state of mind, is evidence that the unincorporated association or partnership had that state of mind. (2) Where an unincorporated association or a partnership commits an offence under this Act, a person — ( a ) who is — (i) an officer of the unincorporated association or a member of its governing body; (ii) a partner in the partnership; or (iii) an individual involved in the management of the unincorporated association or partnership and in a position to influence the conduct of the unincorporated association or partnership (as the case may be) in relation to the commission of the offence; and ( b ) who — (i) consented or connived, or conspired with others, to effect the commission of the offence; (ii) is in any other way, whether by act or omission, knowingly concerned in, or is party to, the commission of the offence by the unincorporated association or partnership; or (iii) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the offence by the unincorporated association or partnership (or an offence of the same type) would be or is being committed, and failed to take all reasonable steps to prevent or stop the commission of that offence, shall be guilty of the same offence as is the unincorporated association or partnership (as the case may be), and shall be liable on conviction to be punished accordingly. (3) A person mentioned in subsection (2) may rely on a defence that would be available to the unincorporated association or partnership if it were charged with the offence with which the person is charged and, in doing so, the person bears the same burden of proof that the unincorporated association or partnership would bear. (4) To avoid doubt, this section does not affect the application of — ( a ) Chapters 5 and 5A of the Penal Code 1871; or ( b ) the Evidence Act 1893 or any other law or practice regarding the admissibility of evidence. (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) also does not affect the liability of an unincorporated association or a partnership for an offence under this Act, and applies whether or not the unincorporated association or partnership is convicted of the offence. (6) In this section — “officer”, in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary, or any member of a committee of the unincorporated association, and includes — ( a ) any person holding a position analogous to that of president, secretary or member of a committee of the unincorporated association; and ( b ) any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner; “state of mind” of a person includes — ( a ) the knowledge, intention, opinion, belief or purpose of the person; and ( b ) the person’s reasons for the intention, opinion, belief or purpose.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s47
chapter: PART 7 - GENERAL
section: 47
title: Service of documents
content:
47. —(1) A document that is permitted or required by this Act to be served on a person may be served as described in this section. (2) A document permitted or required by this Act to be served on an individual may be served — ( a ) by giving it to the individual personally; ( b ) by sending it by prepaid registered post to the address specified by the individual for the service of documents or, if no address is so specified, the individual’s residential address or business address; ( c ) by leaving it at the individual’s residential address with an adult apparently resident there, or at the individual’s business address with an adult apparently employed there; ( d ) by affixing a copy of the document in a conspicuous place at the individual’s residential address or business address; ( e ) by sending it by fax to the fax number last known to the person giving or serving the document as the fax number for the service of documents on the individual; or ( f ) by sending it by email to the individual’s last email address. (3) A document permitted or required by this Act to be served on a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership) may be served — ( a ) by giving it to any partner or other similar officer of the partnership; ( b ) by leaving it at, or by sending it by prepaid registered post to, the partnership’s business address; ( c ) by sending it by fax to the fax number used at the partnership’s business address; or ( d ) by sending it by email to the partnership’s last email address. (4) A document permitted or required by this Act to be served on a body corporate (including a limited liability partnership) or unincorporated association may be served — ( a ) by giving it to the secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate or unincorporated association, or the manager of the limited liability partnership; ( b ) by leaving it at, or by sending it by prepaid registered post to, the registered office or principal office in Singapore of the body corporate or unincorporated association; ( c ) by sending it by fax to the fax number used at the registered office or principal office in Singapore of the body corporate or unincorporated association; or ( d ) by sending it by email to the last email address of the body corporate or unincorporated association. (5) Service of a document under this section takes effect — ( a ) if the document is sent by fax and a notification of successful transmission is received, on the day of transmission; ( b ) if the document is sent by email, at the time that the email becomes capable of being retrieved by the person to whom it is sent; or ( c ) if the document is sent by prepaid registered post, 2 days after the day the document was posted (even if it is returned undelivered). (6) However, service of any document under this Act on a person by email may be effected only with the person’s prior written consent to service in that way. (7) This section does not apply to documents to be served in proceedings in court. (8) In this section — “business address” means — ( a ) in the case of an individual, the individual’s usual or last known place of business in Singapore; or ( b ) in the case of a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), the partnership’s principal or last known place of business in Singapore; “document” includes a notice permitted or required by this Act to be served; “last email address” means the last email address given by the addressee concerned to the person giving or serving the document as the email address for the service of documents under this Act; “residential address” means an individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s48
chapter: PART 7 - GENERAL
section: 48
title: Regulations
content:
48. The Agency may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations prescribing matters required or permitted by this Act to be prescribed, or necessary or convenient to be prescribed for carrying out or giving effect to this Act.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s49
chapter: PART 8 - TRANSFER OF UNDERTAKINGS AND
section: 49
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
49. In this Part — “agreement” includes an arrangement or undertaking; “asset”, in relation to the transferor, means property of any kind (whether tangible or intangible, whether arising from, accruing under, created or evidenced by or the subject of, an instrument or otherwise and whether actual or contingent) of the transferor on the eve of the transfer date and includes, without limitation, any — ( a ) legal or equitable interest in real or personal property, whether situated in or outside Singapore; ( b ) chose in action; ( c ) money or securities; ( d ) plant and equipment, whether situated in or outside Singapore; ( e ) intellectual property; ( f ) infrastructure, whether situated in or outside Singapore; ( g ) records and information (including data) in any form; and ( h ) right; “Health Promotion Board” or “HPB” means the Health Promotion Board established by section 3 of the Health Promotion Board Act 2001; “liability”, in relation to the transferor, means any liability, duty or obligation (whether actual or contingent, liquidated or unliquidated, and whether owed alone or jointly, or jointly and severally, with any other person) of the transferor on the eve of the transfer date; “records”, in relation to the transferor, means registers, papers, documents, minutes, receipts, books of account and other records, however compiled, recorded or stored, of the transferor existing on the eve of the transfer date; “right”, in relation to the transferor, means any right, power, privilege or immunity of the transferor on the eve of the transfer date; “transfer date” means the date of commencement of this Act; “transferor” means one of the following, as the case may be: ( a ) the Government; ( b ) the Health Promotion Board; “transferring HPB employee” means an employee of the Health Promotion Board who, on the eve of the transfer date, is in any of the departments of the Health Promotion Board as specified in Part 1 of the Schedule; “transferring HPB functions” means the functions discharged by any of the departments of the Health Promotion Board as specified in Part 1 of the Schedule on the eve of the transfer date; “transferring MOH employee” means an employee of the Government who, on the eve of the transfer date, is in any of the departments of the Ministry of Health as specified in Part 2 of the Schedule; “transferring MOH functions” means the functions discharged by any of the departments of the Ministry of Health as specified in Part 2 of the Schedule on the eve of the transfer date.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s50
chapter: PART 8 - TRANSFER OF UNDERTAKINGS AND
section: 50
title: Transfer of undertakings to Agency
content:
50. —(1) On the transfer date, the following assets and liabilities are transferred to the Agency: ( a ) all assets and liabilities of the Government that relate solely to the transferring MOH functions; ( b ) all assets and liabilities of the Health Promotion Board that relate solely to the transferring HPB functions. (2) A certificate signed by the Minister certifying whether an asset or a liability specified in the certificate has been transferred to the Agency under subsection (1) is admissible in evidence in any proceedings as proof of the matters stated in the certificate. (3) When any asset or liability of the transferor is transferred to the Agency under subsection (1), the following provisions have effect: ( a ) the asset vests in the Agency without the need for any further conveyance, transfer, assignment or assurance; ( b ) the liability becomes the liability of the Agency; ( c ) all legal or other proceedings relating to that asset or liability that are pending immediately before the transfer date by or against the transferor (or a predecessor of the transferor) are taken to be proceedings pending by or against the Agency; ( d ) any legal or other proceedings relating to that asset or liability which could have been started immediately before the transfer date by or against the transferor (or a predecessor of the transferor) may be started by or against the Agency; ( e ) a judgment or order of a court or other tribunal obtained before the transfer date by or against the transferor (or a predecessor of the transferor) relating to that asset or liability becomes enforceable by or against the Agency; ( f ) any document in any legal or other proceedings relating to that asset or liability that has been served on or by the transferor (or a predecessor of the transferor) before the transfer date is taken, where appropriate, to have been served on or by the Agency; ( g ) any act, matter or thing done or omitted to be done before the transfer date in relation to that asset or liability by, to or in respect of the transferor (or a predecessor of the transferor) is (to the extent to which that act, matter or thing has any force or effect) taken to have been done or omitted to be done by, to or in respect of the Agency; ( h ) a reference to the transferor (or a predecessor of the transferor) in any Act, any instrument made under any Act, any agreement or any document of any kind is taken to be or includes (to the extent to which the reference relates to that asset or liability) a reference to the Agency; ( i ) any agreement relating to that asset or liability and to which the transferor (or a predecessor of the transferor) is a party becomes enforceable by or against the Agency. (4) The operation of this section does not — ( a ) constitute a breach of, or default under, any Act or other law, or any agreement, or otherwise a civil wrong or criminal wrong; ( b ) constitute a breach of any duty of confidence (whether arising by contract, in equity, by custom, or in any other way); ( c ) constitute a breach of any contractual provision prohibiting, restricting or regulating the assignment or transfer of assets or liabilities or the disclosure of any information; ( d ) terminate an agreement or obligation, or fulfil any condition that allows a person to terminate or otherwise releases a person from any agreement or obligation, or give rise to any right or remedy in respect of any agreement or obligation; ( e ) cause any contract or other instrument to be void or otherwise unenforceable; ( f ) frustrate any contract; ( g ) release a surety or other obligor or obligee wholly or in part from an obligation; or ( h ) constitute an event of breach of, or default under, any contract or other instrument. (5) No attornment to the Agency by a lessee of the transferor is required.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s51
chapter: PART 8 - TRANSFER OF UNDERTAKINGS AND
section: 51
title: Transfer of employees and secondees to Agency
content:
51. —(1) On the transfer date, every transferring HPB employee and every transferring MOH employee — ( a ) stops being an employee of the Health Promotion Board or the Government, as the case may be; and ( b ) is each transferred to the service, and becomes an employee, of the Agency on terms no less favourable than those enjoyed by the employee on the eve of the transfer date. (2) A certificate signed by the Minister certifying whether an individual named in the certificate has been transferred to the service of the Agency under subsection (1) is admissible in evidence in any proceedings as proof of the matters stated in the certificate. (3) The transfer under subsection (1) of a transferring HPB employee or a transferring MOH employee (as the case may be) to the service of the Agency — ( a ) does not interrupt continuity of that employee’s service; ( b ) does not constitute a retrenchment or redundancy of that employee’s employment by the Health Promotion Board or the Government, as the case may be; and ( c ) does not entitle that employee to any compensation or other payment or benefit merely because he or she stops being employed by the Health Promotion Board or the Government, as the case may be. (4) Nothing in this section prevents — ( a ) any of the terms and conditions of employment of an individual transferred to the service of the Agency under subsection (1) from being altered by or under any law, award or agreement with effect from any time after the transfer date; and ( b ) an individual transferred to the service of the Agency under subsection (1) from resigning from that service any time after the transfer date, in accordance with the terms and conditions of his or her employment then applicable. (5) To avoid doubt, section 18A of the Employment Act 1968 does not apply to the transfer under this Part of any transferring HPB employee or transferring MOH employee to the service of the Agency. (6) On the transfer date, every public officer seconded to any of the departments of the transferor as specified in the Schedule under either of the following that is in force on the eve of the transfer date, continues on secondment to the Agency: ( a ) an arrangement made by the Government; ( b ) an agreement or arrangement between the Government and the Health Promotion Board. (7) On the transfer date, every employee of a public body seconded to any of the departments of the transferor as specified in the Schedule under an agreement or arrangement between the transferor and that public body that is in force on the eve of the transfer date, continues on secondment to the Agency.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s52
chapter: PART 8 - TRANSFER OF UNDERTAKINGS AND
section: 52
title: General preservation of employment terms, etc.
content:
52. —(1) When a transferring HPB employee or transferring MOH employee is transferred to the service of the Agency under section 51(1) (called in this section a transferred employee), the transferred employee’s service with the Agency must be regarded for all purposes as having been continuous with his or her service with the transferor immediately before the transfer date. (2) On the transfer date — ( a ) a transferred employee retains all accrued rights as if his or her employment with the Agency were a continuation of employment with the transferor; ( b ) the liabilities of the transferor relating to the transferred employee’s accrued rights to annual, sick, maternity or other leave and superannuation become the liabilities of the Agency; and ( c ) a reference to the transferor in the contract of employment that had effect in relation to the transferred employee immediately before the transfer date is taken to be, or includes, a reference to the Agency. (3) Until the time the Agency draws up the terms and conditions of employment for the transferred employee, the Agency is to be regarded as employing the transferred employee on the same terms and conditions of his or her employment with the transferor on the eve of the transfer date. (4) Any term or condition of employment drawn up by the Agency relating to the length of service of the transferred employee with the Agency must recognise the length of service of that employee with the transferor (including any previous service of that employee taken to be service with the transferor) to be service with the Agency. (5) For any conduct of the transferred employee when he or she was employed by the transferor which would have rendered that employee liable to be reprimanded, reduced in rank, retired, dismissed or punished by the transferor, the Agency may — ( a ) start any disciplinary proceedings against that employee; ( b ) carry on and complete any disciplinary proceedings started by the transferor against that employee if those proceedings are pending on the eve of the transfer date; and ( c ) reprimand, reduce in rank, retire, dismiss or otherwise punish that employee as if that employee were not transferred. (6) Where, on the eve of the transfer date, any matter about the conduct of the transferred employee during his or her employment with the transferor concerned — ( a ) was in the course of being heard or investigated by a committee of the transferor acting under due authority; or ( b ) had been heard or investigated, but no order, ruling or direction had been made, by that committee, that committee must complete the hearing or investigation and make such order, ruling or direction as it could have made under the authority vested in it before that date, and that order, ruling or direction is to be regarded as an order, ruling or direction of the Agency.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s53
chapter: PART 8 - TRANSFER OF UNDERTAKINGS AND
section: 53
title: Transfer of records
content:
53. On the transfer date, every record, or part of any record, of the transferor that relates to the following becomes the record of the Agency: ( a ) any asset or liability transferred to the Agency under section 50(1); ( b ) any transferring HPB employee; ( c ) any transferring MOH employee.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s54
chapter: PART 9 - CONSEQUENTIAL AMENDMENTS TO OTHER ACTS
section: 54
title: Consequential amendments to other Acts
content:
54. —(1) In the Accounting Standards Act 2007, in the Schedule, after item 8, insert — “8A. Communicable Diseases Agency Communicable Diseases Agency Act 2025”. (2) In the Attorney-General (Additional Functions) Act 2014, in the Schedule, after item 5, insert — “ 5A. Communicable Diseases Agency ”. (3) In the Central Provident Fund Act 1953, in the First Schedule, in paragraph 6, after item (9), insert — “ (9A) Communicable Diseases Agency. ”. (4) In the Infectious Diseases Act 1976, in the following provisions, replace “the Board” with “the Communicable Diseases Agency”: Section 48(2)( b )(i) Section 49 Section 50(4) Section 63(1). (5) In the Official Secrets Act 1935, in the Schedule, after item 5, insert — “ 5A. Communicable Diseases Agency ”. (6) In the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018, in the First Schedule, in Part 1, after item 7, insert — “7A. Communicable Diseases Agency Communicable Diseases Agency Act 2025”. (7) In the Statutory Bodies and Government Companies (Protection of Secrecy) Act 1983, in the Schedule, in Part 1, after item 5, insert — “5A. Communicable Diseases Agency Communicable Diseases Agency Act 2025”. (8) In the Statutory Corporations (Contributions to Consolidated Fund) Act 1989, in the Schedule, after item 8, insert — “8A. Communicable Diseases Agency Communicable Diseases Agency Act 2025”.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s55
chapter: PART 9 - CONSEQUENTIAL AMENDMENTS TO OTHER ACTS
section: 55
title: Saving and transitional provision
content:
55. For a period of 2 years after the date of commencement of any provision of this Act, the Minister may, by regulations, prescribe such provisions of a saving or transitional nature consequent on the enactment of that provision as the Minister may consider necessary or expedient.


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. —(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “adoptive father” includes a man who — ( a ) applies to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children; or ( b ) has obtained a dependant’s pass for a child whom he intends to adopt in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children; “adoptive mother” includes a woman who — ( a ) applies to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children; or ( b ) has obtained a dependant’s pass for a child whom she intends to adopt in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children; “approved person” means a person approved by the Minister as an approved person under the regulations made under section 7; “April 2025 Scheme child” means — ( a ) a child born alive and whose mother’s confinement in respect of the child occurs on or after 1 April 2025, or occurs before 1 April 2025 but the estimated delivery date for that confinement is on or after that date; or ( b ) a child in respect of whom the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child is on or after 1 April 2025; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “bank account” means a bank account opened under the regulations made under section 3; “benefit period”, in relation to a female employee to whom subsection (1), (1A) or (1B) of section 9 applies, means the period that she is entitled under the applicable subsection to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay; “confinement” means the delivery of one or more children (including a stillborn child) from one pregnancy; “dependant’s pass”, in relation to a child, means a dependant’s pass issued in respect of the child under regulations made under the Immigration Act 1959 to enable the child to remain, or to enter and remain, in Singapore for the purposes of adoption under the Adoption of Children Act 2022 or any corresponding previous written law, and includes a document evidencing that the application for the dependant’s pass has been approved; [Act 20 of 2022 wef 15/10/2024] “Director” means a public officer appointed by the Minister for the purposes of administering any provision of this Act; “eligibility date”, in relation to an application to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children, means — ( a ) if the child is a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore, the date on which the application to adopt the child is made; or [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( b ) if the child is not a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore, the date on which a dependant’s pass is issued in respect of the child; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “employed outside Singapore” means employed outside Singapore under a contract of service with an employer outside Singapore; “employee” means any person who has entered into or works under a contract of service with an employer in Singapore, and includes a workman as defined in the Employment Act 1968 and any officer or employee of the Government; “employer” means any person who employs another person under a contract of service and includes — ( a ) the Government; ( b ) any statutory authority; ( c ) the duly authorised agent or manager of the employer; and ( d ) the person who owns or who is carrying on or is for the time being responsible for the management of the profession, business, trade or work in which the employee is engaged; “estimated delivery date” means the estimated delivery date of a child as certified by a medical practitioner; “gross rate of pay” means the total amount of money (including allowances) to which an employee is entitled under the employee’s contract of service, either for working for a period of time (that is, for an hour, a day, a week or a month, or for any other period, that may be stated or implied in the contract of service) or for each completed piece or task of work, but does not include any of the following: ( a ) additional payments by way of overtime payments; ( b ) additional payments by way of bonus payments or annual wage supplements; ( c ) any sum paid to the employee to reimburse the employee for special expenses incurred by the employee in the course of the employee’s employment; ( d ) productivity incentive payments; ( e ) travelling, food or housing allowances; “January 2024 Scheme child” means — ( a ) a child born alive and whose mother’s confinement in respect of the child occurs on or after 1 January 2024, or occurs before 1 January 2024 but the estimated delivery date for that confinement is on or after that date; or ( b ) a child in respect of whom the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child is on or after 1 January 2024; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “lost income”, in relation to a period during which a self‑employed man or self‑employed woman ceased to be actively engaged in his or her trade, business, profession or vocation, means the income that he or she would otherwise have derived from that trade, business, profession or vocation had he or she continued to be actively engaged in that trade, business, profession or vocation during that period; “medical practitioner” means a medical practitioner registered under the Medical Registration Act 1997; “member” means a member of the Scheme; “natural father”, in relation to a child, includes a person who is identified in the registration of the birth of the child as the father of the child; “parent”, in relation to a child, includes a legal guardian of the child; “part-time employee” has the meaning given by section 66A(1) of the Employment Act 1968; “personal representative” means the executor (original or by representation) or administrator for the time being of a deceased person; “platform operator” has the meaning given by section 4 of the Platform Workers Act 2024; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “productivity incentive payment” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Employment Act 1968; “PSE account” has the meaning given by the Education Endowment and Savings Schemes Act 1992; “Scheme” means the Child Development Co-Savings Scheme established by the regulations made under section 3; “self-employed man” means any man resident in Singapore who engages in or carries on any trade, business, profession or vocation other than employment under a contract of service and derives income from that trade, business, profession or vocation, or any other man declared by the Minister to be a self‑employed man for the purposes of this Act; “self‑employed outside Singapore” means engaged in, or carrying on, any trade, business, profession or vocation other than employment under a contract of service, and deriving income from that trade, business, profession or vocation, while resident outside Singapore; “self-employed woman” means any woman resident in Singapore who engages in or carries on any trade, business, profession or vocation other than employment under a contract of service and derives income from that trade, business, profession or vocation or any other woman declared by the Minister to be a self‑employed woman for the purposes of this Act; “specified event”, in relation to a woman, means — ( a ) the woman’s confinement; ( b ) the making of an application by the woman to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children, if — (i) the woman is not the child’s natural mother; and (ii) at the time of the application, the child — (A) is below 12 months of age; and (B) is a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( c ) the issue of a dependant’s pass in respect of a child whom the woman intends to adopt in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children, if — (i) the woman is not the child’s natural mother; and (ii) at the time the dependant’s pass is issued, the child — (A) is below 12 months of age; and (B) is not a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( d ) the adoption of a child by the woman under any foreign law relating to the adoption of children, if — (i) the woman is not the child’s natural mother; and (ii) at the time of the adoption, the child is below 12 months of age; “stillborn child” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act 2021; [Act 19 of 2021 wef 29/05/2022] “weekly index”, in relation to a male or female employee or a self‑employed man or self‑employed woman, means his or her number of work days per week determined in accordance with the First Schedule. [42/2004; 9/2007; 52/2007; 28/2008; 13/2011; 12/2013; 33/2016; 19/2021] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (1A) To avoid doubt, for the purposes of this Act, a platform worker (within the meaning given by section 5(1) of the Platform Workers Act 2024) is to be regarded as a person who engages in or carries on a trade, business, profession or vocation other than employment under a contract of service and derives income from that trade, business, profession or vocation. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (2) For the purpose of determining whether a woman’s specified event (called in this subsection the relevant specified event) is the woman’s first, second, third or subsequent specified event — ( a ) if the relevant specified event occurs before 1 November 2021, any previous specified event of the woman is to be disregarded if, at the time of the relevant specified event, either of the following applies to each child from the previous specified event: (i) the child is dead or was a stillborn child; (ii) the child has been adopted by another person (other than jointly with the woman); ( aa ) if the relevant specified event occurs on or after 1 November 2021, any previous specified event of the woman is to be disregarded if, at the time of the relevant specified event, each child from that previous specified event has been adopted by another person (other than jointly with the woman); and ( b ) any previous specified event involving an application by the woman to adopt a child is to be disregarded if, at the time of the relevant specified event, the application has been withdrawn or refused. [33/2016; 19/2021] (2A) In reckoning the age of a person for the purposes of this Act — ( a ) the person is taken to have attained a particular age expressed in years on the relevant anniversary of the person’s birth; ( b ) a reference to the anniversary of the birth of the person in paragraph ( a ) is a reference to the day on which the anniversary occurs; and ( c ) where a person was born on 29 February in any year, then, in any subsequent year that is not a leap year, the anniversary of that person’s birth is taken to be 28 February in that subsequent year. [19/2021] (2B) In reckoning the period of — ( a ) a person’s entitlement under this Act to leave or to be absent from work; or ( b ) a person’s cessation of active engagement in any trade, business, profession or vocation for which the person is entitled to claim lost income under this Act, the period ceases on and excludes the day of the person’s death. [19/2021] (2C) In this Act, a reference to any entitlement of a person to any payment or reimbursement under Part 3 (excluding any entitlement under section 12B, 12C, 12CA or 12D) includes a reference to that entitlement where modified by section 12MA in relation to a parent described in section 12MA(1) or any employer of that parent. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (3) The Minister may, by order in the Gazette , amend the First or Second Schedule. [55/2018] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (4) The Minister may, in an order under subsection (3), make any provisions of a saving or transitional nature consequent to the enactment of that order that the Minister may consider necessary or expedient. [55/2018]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - CHILD DEVELOPMENT CO-SAVINGS SCHEME
section: 3
title: Establishment of Child Development Co-Savings Scheme to assist families
content:
3. —(1) The Minister may by regulations establish a scheme to be called the Child Development Co-Savings Scheme — ( a ) to encourage married women to have more children, by the provision of financial assistance for the development of the children of families through a co-savings arrangement; ( aa ) to provide financial assistance for the development of any other child through a co‑savings arrangement; ( b ) to facilitate the provision of cash grants made by the Government from time to time for the development of children; ( c ) to facilitate the making of financial provision for the development of a child, whether or not the child is eligible for a co‑savings arrangement, through the making of contributions to the child’s bank account by or on behalf of any parent of the child; and ( d ) to make financial provision for a child whose parents have obtained a judgment for the dissolution or annulment of their marriage or judicial separation, through the transfer of matrimonial assets divided between the parents by a court pursuant to the divorce, annulment or judicial separation proceedings into the child’s bank account. [13/2011; 17/2016] (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the regulations may provide for — ( a ) different types of membership of the Scheme, and the eligibility criteria, benefits and terms and conditions for each type of membership of the Scheme; ( b ) the appointment of one or more managing agents responsible for the operation and administration of the Scheme and the powers, functions and duties of the managing agents, including the duty of the managing agents to comply with any requirement relating to confidentiality of information; ( c ) the payment of contributions to the Scheme by or on behalf of any parent of a member, whether or not the member is eligible for a co‑savings arrangement; ( d ) the payment of moneys to a member, and the amount, mode, manner and terms and conditions of any such payment; ( e ) the opening of and the type of bank account for each member into which moneys will be paid; ( f ) the suspension or termination of such bank account and the circumstances in which the account may be suspended or terminated; ( g ) the terms and conditions governing the relationship between the bank at which a bank account under the Scheme is opened and maintained and the member and the trustee of the bank account; ( h ) the purposes for which the moneys paid under the Scheme can be utilised and the terms and conditions subject to which withdrawals of the moneys can be made; ( i ) the transfer of any moneys standing to the credit of a member in his or her bank account to his or her PSE account or one or more other accounts opened for the member’s benefit as may be prescribed, or the withdrawal of such moneys, at such time, in such manner and in such circumstances, as may be prescribed; ( j ) the consequences for any breach of the regulations, including making any act or omission in contravention of the regulations an offence and prescribing penalties for such offence not exceeding a fine of $20,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or both; and ( k ) different provisions in respect of a child eligible for membership of the Scheme whose parents have not attained the age of majority. [9/2007; 52/2007; 13/2011; 17/2016; 19/2021] (3) In this section, “co‑savings arrangement”, in relation to a child, means an arrangement by which the Government makes contributions to the bank account of a child eligible for that arrangement, equal to the contributions made by or on behalf of any parent of the child. [17/2016]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - CHILD DEVELOPMENT CO-SAVINGS SCHEME
section: 4
title: Compulsory substitution of trustee
content:
4. —(1) Unless otherwise provided in an order of court or directed by the Minister, the trustee of the moneys standing to the credit of a member’s bank account must — ( a ) where the custody, care and control of the member is granted (under an order of court or by agreement between the parents of the member) to the parent of the member who is not the trustee, be substituted with the parent to whom custody, care and control has been granted; ( b ) where the care and control of the member is granted (under an order of court or by agreement between the parents of the member) to the parent of the member who is not the trustee, be substituted with the parent to whom care and control has been granted, even though custody of the member remains with the parent who is the trustee; ( c ) where the custody, care and control, or care and control, of the member is granted (under an order of court or by agreement between the parents of the member) to a person other than the parents of the member, be substituted with the person granted custody, care and control, or care and control, of the member; ( d ) where the member is legally adopted by any person, be substituted with the adopter of the member; ( da ) where the circumstances in paragraph ( e ), ( f ) or ( g ) exist in relation to the trustee and the member has a legal guardian, be substituted with that legal guardian instead of the substitute trustee mentioned in any of those paragraphs; ( e ) where the trustee is dead, be substituted with the trustee’s personal representative; ( f ) where the trustee is no longer able to act as trustee by reason that the trustee lacks capacity (within the meaning of the Mental Capacity Act 2008) to exercise the trustee’s functions as trustee, be substituted with — (i) a donee of a lasting power of attorney granted by the trustee under that Act, and under which the trustee confers on the donee authority either to make decisions concerning the trustee’s property and affairs or to exercise the functions as trustee; (ii) a deputy appointed or deemed to be appointed for the trustee by the court under that Act, and who is conferred power either to make decisions concerning the trustee’s property and affairs or to exercise the functions as trustee; or (iii) if there is no such donee or deputy, a person nominated by the Minister; ( g ) where the trustee is unable or unwilling to act as trustee for any other reason — (i) be substituted with the person nominated by the trustee and approved by the Minister to act in the place of the existing trustee; or (ii) if no person was nominated to act in place of the existing trustee, be substituted with a person appointed by a Director until sub‑paragraph (i) applies; ( h ) where the trustee is a parent of the member and both parents of the member agree to his or her substitution as trustee, be substituted with a person whom both parents have nominated to act in place of the existing trustee; ( i ) where the trustee is not a parent of the member, and both parents of the member and the trustee agree to the substitution of that trustee, be substituted with a person whom both parents have nominated to act in place of the existing trustee; and ( j ) where the trustee is a parent ( A ) of the member, and the other parent ( B ) of the member is of the opinion that circumstances exist such that A is unable to act as trustee and A ’s agreement for A ’s substitution as trustee cannot practically be obtained, be substituted with B or a trustee nominated by B to act in place of A if a Director is satisfied that those circumstances exist. [21/2008; 33/2016; 19/2021] (2) Despite subsection (1), the Minister may, if he or she considers it necessary, direct that a trustee be removed and substituted with any other person that the Minister may nominate. (3) This section has effect despite anything to the contrary in the Trustees Act 1967.


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - CHILD DEVELOPMENT CO-SAVINGS SCHEME
section: 5
title: Protection of benefits
content:
5. Subject to the Education Endowment and Savings Schemes Act 1992 and any regulations made under section 3 (insofar as they provide for the withdrawal, transfer or utilisation of any moneys paid into a member’s bank account), the ownership of any moneys paid into a member’s bank account by the Government or the member’s parent under the Scheme belongs, with effect from the date of the payment, to the member absolutely and — ( a ) the payment by the parent does not constitute a “matrimonial asset” within the meaning of section 112 of the Women’s Charter 1961; ( b ) the payment by the parent does not constitute a transaction at an undervalue or an unfair preference under section 361 or 362 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018, or form part of the estate of a parent who has been adjudicated bankrupt; and ( c ) the moneys in the member’s bank account are not assignable or liable to be attached, sequestered or levied upon for or in respect of any debt or claim. [52/2007; 40/2018]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - CHILD DEVELOPMENT CO-SAVINGS SCHEME
section: 6
title: Moneys payable on death of member
content:
6. —(1) Where a member dies, the moneys standing to his or her credit in his or her bank account must be paid to the Public Trustee for disposal in accordance with — ( a ) the Intestate Succession Act 1967, if the member was not a Muslim at the time of death; or ( b ) section 112 of the Administration of Muslim Law Act 1966, if the member was a Muslim at the time of death. [2/2012] (2) The receipt of the Public Trustee is a good discharge to the Minister and the managing agent for those portions of the moneys payable out of the bank account on the death of a member that are payable to the Public Trustee under subsection (1). (3) All moneys paid out of the bank account on the death of any member are deemed to be impressed with a trust in favour of the person or persons determined by the Public Trustee in accordance with subsection (1) to be entitled to the moneys but are, without prejudice to the Estate Duty Act 1929, deemed not to form part of the deceased member’s estate or to be subject to the member’s debts.


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - CHILD DEVELOPMENT CO-SAVINGS SCHEME
section: 7
title: Approved persons
content:
7. —(1) The Minister may make regulations to approve a person as an approved person for the purposes of, and connected with, the Scheme. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the regulations may — ( a ) prescribe the manner in which applications for approval as an approved person may be made, or provide for the circumstances in which the Minister may appoint an approved person without such applications being made; ( b ) provide for the refund of any payment made to an approved person under the Scheme (including the circumstances for refund and the manner of refund); ( c ) require the approved person to execute a security bond as a precondition for such approval; ( d ) specify any other terms and conditions subject to which the approval of the Minister is granted; ( e ) provide for the circumstances in which approval granted to a person is revoked, and other circumstances in which the approval may be suspended or revoked by the Minister; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] ( f ) empower a Director to require an approved person to appoint an auditor to conduct an audit of the approved person’s compliance with this Act, its regulations or any terms and conditions of approval applicable to that person, and to make provision for other matters with respect to such audit; and [19/2021] [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] ( g ) specify duties of officers and employees of an approved person. [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 2 - CHILD DEVELOPMENT CO-SAVINGS SCHEME
section: 8
title: Recovery of payment by Government
content:
8. —(1) Where any payment has been made into a member’s bank account by the Government under the Scheme and the payment is — ( a ) made in reliance on any false or misleading statement, document or information made or provided by a parent of the member or any other person; ( b ) made by reason of any error (however caused); or ( c ) utilised for purposes not authorised by the Scheme, the Government may — ( d ) recover that payment from any moneys standing to the credit of the member’s bank account; ( e ) deduct or set off the amount of that payment from any other payment made or to be made by the Government under the Scheme or a prescribed scheme to the member’s bank account; ( f ) deduct or set off the amount of that payment from any other payment made or to be made by the Government under a prescribed scheme to a parent of the member or a person nominated by the parent; ( g ) where the payment was made on account of any false or misleading statement, document or information made or provided by, or any error caused or permitted to be caused by, a parent of the member or any other person (called the person in default), recover that payment from the person in default as a civil debt; or ( h ) recover that payment from a parent or legal guardian of the member as a civil debt, even if he or she is not the person in default under paragraph ( g ), if the Government is unable to recover that payment under paragraph ( d ) or ( g ) or make the deduction or set‑off under paragraph ( e ) or ( f ). [19/2021] (2) Where the Government is entitled to recover any payment from a member’s bank account under subsection (1), the bank at which the account is opened and maintained must not authorise any further withdrawal from the account until the payment due to the Government has been deducted from the moneys standing to the credit of the account and paid to the Government. (3) Where a trustee of a member’s bank account or an approved person utilises any moneys from the member’s bank account for purposes not authorised by the Scheme, the Government may — ( a ) require the trustee or approved person (as the case may be) to refund the amount so utilised to the member’s bank account, or if there is no longer a bank account under the Scheme to which the refund may be made, to such other account for the member’s benefit as a Director may determine; and ( b ) where the approved person, the trustee or any other person had deposited moneys into the member’s bank account for the purpose of facilitating such utilisation for unauthorised purposes, recover as a civil debt from that approved person, trustee or other person (as the case may be) any contributions made by the Government under a co‑savings arrangement mentioned in section 3(3) relating to such deposited moneys. [19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 9
title: Length of maternity benefit period, etc., for female employee or self-employed woman
content:
9. —(1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), sections 9A and 12E and any regulations made under section 20, every female employee who satisfies the requirements of section 9A(1) is entitled to absent herself from work — ( a ) during — (i) the period of 4 weeks immediately before her confinement; and (ii) the period of 12 weeks immediately after her confinement; ( b ) during a period of 16 weeks, as agreed to by her and her employer, commencing — (i) not earlier than 28 days immediately preceding the day of her confinement; and (ii) not later than the day of her confinement; or ( c ) during — (i) a period of 8 weeks, as agreed to by her and her employer, commencing — (A) not earlier than 28 days immediately preceding the day of her confinement; and (B) not later than the day of her confinement; and (ii) one or more than one later period, each being of a duration that is agreed between the employee and her employer, all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to 8 times the employee’s weekly index or 48 days (whichever is the lower), and all of which must be taken within the period of 12 months commencing on the day of her confinement, and for that period of her absence from work, she is entitled to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay. [42/2004; 9/2007; 28/2008; 12/2013; 26/2013; 33/2016] (1A) Subject to subsection (3A), sections 9A and 12E and any regulations made under section 20, every female employee who — ( a ) delivers a child who is not a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth; ( b ) satisfies the requirements of section 9A(1A); and ( c ) absents herself from work under section 76(1) of the Employment Act 1968, is entitled — (i) where section 76(1)( a ) of the Employment Act 1968 applies and her confinement during which the child is delivered is her first or second specified event — (A) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within the first 4 weeks of the period referred to in section 76(1)( a )(ii) of that Act (called in this paragraph the specified period) — (AA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for the last 4 weeks of the specified period; and (AB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the end of the specified period, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); (B) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore after the first 4 weeks of, but within, the specified period — (BA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for the period commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore and ending on the last day of the specified period; and (BB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the end of the specified period, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); or (C) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within a period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the specified period ends, to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); (ii) where section 76(1)( a ) of the Employment Act 1968 applies and her confinement during which the child is delivered is her third or subsequent specified event — (A) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period referred to in section 76(1)( a )(ii) of that Act (called in this paragraph the specified period) — (AA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for the period commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore and ending on the last day of the specified period; and (AB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the end of the specified period, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); or (B) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within a period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the specified period ends, to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); (iii) where section 76(1)( b ) of the Employment Act 1968 applies and her confinement during which the child is delivered is her first or second specified event — (A) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within the first 8 weeks of the period referred to in section 76(1)( b ) of that Act (called in this paragraph the specified period) — (AA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for the last 4 weeks of the specified period; and (AB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the end of the specified period, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); (B) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore after the first 8 weeks of, but within, the specified period — (BA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for the period commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore and ending on the last day of the specified period; and (BB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the end of the specified period, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); or (C) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within a period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the specified period ends, to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); (iv) where section 76(1)( b ) of the Employment Act 1968 applies and her confinement during which the child is delivered is her third or subsequent specified event — (A) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period referred to in section 76(1)( b ) of that Act (called in this paragraph the specified period) — (AA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for the period commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore and ending on the last day of the specified period; and (AB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the end of the specified period, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); or (B) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within a period of 4 weeks commencing immediately after the specified period ends, to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for a further period of 4 weeks commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); (iv a ) where section 76(1)( a ) or ( b ) of the Employment Act 1968 applies, and the child becomes a citizen of Singapore after the period of 16 weeks, which commences on the first day on which she exercised her entitlement under section 76(1)( a ) or ( b ) (as the case may be) of that Act, but within the period of 12 months commencing on the day of her confinement — (A) to absent herself from work for a further period of 4 weeks commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore, or for the agreed flexible period mentioned in subsection (1AA); and (B) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for the further period of 4 weeks or the agreed flexible period under sub‑paragraph (A); (v) where section 76(1)( c ) of the Employment Act 1968 applies and her confinement during which the child is delivered is her first or second specified event — (A) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period of 8 weeks referred to in section 76(1)( c )(i) of that Act (called in this paragraph the eight‑week period) — (AA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for every period referred to in section 76(1)( c )(ii) of that Act; and (AB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for one or more than one later period, each being of a duration that is agreed between the employee and her employer, all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or 24 days (whichever is the lower), and all of which must be taken within the period of 12 months commencing on the day of her confinement; or (B) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore after the eight‑week period — (BA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for every period referred to in section 76(1)( c )(ii) of that Act commencing on or after the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore; and (BB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for one or more than one later period, each being of a duration that is agreed between the employee and her employer, all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or 24 days (whichever is the lower), and all of which must commence on or after the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore and be taken within the period of 12 months commencing on the day of her confinement; or (vi) where section 76(1)( c ) of the Employment Act 1968 applies and her confinement during which the child is delivered is her third or subsequent specified event — (A) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period of 8 weeks referred to in section 76(1)( c )(i) of that Act (called in this paragraph the eight‑week period) — (AA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for the period commencing on the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore and ending on the last day of the eight‑week period, and for every period referred to in section 76(1)( c )(ii) of that Act; and (AB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for one or more than one later period, each being of a duration that is agreed between the employee and her employer, all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or 24 days (whichever is the lower), and all of which must be taken within the period of 12 months commencing on the day of her confinement; or (B) if the child becomes a citizen of Singapore after the eight‑week period — (BA) to receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for every period referred to in section 76(1)( c )(ii) of that Act commencing on or after the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore; and (BB) to absent herself from work and receive payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay for one or more than one later period, each being of a duration that is agreed between the employee and her employer, all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or 24 days (whichever is the lower), and all of which must commence on or after the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore and be taken within the period of 12 months commencing on the day of her confinement. [28/2008; 12/2013; 26/2013; 33/2016; 19/2021] (1AA) For the purposes of subsection (1A), the agreed flexible period consists of one or more periods where — ( a ) each period is of a duration agreed between a female employee and her employer; ( b ) the total duration of the period (if only one


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s9A
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 9A
title: Eligibility criteria and cap in respect of maternity benefits
content:
9A. —(1) Subject to this section, a female employee is entitled to absent herself from work and to payment under section 9(1), and a self-employed woman is entitled to payment by the Government under section 9(4), if — ( a ) her confinement in respect of a child occurs, or the estimated delivery date for her confinement is, on or after 1 January 2017, or (in the case of a stillborn child) on or after 1 November 2021; ( b ) a child delivered during her confinement is a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth, or (in the case of a stillborn child) would have been a citizen of Singapore at birth; ( c ) in the case of a female employee, she has served her employer for a period of at least 3 months before the day of her confinement; and ( d ) in the case of a self-employed woman, she has been carrying on her trade, business, profession or vocation for a continuous period of at least 3 months before the day of her confinement. [33/2016; 19/2021] (1A) Subject to this section, a female employee is entitled to absent herself from work and to payment under section 9(1A) or (1B), and a self-employed woman is entitled to payment by the Government under section 9(4A), if — ( a ) her confinement occurs, or the estimated delivery date for her confinement is, on or after 1 January 2017; ( b ) a child delivered during her confinement — (i) is not a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth; but (ii) becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth; ( c ) in the case of a female employee, she has served her employer for a period of at least 3 months before the day of her confinement; and ( d ) in the case of a self-employed woman, she has been carrying on her trade, business, profession or vocation for a continuous period of at least 3 months before the day of her confinement. [33/2016] (2) Subject to this section, a woman who is or was a female employee or self‑employed woman is entitled to payment by the Government under section 9(5A) if — ( a ) her confinement in respect of a child occurs, or the estimated delivery date for her confinement is, on or after 1 January 2017, or (in the case of a stillborn child) on or after 1 November 2021; ( b ) a child delivered during her confinement — (i) is a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth, or (in the case of a stillborn child) would have been a citizen of Singapore at birth; or (ii) is not a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth, but becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth; ( c ) for at least 90 days in the aggregate during the period of 12 months immediately before the day of her confinement, she has been employed by one or more employers, self‑employed or both (whether in Singapore or outside Singapore); and ( d ) in the case of a woman who has been employed outside Singapore or self‑employed outside Singapore, she — (i) is resident in Singapore, and is no longer employed outside Singapore or self‑employed outside Singapore (as the case may be), on the day of her confinement; and (ii) opts to do either or both of the following: (A) use any period during the 12 months immediately before the day of her confinement when she was employed outside Singapore, or was self‑employed outside Singapore, to satisfy the requirement in paragraph ( c ); (B) use her income during any period mentioned in sub‑paragraph (A) to calculate her total income for the purposes of section 9(5A). [33/2016; 19/2021] (2A) For the purposes of reckoning the number of days under subsection (2)( c ) in which a woman has been employed or self‑employed — ( a ) the aggregate number of days need not immediately precede the day of her confinement; ( b ) Saturdays, Sundays and public holidays are included, in the case of a female employee who is or was employed by an employer for a continuous period, or a self‑employed woman who is or was engaged in her trade, business, profession or vocation for a continuous period; ( c ) in the case of a female employee who is or was a daily‑rated employee, the number of days is the actual number of days in which the female employee had worked; ( d ) in the case of a self-employed woman who is or was engaged in her trade, business, profession or vocation for a non‑continuous period, the number of days is the actual number of days in which the self‑employed woman was engaged in her trade, business, profession or vocation; and ( e ) where 2 or more periods of employment overlap, the overlapping periods are counted only once. [12/2013; 33/2016] (3) Despite anything in the Employment Act 1968, no female employee is entitled to absent herself from work or to any payment under section 76 of that Act in respect of any confinement to which she is entitled to absent herself from work or to payment under section 9(1). (3A) Despite anything in the Employment Act 1968, no female employee is entitled to receive payment under section 76 of that Act in respect of any period of her absence from work under section 76(1) of that Act for which she is entitled to receive payment under section 9(1A). [33/2016] (4) The payment that a female employee is entitled to receive from her employer under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B) in respect of her confinement is subject to the following amounts that apply for the following period or periods: ( a ) if her confinement is her first or second specified event — (i) an amount that does not exceed $10,000 for every period of absence specified in each of the following sub‑paragraphs: (A) where the amount is paid under section 9(1) in respect of her absence from work under section 9(1)( a ) or ( b ) — every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her absence from work under section 9(1)( a ) or ( b ) (as the case may be) after the first 8 weeks of such absence; (B) where the amount is paid under section 9(1) in respect of her absence from work under section 9(1)( c )(ii) — every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her absence from work under that provision after the first 8 weeks of her absence from work under section 9(1)( c )(i); (C) where the amount is paid under section 9(1A)(i) or (iii) — every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her absence from work under that provision or under section 76(1)( a ) or ( b ) of the Employment Act 1968 (as the case may be) after the first 8 weeks of her absence from work under section 76(1)( a ) or ( b ) of that Act; (D) where the amount is paid under section 9(1A)(iv a ) or (1B)(ii)(B) or (iii) — every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her absence from work under any of those provisions; (E) where the amount is paid under section 9(1A)(v)(A)(AA) or (B)(BA) — every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her absence from work under section 76(1)( c )(ii) of the Employment Act 1968 after the first 8 weeks of her absence from work under section 76(1)( c )(i) of that Act; (F) where the amount is paid under section 9(1A)(v)(A)(AB) or (B)(BB) — every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her absence from work under that provision after the first 8 weeks of her absence from work under section 76(1)( c )(i) of the Employment Act 1968; (G) where the amount is paid under section 9(1B)(i) — every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her absence from work under that provision after the first 8 weeks of such absence; and (ii) in any case, an amount that does not exceed a total of $20,000 for the period of absence (if only one), or all the periods of absence, under sub‑paragraph (i)(A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) or (G), whichever is applicable; ( b ) if her confinement is her third or subsequent specified event and the amount is paid under section 9(1) in respect of any period of absence under section 9(1)( a ), ( b ) or ( c )(i) or (ii), or paid under section 9(1A)(ii), (iv), (iv a ) or (vi) or (1B)(i), (ii)(A) or (B) or (iii) — (i) an amount that does not exceed $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her absence from work; and (ii) in any case, an amount that does not exceed a total of $40,000 for the period of absence (if only one) under sub‑paragraph (i), or all the periods of absence under that sub‑paragraph, whichever is applicable. [19/2021] (5) Where a self-employed woman ceases to be actively engaged in her trade, business, profession or vocation during the whole or part of any period mentioned in section 9(4) or (4A) for her confinement, the amount of payment she is entitled to receive from the Government — ( a ) under section 9(5)( a ), if her confinement is her first or second specified event, is an amount that does not exceed — (i) $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times her weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her cessation of active engagement in her trade, business, profession or vocation — (A) under section 9(4)( b )(i) or (ii), which period is after the first 8 weeks of such cessation; (B) under section 9(4)( b )(iii)(B), which period is after the first 8 weeks of such cessation under section 9(4)( b )(iii)(A); (C) under section 9(4A)( c )(i) or (ii)(A), which period is after the period of 8 weeks mentioned in section 9(5)( a )(ii)(B); or (D) under section 9(4A)( c )(ii)(B) or (iii), which period is after the period of 8 weeks mentioned in section 9(5)( a )(ii)(B); and (ii) in any case, a total of $20,000 for the period of cessation (if only one), or all the periods of cessation, under sub‑paragraph (i)(A), (B), (C) or (D), whichever is applicable; and ( b ) under section 9(5)( b ), if her confinement is her third or subsequent specified event, is an amount that does not exceed — (i) $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times her weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her cessation of active engagement in her trade, business, profession or vocation under section 9(4)( b )(i), (ii) or (iii)(A) or (B) or (4A)( c )(i), (ii)(A) or (B) or (iii); and (ii) in any case, a total of $40,000 for the period (if only one) under sub‑paragraph (i), or all the periods under that sub‑paragraph, whichever is applicable. [33/2016; 19/2021] (5A) The payment that a female employee or a self‑employed woman is entitled to receive from the Government under section 9(5A) for her confinement — ( a ) is an amount that does not exceed $10,000 for every 28 days; and ( b ) is to be reduced, in the case of a female employee, in accordance with any regulations made under section 20, if — (i) the female employee’s employer — (A) has paid or is required to pay the female employee any amount in respect of her confinement; and (B) is entitled to claim, or has claimed, reimbursement from the Government for such payment under section 10 (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22); (ii) where the female employee has made an election under section 12E(5) for the natural father or adoptive father of the child delivered during her confinement to take shared parental leave or claim lost income in respect of the child — (A) the father’s employer — (AA) has paid or is required to pay the father an amount under section 12E(2) for shared parental leave in respect of the child; and (AB) the employer is entitled, upon such payment, to claim reimbursement from the Government under section 12G(1) (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22); or (B) the father is entitled to claim his lost income


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 10
title: Reimbursement from Government for maternity benefits
content:
10. —(1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), section 12E and any regulations made under section 20, where an employer makes any payment to a female employee under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B) for her confinement, the employer is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government — ( a ) if the employee’s confinement is her first or second specified event, for — (i) the amount paid to the employee — (A) under section 9(1) for the period of her absence from work under that provision which is after the first 8 weeks of such absence; (B) under section 9(1A) for such period of her absence from work under section 76(1) of the Employment Act 1968, or under section 9(1A), after the first 8 weeks of her absence from work under section 76(1) of that Act as she is entitled to receive payment under section 9(1A); or (C) under section 9(1B) — (CA) for the whole period of her absence from work under that provision, if that period does not exceed 8 weeks; or (CB) if that period exceeds 8 weeks, for a period of 8 weeks of her absence from work under that provision; and (ii) any contribution made by the employer under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953 in respect of the amount mentioned in sub‑paragraph (i) which is not recoverable from the employee’s wages; and ( b ) if the employee’s confinement is her third or subsequent specified event, for — (i) the amount paid to the employee — (A) under section 9(1) or (1B) for the whole period of her absence from work under that provision; or (B) under section 9(1A) for such period of her absence from work under section 76(1) of the Employment Act 1968, or under section 9(1A), as she is entitled to receive payment under section 9(1A); and (ii) any contribution made by the employer under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953 in respect of the amount mentioned in sub‑paragraph (i) which is not recoverable from the employee’s wages. [33/2016] (2) The amount of reimbursement an employer is entitled to claim from the Government under subsection (1) in respect of a female employee is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) where subsection (1)( a ) applies — (i) $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of the employee’s absence from work; and (ii) a total of $20,000; and ( b ) where subsection (1)( b ) applies — (i) $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of the employee’s absence from work; and (ii) a total of $40,000. [42/2004; 28/2008; 19/2021] (2A) Where an employer makes payment to a female employee in relation to whom the requirements of subsection (2B) are satisfied, in respect of her absence from work for her confinement, the Government may reimburse the employer an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) if the employee’s confinement is her first or second specified event — each of the amounts mentioned in subsection (2)( a )(i) and (ii); and ( b ) if the employee’s confinement is her third or subsequent specified event — each of the amounts mentioned in subsection (2)( b )(i) and (ii). [19/2021] (2B) For the purposes of subsection (2A), the requirements are all of the following: ( a ) the female employee’s confinement occurs, or the estimated delivery date for her confinement is, on or after 1 November 2021; ( b ) the child delivered during her confinement — (i) is a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth, or is a stillborn child who would have been a citizen of Singapore at birth; or (ii) is not a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth, but becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth; ( c ) where paragraph ( b )(i) applies, the female employee’s absence from work occurs during a period that commences not earlier than 28 days immediately preceding the day of her confinement, and ends on or before the last day of her 12-month post-confinement period; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] ( d ) where paragraph ( b )(ii) applies, the female employee’s absence from work commences on or after the day the child becomes a citizen of Singapore, and ends on or before the last day of the female employee’s 12-month post-confinement period; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] ( e ) the female employee does not satisfy the requirement in section 9A(1)( c ) or 9A(1A)( c ). [19/2021] (2C) In subsection (2B), “12-month post-confinement period”, in relation to a female employee, means the period of 12 months commencing on the day of the female employee’s confinement. [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (3) An employer is not entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government for any amount that the employer is directed, on or after 1 January 2017, by any of the following to pay to a female employee, unless the direction has been withdrawn or reversed: ( a ) by the Minister charged with the responsibility for manpower under section 35 of the Industrial Relations Act 1960; ( b ) by the Commissioner for Labour under section 115 of the Employment Act 1968; ( c ) by any court. [33/2016; 55/2018] 10A. [ Repealed by Act 33 of 2016 ] 11. [ Repealed by Act 19 of 2021 ]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12
title: Application of certain provisions of Employment Act 1968
content:
12. —(1) Subject to subsection (1A), sections 77 to 82, 84, 84A and 86 of the Employment Act 1968 apply to any female employee who is entitled to absent herself from work or receive payment from her employer under section 9, and to such payment from her employer, and for the purposes of such application, any reference in those sections of that Act to — ( a ) a female employee is a reference to a female employee to whom this Act applies; ( b ) an employer is a reference to an employer to whom this Act applies; ( c ) “this Part” is a reference to section 9 of this Act; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( d ) “this Act” is a reference to this Act; and ( e ) section 76 is a reference to section 9 of this Act. [42/2004; 12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (1A) Section 80 of the Employment Act 1968 applies to a female employee who is entitled to absent herself from work under section 9 in respect of her confinement on or after 1 April 2025, with the following modifications: ( a ) a reference in section 80(1) of the Employment Act 1968 to “section 76” is a reference to section 9; ( b ) the requirement to give notice under section 80(1) of the Employment Act 1968 does not apply to the female employee, if the female employee’s intended absence from work under section 9 is — (i) for any period of a duration that is agreed between the female employee and her employer under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B); or (ii) for any agreed flexible period under section 9(1A); ( c ) the notice period of at least one week under section 80(1) of the Employment Act 1968 is modified to a notice period of at least the prescribed period (or any shorter period agreed between the female employee and her employer), if the female employee’s intended absence from work is for any period under section 9 that is not mentioned in paragraph ( b ); ( d ) a reference in section 80(3) and (4) of the Employment Act 1968 to “this Part” is a reference to section 9; ( e ) a reference in section 80(4) of the Employment Act 1968 to “this Act” is a reference to this Act. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (2) Parts 13 and 16 and sections 124, 125 and 126 of the Employment Act 1968, and such other provisions of that Act as the Minister charged with the responsibility for manpower may prescribe by order in the Gazette , apply, with any exceptions, adaptations and modifications that may be prescribed in the order, in relation to — ( a ) an employer or employee to whom section 9, 12AA, 12B, 12D, 12DA, 12E or 12H applies; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( b ) any dispute under this Part, or under any regulations made under section 20, between any such employer and any such employee; and ( c ) any offence or proceedings under section 12AA, 12B, 12D, 12DA, 12E, 12H or 17 (including any act or omission in respect of which a penalty is imposed), [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] as they apply in relation to any employer, employee, dispute, offence or proceedings (as the case may be) under that Act. [42/2004; 28/2008; 12/2013; 17/2016; 21/2016; 33/2016; 55/2018] (3) Sections 115 to 123 of the Employment Act 1968 apply, with any exceptions, adaptations and modifications that the Minister charged with the responsibility for manpower may prescribe by order in the Gazette , to a dispute mentioned in subsection (2)( b ), if a claim is lodged, before 1 April 2017, under section 119 of that Act in relation to that dispute. [21/2016; 55/2018]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12A
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12A
title: Adoption benefits for eligible adoptive mothers
content:
12A. —(1) This section applies to a woman who satisfies the requirements of section 12AC(2) (called in this section an eligible adoptive mother). [19/2021] (2) Unless disqualified under subsection (5), an eligible adoptive mother is entitled to claim from the Government — ( a ) if the making of her application to adopt a child, or the issue of the dependant’s pass in respect of a child, is her first or second specified event — an amount equivalent to 56 days of her total income during such period before the eligibility date of the application as may be prescribed; or ( b ) if the making of her application to adopt a child, or the issue of the dependant’s pass in respect of a child, is her third or subsequent specified event — an amount equivalent to 84 days of her total income during such period before the eligibility date of the application as may be prescribed. [19/2021] (3) An eligible adoptive mother’s entitlement under subsection (2) — ( a ) is an amount that does not exceed $10,000 for every 28 days; and ( b ) is to be reduced in accordance with any regulations made under section 20, if any of the conditions in subsection (4) applies in relation to her. [19/2021] (4) The conditions mentioned in subsection (3)( b ) are the following: ( a ) the employer of the eligible adoptive mother — (i) has paid or is required to pay her any amount in respect of her adoption of the child; and (ii) is entitled to claim, or has claimed, reimbursement from the Government for such payment under section 12AD (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22); ( b ) where the eligible adoptive mother has made an election under section 12E(5) for the adoptive father of the child to take shared parental leave or claim lost income in respect of the child — (i) the father’s employer — (A) has paid or is required to pay the father an amount under section 12E(2) for shared parental leave in respect of the child; and (B) is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government for such payment under section 12G (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22); or (ii) the father is entitled to claim his lost income under section 12E(3), in respect of the child, for ceasing to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22); ( c ) the employment of the eligible adoptive mother is terminated upon completion of her contract of service, and she failed to exercise any part of her entitlement under this Act to be absent from work before the date of completion of her contract. [19/2021] (5) Except as provided in subsections (6) and (7), an eligible adoptive mother is not entitled to claim any payment from the Government under subsection (2) if — ( a ) she is also a female employee who is entitled to absent herself from work and to receive payment from her employer under section 12AA, in respect of the same adoption, regardless of whether she has ceased to be entitled to any adoption leave and any payment in lieu of that leave under section 12AA(2); or ( b ) she is also a self‑employed woman who is entitled to claim from the Government her lost income under section 12AB in respect of the same adoption. [19/2021] (6) Subsection (5) and section 12M do not disqualify an eligible adoptive mother from claiming payment from the Government under subsection (2) in respect of any period when she is on leave of absence without pay granted by her employer at her request, if the leave is for a continuous period ending at least 12 months after the date of birth of the adopted child. [19/2021] (7) Subsection (5) and section 12AA(2)( a ) do not disqualify an eligible adoptive mother from claiming payment from the Government under subsection (2), if she would have been entitled to absent herself from work and to receive payment from her employer under section 12AA, had her employment not been terminated by reason of one of the following: ( a ) upon the completion of her contract of service; ( b ) on the ground of redundancy or by reason of any reorganisation of her employer’s profession, business, trade or work. [19/2021] (8) Section 9(7) and (8) applies to the meaning of the total income of an eligible adoptive mother under subsection (2), with the following modifications: ( a ) every reference in section 9(7) and (8) to a period prescribed for the purposes of section 9(5A) is a reference to a period prescribed for the purposes of subsection (2); ( b ) every reference in section 9(7) and (8) to a woman’s employment or self‑employment, or both, is a reference to an eligible adoptive mother’s employment or self‑employment, or both. [19/2021] (9) The amount of payment mentioned in subsection (3)( a ) is inclusive of any contribution to the Central Provident Fund which an employer, a platform operator, a female employee or a self‑employed woman is liable to make under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953. [19/2021] [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (10) Nothing in this section affects any other benefits that a female employee is entitled to, in respect of her adoption of a child, under the terms of her contract of service or under any written law. [19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12AA
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12AA
title: Adoption leave for female employee
content:
12AA. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), section 12AC and any regulations made under section 20, every female employee who applies to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children, and who satisfies the requirements of section 12AC, is entitled, within a period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth, to absent herself from work on adoption leave — ( a ) for a period of 12 weeks commencing on the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; ( b ) during a period of 12 weeks, as agreed to by her and her employer, commencing — (i) not earlier than the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; and (ii) not later than the date the adoption order is made; or ( c ) during — (i) a period of 8 weeks, as agreed to by her and her employer, commencing — (A) not earlier than the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; and (B) not later than the date the adoption order is made; and (ii) one or more than one later period, each being of a duration that is agreed between the employee and her employer, and all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or 24 days (whichever is the lower). [33/2016] (1A) A female employee mentioned in subsection (1) who has applied to adopt an April 2025 Scheme child must — ( a ) give to her employer a notice of at least the prescribed period (or any shorter period agreed between the employee and employer) before absenting herself from work under subsection (1)( a ), unless the employee is prevented by any sufficient cause from doing so; and ( b ) specify in the notice given under paragraph ( a ) the date on which the employee intends to commence absenting herself from work under subsection (1)( a ). [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (2) Where, in any of the following circumstances, a female employee does not take any adoption leave to which she is entitled, she ceases to be entitled to that leave, and is not entitled to any payment in lieu of that leave: ( a ) her employment is terminated (whether by resignation or dismissal, on the completion of her contract of service, or for any other reason); ( b ) she does not take that leave within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth. [33/2016] (3) [ Deleted by Act 33 of 2016 ] (4) Subject to subsection (5), an employer must pay a female employee who is entitled to adoption leave her gross rate of pay for every day of such leave that is taken by the female employee. [12/2013] (5) The payment that the female employee is entitled to receive from her employer under subsection (4) for adoption leave in respect of a child is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) if the making of the female employee’s application to adopt that child, or the issue of a dependant’s pass in respect of that child, is the female employee’s first or second specified event — (i) $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of the adoption leave taken by the female employee after the first 4 weeks of such leave; and (ii) in any case, a total of $20,000 for the period of adoption leave (if only one), or all the periods of adoption leave, under sub‑paragraph (i), whichever is applicable; and ( b ) if the making of the female employee’s application to adopt that child, or the issue of a dependant’s pass in respect of that child, is the female employee’s third or subsequent specified event — (i) $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of the adoption leave taken by the female employee under subsection (1); and (ii) in any case, a total of $30,000 for the adoption leave taken by the female employee under subsection (1). [33/2016; 19/2021] (6) The amount of payment referred to in subsection (5) is inclusive of any contribution to the Central Provident Fund which an employer or an employee is liable to make under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953. [12/2013] (7) When a female employee absents herself from work in accordance with this section, it is not lawful for her employer to give her a notice of dismissal during her absence or on such a day that the notice will expire during her absence. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (7A) Any employer who acts in contravention of subsection (7) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (8) Any employer who fails, without reasonable cause, to grant adoption leave to a female employee who is entitled to and requests for such leave shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (9) Any employer who fails to pay a female employee in accordance with this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (10) Where an employer has been convicted of an offence under subsection (7A) or (9), the court may order the employer to make restitution of any moneys paid out to the employer by the Government under section 12AD which have not been paid to a female employee in accordance with this section. [12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (11) Where an employer who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (7A), (8) or (9) is a repeat offender, the employer shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (12) For the purposes of subsection (11), a person is a repeat offender in relation to an offence under subsection (7A), (8) or (9) if the person who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (7A), (8) or (9) (called the current offence) has been convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (7A), (8) or (9) on at least one other occasion before the date on which the person is convicted or found guilty of the current offence. [12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (13) This section must not be construed as derogating from any other benefits that a female employee is entitled to, during any period of adoption leave taken by her, under the terms of her contract of service or under any written law. [12/2013]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12AB
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12AB
title: Adoption leave for self-employed woman
content:
12AB. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), section 12AC and any regulations made under section 20, a self‑employed woman who — ( a ) applies to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children; ( b ) satisfies the requirements of section 12AC; ( c ) within a period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth, ceases to be actively engaged in her trade, business, profession or vocation — (i) for a period of 12 weeks commencing on the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; (ii) during a period of 12 weeks commencing — (A) not earlier than the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; and (B) not later than the date the adoption order is made; or (iii) during — (A) a period of 8 weeks commencing — (AA) not earlier than the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; and (AB) not later than the date the adoption order is made; and (B) one or more than one later period, all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to 4 times her weekly index or 24 days (whichever is the lower); and ( d ) has lost any income by reason of her ceasing to be actively engaged in that trade, business, profession or vocation, is entitled to claim from the Government her lost income for the applicable period mentioned in subsection (2). [33/2016] (2) A self-employed woman is entitled to receive from the Government under subsection (1), for ceasing to be actively engaged in her trade, business, profession or vocation, in respect of a child — ( a ) if the making of the woman’s application to adopt that child, or the issue of the dependant’s pass in respect of that child, is the woman’s first or second specified event — (i) not more than $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her cessation of active engagement in her trade, business, profession or vocation after the first 4 weeks of that cessation; and (ii) in any case, not more than a total of $20,000 for the period of cessation (if only one), or all the periods of cessation, under sub‑paragraph (i), whichever is applicable; or ( b ) if the making of the woman’s application to adopt that child, or the issue of the dependant’s pass in respect of that child, is the woman’s third or subsequent specified event — (i) not more than $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of her cessation of active engagement in her trade, business, profession or vocation; and (ii) not more than a total of $30,000. [33/2016; 19/2021] (3) [ Deleted by Act 33 of 2016 ] (4) The amount of payment referred to in subsection (2) is inclusive of any contribution to the Central Provident Fund which a platform operator or a self‑employed woman is liable to make under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953. [12/2013; 33/2016] [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12AC
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12AC
title: Eligibility criteria for adoption leave and benefits
content:
12AC. —(1) A female employee who applies to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children is entitled to adoption leave and payment under section 12AA, and a self-employed woman who applies to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children is entitled to payment under section 12AB, if — ( a ) the eligibility date of the application is on or after 1 January 2017; ( b ) in the case of a female employee, she has served her employer for a period of at least 3 months preceding the eligibility date of the application; ( c ) in the case of a self-employed woman, she has been carrying on her trade, business, profession or vocation for a continuous period of at least 3 months preceding the eligibility date of the application; ( d ) the child is below 12 months of age on the eligibility date of the application; ( da ) where the child is a permanent resident of Singapore on the date the application to adopt the child is made — (i) if the application is made in the sole name of the female employee or self‑employed woman — the female employee or self‑employed woman (as the case may be) is a citizen of Singapore on the date the application is made; or (ii) if the application is made in the joint names of the female employee or self‑employed woman, and of her husband — either the female employee or self‑employed woman (as the case may be) or her husband is a citizen of Singapore on the date the application is made; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( e ) where the child is not a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore on the date the application is made, and a dependant’s pass in respect of the child has been issued — (i) if the application is made in the sole name of the female employee or self‑employed woman — the female employee or self‑employed woman (as the case may be) is a citizen of Singapore on the date the dependant’s pass is issued; or (ii) if the application is made in the joint names of the female employee or self‑employed woman and of her husband — either the female employee or self‑employed woman (as the case may be) or her husband is a citizen of Singapore on the date the dependant’s pass is issued; and [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( f ) the female employee or self-employed woman is not the natural mother of the child. [33/2016; 19/2021] (2) A woman who applies to adopt a child in accordance with any written law relating to the adoption of children is entitled to adoption benefits under section 12A, if — ( a ) the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child is on or after 1 January 2021; ( b ) for at least 90 days in total during the period of 12 months immediately before the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child, she has been employed by one or more employers, self‑employed or both (whether in Singapore or outside Singapore); ( c ) in the case of a woman who has been employed outside Singapore or self‑employed outside Singapore, she — (i) is resident in Singapore, and is no longer employed outside Singapore or self‑employed outside Singapore (as the case may be), on the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; and (ii) opts to do either or both of the following: (A) use any period during the 12 months immediately before the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child when she was employed outside Singapore, or was self‑employed outside Singapore, to satisfy the requirement in paragraph ( b ); (B) use her income during any period mentioned in sub‑paragraph (A) to calculate her total income for the purposes of section 12A(2); ( d ) the child is below 12 months of age on the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; ( da ) where the child is a permanent resident of Singapore on the date the application to adopt the child is made — (i) if the application is made in the sole name of the woman — the woman is a citizen of Singapore on the date the application is made; or (ii) if the application is made in the joint names of the woman and her husband — either the woman or her husband is a citizen of Singapore on the date the application is made; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( e ) in the case of a child who is not a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore on the date the application to adopt the child is made, and for whom a dependant’s pass has been issued — (i) if the application is made in the sole name of the woman — the woman is a citizen of Singapore on the date the dependant’s pass is issued; or (ii) if the application is made in the joint names of the woman and her husband — either the woman or her husband (as the case may be) is a citizen of Singapore on the date the dependant’s pass is issued; and [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( f ) the woman is not the natural mother of the child. [19/2021] (3) Section 9A(2A) applies for the purposes of reckoning the number of days under subsection (2)( b ) in which a woman has been employed or self‑employed, with the following modifications: ( a ) the reference to the day of a woman’s confinement in section 9A(2A)( a ) is a reference to the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; ( b ) every reference in section 9A(2A) to a woman’s employment or self‑employment is a reference to the employment or self‑employment (as the case may be) of the woman mentioned in subsection (2). [19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12AD
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12AD
title: Reimbursement from, or payment by, Government for adoption leave
content:
12AD. —(1) Subject to subsection (2) and any regulations made under section 20, where a female employee who takes adoption leave in respect of a child has received payment from her employer at her gross rate of pay under section 12AA(4), the employer is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government — ( a ) if the making of the employee’s application to adopt that child, or the issue of a dependant’s pass in respect of that child, is the employee’s first or second specified event, for — (i) the amount paid to the employee under section 12AA(4) for the period after the first 4 weeks of adoption leave taken by the employee; and (ii) any contribution made by the employer under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953 in respect of the amount mentioned in sub‑paragraph (i) which is not recoverable from the employee’s wages; and ( b ) if the making of the employee’s application to adopt that child, or the issue of a dependant’s pass in respect of that child, is the employee’s third or subsequent specified event, for — (i) the amount paid to the employee under section 12AA(4) for the whole period of adoption leave taken by the employee; and (ii) any contribution made by the employer under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953 in respect of the amount mentioned in sub‑paragraph (i) which is not recoverable from the employee’s wages. [33/2016] (2) The reimbursement that an employer is entitled to claim from the Government under subsection (1) in respect of a female employee is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) where subsection (1)( a ) applies — (i) $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, after the first 4 weeks of adoption leave taken by the female employee; and (ii) a total of $20,000; or ( b ) where subsection (1)( b ) applies — (i) $10,000 for every period equal in duration to 4 times the employee’s weekly index or every 24 days, whichever is the lower, of adoption leave taken by the female employee; and (ii) a total of $30,000. [33/2016; 19/2021] (3) Where an employer makes payment to a female employee in relation to whom the requirements of subsection (4) are satisfied, in respect of her absence from work for the adoption of a child, the Government may reimburse the employer an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) if the making of the application to adopt that child, or the issue of a dependant’s pass in respect of that child, is the employee’s first or second specified event — each of the amounts mentioned in subsection (2)( a )(i) and (ii); and ( b ) if the making of the application to adopt that child, or the issue of a dependant’s pass in respect of that child, is the employee’s third or subsequent specified event — each of the amounts mentioned in subsection (2)( b )(i) and (ii). [19/2021] (4) For the purposes of subsection (3), the requirements are all of the following: ( a ) the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child is on or after 1 November 2021; ( b ) the requirements of section 12AC(1)( d ), ( e ) and ( f ) are satisfied, but not the requirements of section 12AC(1)( b ); ( c ) the female employee’s absence from work commences on or after the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; ( d ) the female employee’s absence from work occurs within 12 months commencing on the date of birth of the child. [19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12B
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12B
title: Childcare leave and extended childcare leave and benefits for parent of qualifying child
content:
12B. —(1) Subject to subsections (1B), (1C), (2) and (3) and any regulations made under section 20, where any employee — ( a ) has served an employer for a period of not less than 3 months; and ( b ) has any child who is below 7 years of age and who is, or who becomes, a qualifying child, at any time during any relevant period, the employee is entitled to childcare leave (called childcare leave in this section and section 12C) for that relevant period of — (i) 2 days, if the employee serves the employer for a period of less than 5 months during that relevant period; (ii) 3 days, if the employee serves the employer for a period of not less than 5 months but less than 7 months during that relevant period; (iii) 4 days, if the employee serves the employer for a period of not less than 7 months but less than 9 months during that relevant period; (iv) 5 days, if the employee serves the employer for a period of not less than 9 months but less than 11 months during that relevant period; and (v) 6 days, if the employee serves the employer for not less than 11 months during that relevant period. [28/2008; 12/2013; 19/2021] (1A) Subject to subsections (1B), (1C) and (2) and any regulations made under section 20, where any employee — ( a ) has served an employer for a period of not less than 3 months; and ( b ) has any child who is of or above 7 years of age but below 13 years of age, and who is, or who becomes, a qualifying child, at any time during any relevant period, the employee is entitled to 2 days of extended childcare leave (called extended childcare leave in this section and section 12CA) for that relevant period. [12/2013; 19/2021] (1B) A male employee is not entitled to childcare leave and extended childcare leave under subsections (1) and (1A) respectively in respect of a qualifying child if — ( a ) the male employee is the natural father of the qualifying child; and ( b ) either the male employee or the natural mother of the qualifying child was lawfully married to another person, or both of them were lawfully married but not to each other, at the time the qualifying child was conceived. [19/2021] (1C) Despite subsection (1B), if the male employee and the natural mother of the qualifying child become lawfully married to each other after the child is conceived (whether or not the marriage remains subsisting), the male employee then becomes entitled to childcare leave and extended childcare leave under subsections (1) and (1A) respectively in respect of the qualifying child — ( a ) in a case where the lawful marriage occurred before the birth of the qualifying child — starting on the date of the child’s birth; and ( b ) in any other case — starting on the date of their lawful marriage. [19/2021] (2) An employee who is entitled to childcare leave and extended childcare leave under subsections (1) and (1A), respectively — ( a ) is not entitled to — (i) more than 42 days of childcare leave in respect of any qualifying child; (ii) more than 12 days of extended childcare leave in respect of any qualifying child; and (iii) more than a combined total of 6 days of childcare leave and extended childcare leave during any relevant period; and ( b ) must — (i) take the employee’s first entitlement of childcare leave or extended childcare leave for a relevant period in that relevant period or the next succeeding relevant period; and (ii) thereafter, take the next and each subsequent entitlement of childcare leave or extended childcare leave for a relevant period in the next succeeding relevant period and in each subsequent succeeding relevant period, respectively. [28/2008; 12/2013; 33/2016; 19/2021] (3) Despite section 87A of the Employment Act 1968, when an employee becomes entitled (whether before, on or after 1 April 2014) to childcare leave or extended childcare leave in relation to a qualifying child under this section, whether or not the employee has taken (before, on or after 1 April 2014) any childcare leave under section 87A of that Act and whether or not in relation to the same child before the employee becomes so entitled, then — ( a ) the employee is not entitled to childcare leave under section 87A of that Act, or to payment from the employer under section 87A(5) of that Act, for so long as the employee is entitled to childcare leave or extended childcare leave under this section; ( b ) any childcare leave taken under section 87A of that Act (before the employee became entitled to childcare leave or extended childcare leave under this section) in a relevant period is treated, for the purposes of this Act, as childcare leave or extended childcare leave taken under this section in that relevant period in relation to the qualifying child; ( c ) where the employee has not received any payment from the employer under section 87A(5) of that Act in respect of any childcare leave already taken by the employee under section 87A of that Act, the employee is entitled to payment from the employer under subsection (9) in respect of the childcare leave so taken; and ( d ) where the employee has received payment from the employer under section 87A(5) of that Act with respect to the childcare leave taken by the employee under section 87A of that Act, the payment is treated, for the purposes of this Act, as a payment made by the employer to the employee under subsection (9). [26/2013] (4) [ Deleted by Act 26 of 2013 ] (5) Despite section 87A of the Employment Act 1968, when an employee — ( a ) ceases to be entitled to childcare leave and extended childcare leave (whether before, on or after 1 April 2014) under this section; or ( b ) ceases to be entitled to childcare leave (whether before, on or after 1 April 2014) and is not entitled to extended childcare leave under this section, but has any child below 7 years of age at any time during any relevant period, the employee’s entitlement (if any) to childcare leave under section 87A of that Act is affected in the following manner: (i) the employee is entitled to 2 days of childcare leave under section 87A of that Act for that relevant period, if he or she had not taken any childcare leave or extended childcare leave under this section during that relevant period; (ii) the employee is entitled to one day of childcare leave under section 87A of that Act for that relevant period, if he or she had taken one day of childcare leave or extended childcare leave under this section during that relevant period; and (iii) the employee is not entitled to any childcare leave under section 87A of that Act for that relevant period, if he or she had taken 2 or more days in total of childcare leave or extended childcare leave or both under this section during that relevant period. [26/2013] (6) [ Deleted by Act 33 of 2016 ] (7) The childcare leave and extended childcare leave are in addition to — ( a ) the rest days, holidays, annual leave and sick leave to which an employee is entitled under sections 36, 88, 88A and 89, respectively, of the Employment Act 1968; and ( b ) in the case of childcare leave, any unpaid infant care leave to which an employee may be entitled under section 12D. [12/2013; 55/2018] (8) Subject to subsection (2)( b ), an employer must grant, and an employee who is entitled to childcare leave or extended childcare leave must take, the entitlement of childcare leave or extended childcare leave (as the case may be) for a relevant period not later than the last day of that relevant period, and any employee who fails to take that leave by that day — ( a ) thereupon ceases to be entitled to that leave; and ( b ) is not entitled to any payment in lieu of that leave. [12/2013] (9) Subject to subsections (10) and (10A), an employer must pay an employee who is entitled to childcare leave or extended childcare leave (as the case may be) the employee’s gross rate of pay for every day of such leave that is taken by the employee. [12/2013] (10) Where an employee has taken 3 days of childcare leave, the amount of payment the employee is entitled to receive from the employer under subsection (9) must not exceed $500 for each subsequent day of childcare leave that the employee is entitled to under subsection (1) and that is taken by the employee. [28/2008] (10A) The amount of payment an employee is entitled to receive from the employer under subsection (9) must not exceed $500 for each day of extended childcare leave that the employee is entitled to under subsection (1A) and that is taken by the employee. [12/2013] (11) If the employment of an employee who is entitled to childcare leave or extended childcare leave (as the case may be) is terminated (whether by resignation or dismissal, upon the completion of his or her contract of service, or for any other reason) before he or she has taken the entitlement of childcare leave or extended childcare leave (as the case may be) for a relevant period, the employee — ( a ) ceases to be entitled to that leave upon the termination of the employment; and ( b ) is not entitled to any payment in lieu of that leave. [28/2008; 12/2013] (11A) To avoid doubt, the employee ceases to be entitled to any childcare leave or extended childcare leave in respect of a qualifying child, and is not entitled to any payment in lieu of that leave, if — ( a ) the qualifying child is adopted by another person, other than jointly with the employee; or ( b ) the employee ceases to provide care, protection or supervision as a foster parent to the child under a voluntary care agreement as mentioned in section 15 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1993, or pursuant to an order under section 54(1)( b ) or 56(2), or section 57 (read with section 56) of that Act. [30/2019] (12) Any employer who fails, without reasonable cause, to grant childcare leave to an employee who is entitled to and requests for such leave shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (13) Any employer who fails, without reasonable cause, to grant extended childcare leave to an employee who is entitled to and requests for such leave shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (14) Any employer who fails to pay an employee in accordance with this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (14A) Where an employer has been convicted of an offence under subsection (14), the court may order the employer to make restitution of any moneys paid out to the employer by the Government under section 12C or 12CA (as the case may be) which have not been paid to an employee in accordance with this section. [12/2013] (14B) Where an employer who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (12), (13) or (14) is a repeat offender, the employer shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [12/2013] (14C) For the purposes of subsection (14B), a person is a repeat offender in relation to an offence under subsection (12), (13) or (14) if the person who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (12), (13) or (14) (called the current offence) has been convicted or found guilty of — ( a ) an offence under subsection (12), (13) or (14); or ( b ) an offence under section 87A(7) or (7A) of the Employment Act 1968 in force before, on or after 1 May 2013, on at least one other occasion on or after 1 May 2013 and before the date on which the person is convicted or found guilty of the current offence. [12/2013] (15) Subject to subsection (5), this section must not be construed as derogating from any other benefits that an employee is entitled to, during any period of childcare leave or extended childca


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12C
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12C
title: Reimbursement from Government for childcare leave
content:
12C. —(1) Subject to subsections (2), (2A), (3) and (4) and any regulations made under section 20, where an employer has made payment to an employee under section 12B(9) for not less than 4 days of childcare leave taken in any relevant period by the employee, the employer is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government for the amount paid to the employee for — ( a ) one day of childcare leave, if the employer granted the employee 4 days of childcare leave during that relevant period; ( b ) 2 days of childcare leave, if the employer granted the employee 5 days of childcare leave during that relevant period; and ( c ) 3 days of childcare leave, if the employer granted the employee 6 days of childcare leave during that relevant period. [28/2008; 19/2021] (2) Subject to subsections (2A), (3) and (4), the amount of reimbursement, which an employer is entitled to claim from the Government under subsection (1) in respect of an employee, is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $500 for each day of childcare leave taken by the employee; and ( b ) $1,500 in any calendar year. [28/2008; 19/2021] (2A) Where, during a relevant period that starts in a calendar year (called the first calendar year) and ends in another calendar year (called the second calendar year), an employee takes any childcare leave under subsection (1), the Government may permit the employer to treat the childcare leave as being taken in either the first calendar year or second calendar year for the purpose of a claim under subsection (2). [19/2021] (3) Despite subsections (1), (2) and (2A), the Government may refuse to reimburse an employer for any amount paid by the employer to an employee for any day of childcare leave taken or treated as taken by the employee in any calendar year, if the Government has already reimbursed the employer or any other employer or employers for the amount or amounts paid to the employee for a total of 3 days of childcare leave taken or treated as taken by the employee in that calendar year. [28/2008; 19/2021] (4) Despite subsections (1) and (2), the Government may refuse to reimburse an employer for any amount paid by the employer to an employee for any day of childcare leave taken by the employee in respect of a qualifying child, if the Government has already reimbursed the employer or any other employer or employers for the amount or amounts paid to the employee for a total of 21 days of childcare leave taken by the employee in respect of that qualifying child. [28/2008]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12CA
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12CA
title: Reimbursement from Government for extended childcare leave
content:
12CA. —(1) Subject to subsections (2), (2A), (3) and (4) and any regulations made under section 20, where an employer has made payment to an employee under section 12B(9) for extended childcare leave taken in any relevant period by the employee, the employer is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government for the amount paid to the employee for the extended childcare leave not exceeding 2 days. [12/2013; 19/2021] (2) Subject to subsections (2A), (3) and (4), the amount of reimbursement, which an employer is entitled to claim from the Government under subsection (1) in respect of an employee, is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $500 for each day of extended childcare leave taken by the employee; and ( b ) $1,000 in any calendar year. [12/2013; 19/2021] (2A) Where, during a relevant period that starts in a calendar year (called the first calendar year) and ends in another calendar year (called the second calendar year), an employee takes any extended childcare leave under subsection (1), the Government may permit the employer to treat the extended childcare leave as being taken in either the first calendar year or second calendar year for the purpose of a claim under subsection (2). [19/2021] (3) Despite subsections (1), (2) and (2A), the Government may refuse to reimburse an employer for any amount paid by the employer to an employee for any day of extended childcare leave taken or treated as taken by the employee in any calendar year, if the Government has already reimbursed the employer or any other employer or employers for the amount or amounts paid to the employee for a total of 2 days of extended childcare leave taken or treated as taken by the employee in that calendar year. [12/2013; 19/2021] (4) Despite subsections (1) and (2), the Government may refuse to reimburse an employer for any amount paid by the employer to an employee for any day of extended childcare leave taken by the employee in respect of a qualifying child, if the Government has already reimbursed the employer or any other employer or employers for the amount or amounts paid to the employee for a total of 12 days of extended childcare leave taken by the employee in respect of that qualifying child. [12/2013]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12D
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12D
title: Unpaid infant care leave for parent of qualifying child
content:
12D. —(1) Subject to subsections (1A), (1B) and (2) and any regulations made under section 20, where any employee — ( a ) has served an employer for a period of not less than 3 months; and ( b ) has any child who is below 2 years of age and who is, or who becomes, a qualifying child, at any time during any relevant period, the employee is entitled to unpaid infant care leave of 12 days for that relevant period. [28/2008; 19/2021] [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (1A) A male employee is not entitled to unpaid infant care leave under subsection (1) in respect of a qualifying child if — ( a ) the male employee is the natural father of the qualifying child; and ( b ) either the male employee or the natural mother of the qualifying child was lawfully married to another person, or both of them were lawfully married but not to each other, at the time the qualifying child was conceived. [19/2021] (1B) Despite subsection (1A), if the male employee and the natural mother of the qualifying child become lawfully married to each other after the child is conceived (whether or not the marriage remains subsisting), the male employee then becomes entitled to unpaid infant care leave under subsection (1) in respect of the qualifying child — ( a ) in a case where the lawful marriage occurred before the birth of the qualifying child — starting on the date of the child’s birth; and ( b ) in any other case — starting on the date of their lawful marriage. [19/2021] (2) An employee who is entitled to unpaid infant care leave under subsection (1) — ( a ) is not entitled to more than 24 days of unpaid infant care leave in respect of any qualifying child; and [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] ( b ) must — (i) take his or her first entitlement of unpaid infant care leave of 12 days for a relevant period in that relevant period or the next succeeding relevant period; and [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (ii) thereafter, take the next entitlement of unpaid infant care leave of 12 days for a relevant period in the next succeeding relevant period. [28/2008; 19/2021] [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (3) [ Deleted by Act 33 of 2016 ] (4) The unpaid infant care leave is in addition to — ( a ) the rest days, holidays, annual leave and sick leave to which an employee is entitled under sections 36, 88, 88A and 89, respectively, of the Employment Act 1968; and ( b ) any childcare leave to which an employee may be entitled under section 87A of the Employment Act 1968 or under section 12B. [28/2008; 32/2008; 55/2018] (5) Subject to subsection (2)( b ), an employer must grant, and an employee who is entitled to unpaid infant care leave must take, the entitlement of unpaid infant care leave for a relevant period not later than the last day of that relevant period, and any employee who fails to take that leave by that day — ( a ) thereupon ceases to be entitled to that leave; and ( b ) is not entitled to any payment in lieu of that leave. [28/2008] (6) If the employment of an employee who is entitled to unpaid infant care leave is terminated (whether by resignation or dismissal, upon the completion of his or her contract of service, or for any other reason) before he or she has taken the entitlement of unpaid infant care leave for a relevant period, the employee — ( a ) ceases to be entitled to that leave upon the termination of the employment; and ( b ) is not entitled to any payment in lieu of that leave. [28/2008] (6A) To avoid doubt, the employee ceases to be entitled to any unpaid infant care leave in respect of a qualifying child, and is not entitled to any payment in lieu of that leave, if — ( a ) the qualifying child is adopted by another person, other than jointly with the employee; or ( b ) the employee ceases to provide care, protection or supervision as a foster parent to the child under a voluntary care agreement as mentioned in section 15 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1993, or pursuant to an order under section 54(1)( b ) or 56(2), or section 57 (read with section 56) of that Act. [30/2019] (7) Any employer who fails, without reasonable cause, to grant unpaid infant care leave to an employee who is entitled to and requests for such leave shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both; and ( b ) for a subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [28/2008; 12/2013] (8) This section must not be construed as derogating from any other benefits that an employee is entitled to, during any period of unpaid infant care leave taken by him or her, under the terms of his or her contract of service or under any written law. [28/2008] (9) Despite anything to the contrary in the Employment Act 1968, a period of unpaid infant care leave taken by an employee under this section counts towards the length of the employee’s service for the purposes of that Act. [28/2008] (10) In this section — “child”, in relation to an employee, includes — ( a ) any adopted child or stepchild of the employee; and ( b ) any child to whom the employee is providing care, protection and supervision as a foster parent under a voluntary care agreement as mentioned in section 15 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1993, or pursuant to an order under section 54(1)( b ) or 56(2), or section 57 (read with section 56) of that Act; “qualifying child” means a child who is a citizen of Singapore; “relevant period”, in relation to an employee, means — ( a ) any period of 12 months as is agreed to by the employee and his or her employer; or ( b ) where there is no such agreement, a calendar year. [28/2008; 12/2013; 30/2019]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12DA
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12DA
title: Shared parental leave or claim for lost income for parents of April 2025 Scheme child
content:
12DA. —(1) This section applies to, and in relation to, a parent of an April 2025 Scheme child who — ( a ) is the natural mother or father of the child, or the adoptive mother or father of the child; and ( b ) is an employee or a self‑employed person who is eligible for any of the following entitlements in respect of the child: (i) any paid maternity leave or claim for lost income under section 9; (ii) any paid adoption leave under section 12AA or claim for lost income under section 12AB; (iii) any paid paternity leave or claim for lost income under section 12H. (2) Subject to this section and any regulations made under section 20, a parent of an April 2025 Scheme child who is an employee is entitled — ( a ) to absent herself or himself from work on shared parental leave to be taken in any of the following manner, where N is determined in accordance with a valid arrangement under section 12DD: (i) one period equal in duration to N whole weeks, where the period must be taken within 26 weeks (or any other period prescribed in substitution) commencing on the date of the child’s birth; (ii) one or more than one period, where — (A) the duration of each period is agreed between the employee and employer; (B) the duration of the period (if only one), or the aggregate duration of all the periods (if more than one), is equal to N times the employee’s weekly index or N times 6 days, whichever is the lower; and (C) the period or all the periods (as the case may be) must be taken within 12 months (or any other period prescribed in substitution) commencing on the date of the child’s birth; and ( b ) to receive from the parent’s employer, the parent’s gross rate of pay for each day of shared parental leave under paragraph ( a ) that is taken by the parent subject to the payment limits mentioned in section 12DB(1). (3) The employee mentioned in subsection (2) must — ( a ) give to her or his employer a notice of at least the prescribed period (or any shorter period agreed between the employee and employer) before absenting herself or himself from work under subsection (2)( a )(i), unless the employee is prevented by any sufficient cause from doing so; and ( b ) specify in the notice given under paragraph ( a ) the date on which the employee intends to commence absenting herself or himself from work under subsection (2)( a )(i). (4) Where the employment of the parent of an April 2025 Scheme child is terminated (whether by resignation or dismissal, upon the completion of the parent’s contract of service, or for any other reason) before the parent has consumed the whole or any part of the parent’s entitlement to shared parental leave, then unless the parent reallocates her or his unconsumed entitlement to shared parental leave in accordance with the Second Schedule, the parent forfeits the following upon the termination of the parent’s employment: ( a ) the entitlement (or the balance of that entitlement) to absent herself or himself from work on shared parental leave; ( b ) the entitlement to receive payment from the parent’s employer at the parent’s gross rate of pay in respect of the forfeited period of absence from work under paragraph ( a ). (5) The forfeiture under this Act (in whole or in part) of any entitlement mentioned in subsection (1)( b ) does not disqualify the parent from reallocating her or his unconsumed entitlement to shared parental leave in accordance with the Second Schedule. (6) Subject to this section and any regulations made under section 20, a parent of an April 2025 Scheme child who — ( a ) is a self‑employed person; and ( b ) loses income by reason of the parent’s cessation of active engagement in the parent’s trade, business, profession or vocation, is entitled to claim from the Government the parent’s lost income subject to the payment limits mentioned in section 12DB(2), in respect of one period, or more than one period, of the cessation of active engagement in the parent’s trade, business, profession or vocation, where — ( c ) the duration of the period (if only one) or the aggregate duration of all the periods (if more than one) is equal to N times the self‑employed person’s weekly index or N times 6 days (whichever is the lower), where N is determined in accordance with a valid arrangement under section 12DD; and ( d ) the period or all the periods (as the case may be) must occur within 12 months (or any other period prescribed in substitution) commencing on the date of the child’s birth. (7) Where the parent mentioned in subsection (2) or (6) is an adoptive parent of the child, any period in respect of shared parental leave or of cessation of active engagement in trade, business, profession or vocation (as the case may be) must commence on or after the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child. (8) Any period of entitlement of a parent of an April 2025 Scheme child under subsection (2) or (6) ceases on the day immediately after the date of the child’s death. (9) To avoid doubt, the entitlement of a natural parent under subsection (2) or (6) applies only once for each confinement of the child’s mother, regardless of the number of children born during that confinement. (10) Any employer who fails, without reasonable cause, to grant shared parental leave under this section to a parent who is entitled to, and requests for, that leave shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. (11) Any employer who fails to pay a parent in accordance with this section and section 12DB shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. (12) Where an employer has been convicted of an offence under subsection (11), the court may order the employer to make restitution of any moneys paid out to the employer by the Government under section 12DB which have not been paid to an employee in accordance with this section and section 12DB. (13) Where an employer who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (10) or (11) is a repeat offender, the employer shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. (14) For the purposes of subsection (13), a person is a repeat offender in relation to an offence under subsection (10) or (11) if the person who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (10) or (11) (called the current offence) has been convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (10) or (11) on at least one other occasion before the date on which the person is convicted or found guilty of the current offence. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12DB
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12DB
title: Payments and reimbursements for shared parental leave or lost income
content:
12DB. —(1) Subject to any regulations made under section 20, the payment that an employee is entitled to receive from an employer under section 12DA(2)( b ) in respect of any period of absence from work on shared parental leave under section 12DA(2)( a ) (called in this subsection the claimable absence period) is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the employee’s weekly index or every 6 days (whichever is the lower) of the claimable absence period; and ( b ) a total of N times $2,500, where N is determined in accordance with a valid arrangement under section 12DD that applies in relation to the claimable absence period. (2) Subject to any regulations made under section 20, the payment that a self‑employed person is entitled to receive from the Government for any period of cessation of active engagement in her or his trade, business, profession or vocation mentioned in section 12DA(6) (called in this subsection the claimable cessation period) is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the self‑employed person’s weekly index or every 6 days (whichever is the lower) of the claimable cessation period; and ( b ) a total of N times $2,500, where N is determined in accordance with a valid arrangement under section 12DD that applies in relation to the claimable cessation period. (3) The amounts of payment mentioned in subsections (1) and (2) are inclusive of any contribution to the Central Provident Fund which an employer, a platform operator, an employee or a self‑employed person is liable to make under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953. (4) Subject to subsection (5) and any regulations made under section 20, where an employer makes payment to an employee under section 12DA(2)( b ) for one or more than one period of absence from work, the employer is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government for — ( a ) the amount paid to the employee under section 12DA(2)( b ); and ( b ) any contribution which the employer has made under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953 in respect of such payment which is not recoverable from the employee’s wages. (5) The reimbursement that an employer is entitled to claim from the Government under subsection (4) in respect of an employee is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the employee’s weekly index or every 6 days (whichever is the lower) of the employee’s absence from work under section 12DA(2)( a ) that is the subject of the claim; and ( b ) a total of N times $2,500, where N is determined in accordance with a valid arrangement under section 12DD that applies when the employer’s claim is determined in accordance with regulations made under section 20. (6) Where an employer makes payment equivalent to a payment under subsection (1) to an employee in circumstances where the requirements of subsection (7) are satisfied, the Government may reimburse the employer an amount that does not exceed each of the amounts mentioned in subsection (5)( a ) and ( b ), where N is determined in accordance with the employee’s equivalent arrangement mentioned in subsection (7)( b ). (7) For the purposes of subsection (6), the requirements are all of the following: ( a ) the employee is a natural parent or an adoptive parent of an April 2025 Scheme child who would have been eligible for any of the entitlements mentioned in section 12DA(1)( b ) and for the entitlement to shared parental leave under section 12DA(2), but for the parent not having served the employer for a period of at least 3 months preceding the date of the child’s birth or the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child, as the case may be; ( b ) despite the employee not being entitled to paid shared parental leave under section 12DA(2), the employer had voluntarily granted the employee paid leave in accordance with an equivalent arrangement as if the employee were so entitled; ( c ) the employee’s absence from work occurs within 12 months (or any other period prescribed in substitution) commencing on the date of the child’s birth; ( d ) where the employee is a natural parent of the April 2025 Scheme child and the child becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth — the employee’s absence from work commences on or after the date that the child becomes a citizen of Singapore; ( e ) where the employee is an adoptive parent of the April 2025 Scheme child — the employee’s absence from work commences on or after the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child. (8) For the purposes of subsection (7)( b ), an arrangement is an equivalent arrangement if — ( a ) it is an arrangement between 2 parents who are both employees as described in subsection (7)( a ) (whether or not employed by the same employer) that meets all of the requirements of section 12DD(1)( a ) to ( e ), as if both of them were entitled to shared parental leave under section 12DA(2); ( b ) it is an arrangement under section 12DD(2); or ( c ) it is an arrangement solely for the employee that meets all of the requirements of section 12DD(4)( a ) to ( e ), as if the employee were entitled to shared parental leave under section 12DA(2). (9) To avoid doubt, subsection (8) does not apply to any employee to whom a valid arrangement under section 12DD(1) or (4) applies or could apply. (10) This section and section 12DA must not be construed as derogating from any other benefits that an employee is entitled to, during the period in which the employee is entitled to shared parental leave and to payment for such leave, under the terms of the employee’s contract of service or under any written law. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12DC
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12DC
title: Shared parental benefits for parents of April 2025 Scheme child
content:
12DC. —(1) This section applies to a parent (called in this section an eligible parent) of an April 2025 Scheme child who — ( a ) is the natural mother or father of the child, or the adoptive mother or father of the child; and ( b ) is eligible for the entitlement to payment from the Government under section 9(5A), 12A(2) or 12HA(2) (whichever is applicable) in respect of the child. (2) An eligible parent is entitled to claim from the Government an amount equivalent to a number of days of the eligible parent’s total income, where — ( a ) the total income is for any prescribed period before the birth of the child or the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child, whichever is applicable; and ( b ) the number of days is calculated in accordance with the formula N &#215; 7, where N is determined in accordance with a valid arrangement under section 12DD. (3) To avoid doubt, the entitlement of the eligible parent under subsection (2) applies only once for each confinement of the child’s mother, regardless of the number of children born during that confinement. (4) The eligible parent’s entitlement under subsection (2) is subject to the following: ( a ) the amount claimable for every period of 7 days does not exceed $2,500; ( b ) the amount claimable is to be reduced in accordance with any regulations made under section 20, if any of the following conditions applies to the parent: (i) the parent’s employer — (A) has paid or is required to pay the parent any amount in respect of the birth of the child or adoption of the child, as the case may be; and (B) is entitled to claim, or has claimed, reimbursement from the Government under section 12DB for the payment mentioned in sub‑paragraph (A) (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22); (ii) the parent’s employment is terminated upon completion of the parent’s contract of service, and the parent failed to exercise any part of her or his entitlement under this Act to be absent from work before the date of completion of the parent’s contract. (5) Except as provided in subsections (6) and (7), the eligible parent is not entitled to claim any payment from the Government under subsection (2), if — ( a ) the parent is also an employee who is entitled to absent herself or himself from work and to receive payment from the parent’s employer under section 12DA(2), in respect of the same birth or adoption of the child (as the case may be), regardless of whether the parent has forfeited the whole or part of the parent’s entitlement to absent herself or himself from work and to receive payment from the parent’s employer under section 12DA(2); ( b ) the parent is also a self‑employed person who is entitled to claim from the Government the parent’s lost income under section 12DA(6), in respect of the same birth or adoption of the child, as the case may be; or ( c ) the claim is submitted by the parent after the date of the child’s death. (6) Subsection (5) and section 12M do not disqualify the eligible parent from claiming payment from the Government under subsection (2) in respect of any period when the parent is on leave of absence without pay granted by the parent’s employer at the parent’s request, if the leave is for a continuous period ending at least 12 months (or any other period prescribed in substitution) after the date of the child’s birth. (7) Subsection (5) and section 12DA(4) and (5) do not disqualify the eligible parent from claiming payment from the Government under subsection (2) if the parent would have been entitled to absent herself or himself from work and to receive payment from the parent’s employer under section 12DA(2), had the parent’s employment not been terminated by reason of one of the following: ( a ) upon the completion of the parent’s contract of service; ( b ) on the ground of redundancy or by reason of any reorganisation of the profession, business, trade or work of the parent’s employer. (8) Section 9(7) and (8) applies to the meaning of the total income of an eligible parent under subsection (2), with the following modifications: ( a ) every reference in section 9(7) and (8) to a period prescribed for the purposes of section 9(5A) is a reference to a period prescribed for the purposes of subsection (2); ( b ) every reference in section 9(7) and (8) to a woman’s employment or self‑employment, or both, is a reference to an eligible parent’s employment or self‑employment, or both. (9) The amount of payment mentioned in subsection (4)( a ) is inclusive of any contribution to the Central Provident Fund which an employer, a platform operator, an employee or a self‑employed person is liable to make under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953. (10) Nothing in this section affects any other benefits that an employee is entitled to, in respect of the birth or adoption of the child (as the case may be), under the terms of the employee’s contract of service or under any written law. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12DD
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12DD
title:
Valid arrangements for shared parental leave, lost income and benefits in relation to April 2025 Scheme child

content:
12DD. —(1) Where both parents (called in this section P1 and P2 ) of an April 2025 Scheme child are eligible for any entitlement to shared parental leave under section 12DA(2), a claim for lost income under section 12DA(6) or a claim for payment from the Government under section 12DC(2), a valid arrangement for P1 and P2 (called in this section a sharing arrangement) for the purposes of any of those provisions must meet all of the following requirements: ( a ) the number of units, N, allocated to the total period of the entitlement of each of P1 and P2 (called in this subsection N P1 and N P2 ) must not in the aggregate exceed the maximum number of units prescribed in the Second Schedule (called in this section M ); ( b ) each of N P1 and N P2 allocated to a parent in a sharing arrangement is calculated in accordance with the formula unless that allocation is varied in accordance with the Second Schedule; ( c ) N P1 and N P2 , whether or not varied from time to time, must be specified in a sharing arrangement notified to a Director and (if applicable) any employer of P1 or P2 ; ( d ) each of N P1 and N P2 must be a whole number, regardless of whether the entitlement in section 12DA(2) or (6) or 12DC(2) is expressed by reference to a number of whole weeks, a weekly index or a number of days; ( e ) all the other matters specified in the Second Schedule are satisfied. (2) Despite subsection (1), where — ( a ) P1 is eligible for any entitlement under section 12DA(2) or (6) or 12DC(2), and P2 would have been eligible for the entitlement to shared parental leave under section 12DA(2) but for P2 not having served the employer for a period of at least 3 months preceding the date of the child’s birth or the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child, as the case may be; and ( b ) P1 and P2 have an arrangement that meets all of the requirements of subsection (1)( a ) to ( e ), as if P2 were entitled to shared parental leave, then the following apply: ( c ) that arrangement is treated as a valid sharing arrangement for the purposes of P1 ’s entitlement under section 12DA(2) or (6) or 12DC(2), and any payment or reimbursement under section 12DA, 12DB or 12DC in relation to P1 ’s entitlement; ( d ) despite that arrangement not being a valid sharing arrangement for P2 , P2 ’s employer may — (i) grant P2 paid leave in accordance with that arrangement as if P2 were entitled to shared parental leave; and (ii) make a claim under section 12DB(6) on the basis of that arrangement. (3) Subsection (4) applies where — ( a ) only one parent of an April 2025 Scheme child (called in this section the sole parent) is eligible for any entitlement to shared parental leave under section 12DA(2), a claim for lost income under section 12DA(6) or a claim for payment from the Government under section 12DC(2); and ( b ) there is no arrangement under subsection (2). (4) A valid arrangement for a sole parent (called in this subsection an individual arrangement) for the purposes of section 12DA(2) or (6) or 12DC(2) must meet all of the following requirements: ( a ) the number of units, N, allocated to the total period of the entitlement of the sole parent (called in this subsection N SP ) must not exceed M ; ( b ) the allocation of N SP in the individual arrangement may only be varied in accordance with the Second Schedule; ( c ) N SP , whether or not varied from time to time, must be specified in an individual arrangement notified to a Director and (if applicable) any employer of the sole parent; ( d ) N SP must be a whole number, regardless of whether the entitlement in section 12DA(2) or (6) or 12DC(2) is expressed by reference to a number of whole weeks, a weekly index or a number of days; ( e ) all the other matters specified in the Second Schedule are satisfied. (5) In this section, “total period”, in relation to any entitlement under section 12DA(2) or (6) or 12DC(2), means the total period of the entitlement whether expressed as one period or the aggregate duration of several periods. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12E
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12E
title:
Shared parental leave or claim for lost income through election by mother of non‑April 2025 Scheme child

content:
12E. —(1) This section applies to a male employee or a self‑employed man, if — ( a ) he is — (i) the natural father of a child and satisfies the requirements of section 12F(1); or (ii) the adoptive father of a child and satisfies the requirements of section 12F(1A); and ( b ) the appropriate applicant in subsection (6) has made an election under subsection (5) for him, or subsection (7B) entitles him — (i) to take shared parental leave, in accordance with subsection (2); or (ii) to claim lost income in accordance with subsection (3). [12/2013; 33/2016; 19/2021] (2) Subject to this section and section 12F and any regulations made under section 20, the male employee mentioned in subsection (1) is entitled — ( a ) to absent himself from work on shared parental leave, within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth, for — (i) one period equal in duration to N weeks; (ii) more than one period, each being of one or more whole weeks, and all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to N weeks; or (iii) more than one period, each being of a duration that is agreed between him and his employer, and all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to N times the lower of the male employee’s weekly index or 6 days; and ( b ) to receive from his employer his gross rate of pay for each day of such leave that is taken by him. [33/2016] (3) Subject to this section and section 12F and any regulations made under section 20, if the self‑employed man mentioned in subsection (1) — ( a ) within 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth, ceases to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation during one or more than one period, all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to N times the lower of the self‑employed man’s weekly index or 6 days; and ( b ) has lost any income by reason of his ceasing to be actively engaged in that trade, business, profession or vocation, he is entitled to claim from the Government his lost income for each period of cessation of active engagement in his trade, business, profession or vocation mentioned in paragraph ( a ). [33/2016] (4) The adoptive father of a child can do either of the following only after the eligibility date of the adoptive father’s joint application with the child’s adoptive mother to adopt the child: ( a ) take shared parental leave in accordance with subsection (2); ( b ) claim lost income in accordance with subsection (3). [33/2016] (5) Subject to subsection (7B), the appropriate applicant mentioned in subsection (6) may make an election for the natural father or adoptive father (as the case may be) of the child — ( a ) to take N weeks of shared parental leave in accordance with subsection (2); or ( b ) to claim N weeks of lost income in accordance with subsection (3). [33/2016; 19/2021] (5A) An election under subsection (5) — ( a ) must be made in such form and manner as the Minister may provide; ( b ) must be made within a period which commences after the prescribed week of pregnancy and ends on the last day of the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth; and ( c ) except as otherwise provided in subsection (9A) or by any regulations made under section 20, is irrevocable. [33/2016; 19/2021] (6) The appropriate applicant is — ( a ) in relation to a natural father of a child mentioned in subsection (1)( a )(i) — the mother of the child, being a female employee to whom section 9(1), (1A) or (1B) applies or a self‑employed woman to whom section 9(4) or (4A) applies, in respect of the delivery of the child; ( b ) in relation to an adoptive father of a child mentioned in subsection (1)( a )(ii) — the adoptive mother of the child, being — (i) a female employee to whom section 12AA applies, or a self‑employed woman to whom section 12AB applies, in respect of an application to adopt the child; or (ii) a female employee to whom section 9(1), (1A) or (1B) or a self‑employed woman to whom section 9(4) or (4A) applies, in respect of the delivery of the child. [33/2016; 19/2021] (7) Where a female employee makes an election under subsection (5) in favour of the natural father or adoptive father (as the case may be) of the child, the female employee’s entitlement under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B) in respect of her delivery of the child, or under section 12AA in respect of her joint application with the child’s adoptive father to adopt the child, is reduced by N weeks, taken from the last N weeks of that entitlement. [33/2016] (7A) Where a self-employed woman makes an election under subsection (5) in favour of the natural father or adoptive father (as the case may be) of the child, the self‑employed woman’s entitlement under section 9(4) or (4A) in respect of her delivery of the child, or under section 12AB in respect of her joint application with the child’s adoptive father to adopt the child, is reduced by N weeks, taken from the last N weeks of that entitlement. [33/2016] (7B) Subject to subsection (7C), where an appropriate applicant mentioned in subsection (6) — ( a ) dies before making an election under subsection (5); or ( b ) revokes an election in accordance with the regulations mentioned in subsection (5A)( c ) but dies before making a new election, the male employee or self‑employed man who is the natural father or adoptive father mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) is entitled to take shared parental leave in accordance with subsection (2) or to claim lost income in accordance with subsection (3), as the case may be — ( c ) in the case of the natural father of the child where the appropriate applicant was the natural mother of the child — for N weeks of the mother’s entitlement as a female employee under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B), or as a self‑employed woman under section 9(4) or (4A) (whichever is applicable), in respect of her delivery of the child, that she did not consume before her death; and ( d ) in the case of the adoptive father of the child where the appropriate applicant was the adoptive mother of the child — for N weeks of the adoptive mother’s entitlement that she did not consume before her death under one of the following provisions: (i) if there was an application to adopt the child — section 12AA (in the case of a female employee) or section 12AB (in the case of a self‑employed woman); (ii) if the child was delivered by the appropriate applicant — section 9(1), (1A) or (1B) (in the case of a female employee) or section 9(4) or (4A) (in the case of a self‑employed woman). [19/2021] (7C) The shared parental leave or lost income under subsection (7B)( c ) or ( d ) must not exceed N weeks of such leave or lost income, as the case may be. [19/2021] (8) In this section and sections 12F and 12G, “N” is — ( a ) the integer 1, 2, 3 or 4, as specified by the appropriate applicant mentioned in subsection (6) in her election made under subsection (5); or ( b ) if subsection (7B) applies, the number of whole weeks of the appropriate applicant’s unconsumed entitlement mentioned in subsection (7B)( c ) or ( d ) (whichever is applicable), which must not exceed 4. [19/2021] (9) Subject to any regulations made under section 20 that provide otherwise, a male employee or self‑employed man forfeits any part of his entitlement under subsection (2) or (3) that is not consumed within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth. [33/2016] (9A) Subject to any regulations made under section 20 that provide otherwise, if, at any time after a child’s natural mother or adoptive mother makes an election under subsection (5) but within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth — ( a ) the employment of the child’s natural father or adoptive father is terminated (whether by resignation or dismissal, on the completion of his contract of service, or for any other reason); or ( b ) the natural father or adoptive father ceases to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation, then — (i) the election is revoked as regards each whole week of the father’s entitlement under subsection (2) or (3) that is not consumed at the time his employment is terminated or he ceases to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation (as the case may be); and (ii) any remaining period of that entitlement is forfeited. [33/2016] (9B) If, at any time after the death of the appropriate applicant but within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth — ( a ) the employment of the child’s natural father or adoptive father is terminated (whether by resignation or dismissal, on the completion of his contract of service, or for any other reason); or ( b ) the natural father or adoptive father ceases to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation, then — ( c ) the father’s entitlement under subsection (7B)( c ) or ( d ) is reduced to the number of whole weeks of shared parental leave that he has not consumed by the time his employment is terminated, or he ceases to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation, as the case may be; ( d ) any remaining days of the entitlement under subsection (7B)( c ) or ( d ) that do not constitute a whole week are forfeited; and ( e ) the reduced entitlement under paragraph ( c ) may be consumed by the father in the course of his re‑employment with the same or another employer, or upon his active engagement in his trade, business, profession or vocation. [19/2021] (10) Any employer who fails, without reasonable cause, to grant shared parental leave to a male employee who is entitled to and requests for such leave shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (11) Any employer who fails to pay a male employee in accordance with this section and section 12F shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (12) Where an employer has been convicted of an offence under subsection (11), the court may order the employer to make restitution of any moneys paid out to the employer by the Government under section 12G which have not been paid to a male employee in accordance with this section and section 12F. [12/2013] (13) Where an employer who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (10) or (11) is a repeat offender, the employer shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [12/2013] (14) For the purposes of subsection (13), a person is a repeat offender in relation to an offence under subsection (10) or (11) if the person who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (10) or (11) (called the current offence) has been convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (10) or (11) on at least one other occasion before the date on which the person is convicted or found guilty of the current offence. [12/2013] (15) This section and section 12F apply in relation to the natural father of a stillborn child as they apply to the natural father of a child born alive, and in that case, the reference to the mother of the child who is the appropriate applicant is to be read as a reference to the mother of the stillborn child. [19/2021] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12F
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12F
title: Eligibility criteria and cap in respect of shared parental leave benefits
content:
12F. —(1) A male employee who is the natural father of a child is entitled to absent himself from work on shared parental leave, and to payment by his employer, under section 12E(2), and a self‑employed man who is the natural father of a child is entitled to payment by the Government under section 12E(3), if — ( a ) the following requirements in relation to the mother’s confinement and estimated delivery date in respect of the child are satisfied: (i) in the case of a child born alive — (A) the confinement occurs before 1 July 2017 but the estimated delivery date is on or after that date; or (B) the confinement occurs on a date between 1 July 2017 and 31 March 2025 (both dates inclusive) and the estimated delivery date is before 1 April 2025; (ii) in the case of a stillborn child — (A) the confinement occurs before 1 November 2021 but the estimated delivery date is on or after that date; or (B) the confinement occurs on a date between 1 November 2021 and 31 March 2025 (both dates inclusive); [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( b ) the child — (i) is a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth, or (in the case of a stillborn child) would have been a citizen of Singapore at birth; or (ii) becomes a citizen of Singapore within 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth; ( c ) the child’s mother was lawfully married to the child’s natural father — (i) at the time the child was conceived; (ii) after the child was conceived but before the child’s birth; or (iii) within 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth, but on or before either of the following applicable dates: (A) the date that the child’s mother makes an election under section 12E(5) in favour of the child’s natural father; (B) if the circumstances mentioned in section 12E(7B)( a ) or ( b ) apply in relation to the child’s mother, the date of her death, whether or not such marriage remains subsisting at the time of the child’s birth, or on the date of the election or the mother’s death, as the case may be. [33/2016; 19/2021] (1A) A male employee who is the adoptive father of a child is entitled to absent himself from work on shared parental leave, and to payment by his employer, under section 12E(2), and a self‑employed man who is the adoptive father of a child is entitled to payment by the Government under section 12E(3), if — ( a ) the adoptive father has made a joint application with the child’s adoptive mother to adopt the child; ( b ) the eligibility date of the joint application to adopt the child is on a date between 1 July 2017 and 31 March 2025 (both dates inclusive); [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( c ) the adoptive father is lawfully married to the adoptive mother on or before either of the following applicable dates: (i) the date that the adoptive mother makes an election under section 12E(5) in favour of the adoptive father; (ii) if the circumstances mentioned in section 12E(7B)( a ) or ( b ) apply in relation to the adoptive mother, the date of her death; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( ca ) where the child is a permanent resident of Singapore, the adoptive father or the adoptive mother is a citizen of Singapore on the date the application to adopt the child is made; and [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( d ) where the child is not a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore, the adoptive father or the adoptive mother is a citizen of Singapore on the date a dependant’s pass is issued in respect of the child. [33/2016; 19/2021] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (2) Subject to any regulations made under section 20, where a male employee absents himself from work on shared parental leave for any period mentioned in section 12E(2)( a ), the payment he is entitled to receive from his employer under section 12E(2)( b ) is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the male employee’s weekly index or every 6 days, whichever is the lower, of the male employee’s absence from work under section 12E(2)( a ); and ( b ) a total of N times $2,500. [33/2016; 19/2021] (3) Subject to any regulations made under section 20, where a self‑employed man ceases to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation during any period mentioned in section 12E(3), he is entitled to receive from the Government under that section an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the self‑employed man’s weekly index or every 6 days, whichever is the lower, of his cessation of active engagement in his trade, business, profession or vocation; and ( b ) a total of N times $2,500. [33/2016; 19/2021] (4) The amounts of payment referred to in subsections (2) and (3) are inclusive of any contribution to the Central Provident Fund which an employer, a platform operator, a male employee or a self‑employed man is liable to make under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953. [12/2013] [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (5) This section and section 12E must not be construed as derogating from any other benefits that a male employee is entitled to, during the period in which he is entitled to shared parental leave and to payment for such leave, under the terms of his contract of service or under any written law. [12/2013]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12G
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12G
title: Reimbursement from Government for shared parental leave benefits
content:
12G. —(1) Subject to subsection (2) and any regulations made under section 20, where an employer makes payment to a male employee under section 12E(2), the employer is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government for — ( a ) the amount paid to the employee under section 12E(2) for the period of the employee’s absence from work under that provision; and ( b ) any contribution which the employer has made under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953 in respect of such payment which is not recoverable from the employee’s wages. [12/2013; 33/2016; 19/2021] (2) The reimbursement that an employer is entitled to claim from the Government under subsection (1) in respect of a male employee is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the male employee’s weekly index or every 6 days, whichever is the lower, of the male employee’s absence from work under section 12E(2)( a ); and ( b ) a total of N times $2,500. [33/2016; 19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12H
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12H
title: Length of benefit period, etc., in respect of paternity leave
content:
12H. —(1) Subject to subsection (5) and any regulations made under section 20, every male employee, who is the natural father of a child and who satisfies the requirements of section 12I(1), or who is the adoptive father of a child and who satisfies the requirements of section 12I(2), is entitled to absent himself from work on paternity leave for — ( a ) either of the following periods, which must be taken within 16 weeks commencing on the date of the child’s birth: (i) in the case of the father of an April 2025 Scheme child — a period of 4 weeks; (ii) in the case of the father of any other child — a period of 2 weeks; or [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( b ) one or more than one period, where — (i) the duration of each period is agreed between the employee and his employer; (ii) the duration of the period (if only one), or the aggregate duration of all the periods (if more than one), is equal to — (A) in the case of the father of an April 2025 Scheme child — 4 times the employee’s weekly index or 24 days, whichever is the lower; or (B) in the case of the father of any other child — twice the employee’s weekly index or 12 days, whichever is the lower; and (iii) the period or all the periods (as the case may be) must be taken within 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (1A) A male employee mentioned in subsection (1) who is the natural father or adoptive father of an April 2025 Scheme child must — ( a ) give to his employer a notice of at least the prescribed period (or any shorter period agreed between the employee and employer) before absenting himself from work under subsection (1)( a )(i), unless the employee is prevented by any sufficient cause from doing so; and ( b ) specify in the notice given under paragraph ( a ) the date on which the employee intends to commence absenting himself from work under subsection (1)( a )(i). [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] [12/2013; 33/2016] (2) An employer must grant a male employee his entitlement to paternity leave in accordance with this Act and pay the employee who is entitled to such leave his gross rate of pay for every day of such leave that is taken by the employee. [12/2013] (3) Where the employment of a male employee is terminated (whether by resignation or dismissal, upon the completion of his contract of service, or for any other reason) before he has exercised, wholly or partly, his entitlement to absent himself from work on paternity leave, he forfeits the following upon the termination of his employment: ( a ) the entitlement (or the balance of that entitlement) to absent himself from work on paternity leave; ( b ) the entitlement to receive payment from his employer at his gross rate of pay in respect of the forfeited period of absence from work under paragraph ( a ). [12/2013; 19/2021] (4) Subject to subsection (5) and any regulations made under section 20, a self‑employed man who — ( a ) is the natural father of a child and satisfies the requirements of section 12I(1), or is the adoptive father of a child and satisfies the requirements of section 12I(2); ( b ) within 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth, ceases to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation during one or more than one period, where the duration of the period (if only one) or the aggregate duration of all the periods (if more than one) is equal to — (i) in the case of the father of a January 2024 Scheme child — 4 times his weekly index or 24 days, whichever is the lower; or (ii) in the case of the father of any other child — twice his weekly index or 12 days, whichever is the lower; and [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( c ) has lost any income by reason of his ceasing to be actively engaged in that trade, business, profession or vocation, is entitled to claim from the Government his lost income for each period of cessation of active engagement in his trade, business, profession or vocation mentioned in paragraph ( b ). [33/2016] (5) Every male employee or self-employed man who is the adoptive father of a child and who satisfies the requirements of section 12I(2) is only entitled to take the paternity leave commencing on or after — ( a ) the date on which an application is made by the adoptive father to adopt the child, where the child is a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore; or [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( b ) the date on which the dependant’s pass in respect of the child is issued, where the child is not a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore. [12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (6) When a male employee absents himself from work in accordance with this section, it is not lawful for his employer to give him a notice of dismissal during his absence or on such a day that the notice will expire during his absence. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (6A) Any employer who acts in contravention of subsection (6) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (7) Any employer who fails, without reasonable cause, to grant paternity leave to a male employee who is entitled to and requests for such leave shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (8) Any employer who fails to pay a male employee in accordance with this section and section 12I shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (9) Where an employer has been convicted of an offence under subsection (6A) or (8), the court may order the employer to make restitution of any moneys paid out to the employer by the Government under section 12J which have not been paid to a male employee in accordance with this section and section 12I. [12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (10) Where an employer who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (6A), (7) or (8) is a repeat offender, the employer shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (11) For the purposes of subsection (10), a person is a repeat offender in relation to an offence under subsection (6A), (7) or (8) if the person who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (6A), (7) or (8) (called the current offence) has been convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (6A), (7) or (8) on at least one other occasion before the date on which the person is convicted or found guilty of the current offence. [12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (12) This section (except for subsections (1)( a )(i) and ( b )(ii)(A) and (4)( b )(i)) and section 12I (except for section 12I(3)( b )(i) and (4)( b )(i)) apply in relation to the natural father of a stillborn child as they apply to the natural father of a child born alive. [19/2021] [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (13) [ Deleted by Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025 ]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12HA
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12HA
title: Paternity benefits for eligible fathers
content:
12HA. —(1) This section applies to a man who satisfies the requirements of section 12I(4A) (called in this section an eligible father). [19/2021] (2) Unless disqualified under subsection (4), an eligible father is entitled to claim from the Government — ( a ) an amount equivalent to 14 days of his total income; or ( b ) in the case of an eligible father of a January 2024 Scheme child, an amount equivalent to 28 days of his total income, [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] being his total income during any prescribed period before the delivery of the child or the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child, whichever is applicable. [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (3) An eligible father’s entitlement under subsection (2) — ( a ) is an amount that does not exceed $2,500 for every 7 days; and ( b ) is to be reduced in accordance with any regulations made under section 20 if any of the following conditions applies to him: (i) his employer — (A) has paid or is required to pay him any amount in respect of the delivery of his child or the adoption of the child, as the case may be; and (B) is entitled to claim, or has claimed, reimbursement from the Government for such payment under section 12J or 12JA (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22); [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (ii) his employment is terminated upon completion of his contract of service, and he failed to exercise any part of his entitlement under this Act to be absent from work before the date of completion of his contract. [19/2021] [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (4) Except as provided in subsections (5) and (6), an eligible father is not entitled to claim any payment from the Government under subsection (2), if — ( a ) he is also a male employee who is entitled to absent himself from work under section 12H(1) and to receive payment from his employer under section 12H(2), in respect of the same birth or adoption of the child (as the case may be), regardless of whether he has forfeited the whole or part of his entitlement to absent himself from work and to receive payment from his employer under section 12H(3); or ( b ) he is also a self‑employed man who is entitled to claim from the Government his lost income under section 12H(4), in respect of the same birth or adoption of the child, as the case may be. [19/2021] (5) Subsection (4) and section 12M do not disqualify an eligible father from claiming payment from the Government under subsection (2) in respect of any period when he is on leave of absence without pay granted by his employer at his request, if the leave is for a continuous period ending at least 12 months after the date of birth of the child. [19/2021] (6) Subsection (4) and section 12H(3) do not disqualify an eligible father from claiming payment from the Government under subsection (2) if he would have been entitled to absent himself from work under section 12H(1) and to receive payment from his employer under section 12H(2), had his employment not been terminated by reason of one of the following: ( a ) upon the completion of his contract of service; ( b ) on the ground of redundancy or by reason of any reorganisation of his employer’s profession, business, trade or work. [19/2021] (7) Section 9(7) and (8) applies to the meaning of the total income of an eligible father under subsection (2), with the following modifications: ( a ) every reference in section 9(7) and (8) to a period prescribed for the purposes of section 9(5A) is a reference to a period prescribed for the purposes of subsection (2); ( b ) every reference in section 9(7) and (8) to a woman’s employment or self‑employment, or both, is a reference to an eligible father’s employment or self‑employment, or both. [19/2021] (8) The amount of payment mentioned in subsection (3)( a ) is inclusive of any contribution to the Central Provident Fund which an employer, a platform operator, a male employee or a self‑employed man is liable to make under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953. [19/2021] [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (9) Nothing in this section affects any other benefits that a male employee is entitled to, in respect of the birth of his child or his adoption of a child (as the case may be), under the terms of his contract of service or under any written law. [19/2021] (10) This section (except for subsection (2)( b )) applies in relation to the natural father of a stillborn child as it applies to the natural father of a child born alive. [19/2021] [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (11) [ Deleted by Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025 ]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12I
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12I
title: Eligibility criteria and cap in respect of paternity leave benefits
content:
12I. —(1) A male employee who is the natural father of a child is entitled to absent himself from work on paternity leave and to payment under section 12H(1) and (2), and a self‑employed man who is the natural father of a child is entitled to payment by the Government under section 12H(4), if — ( a ) the mother’s confinement in respect of the child occurs, or the estimated delivery date for that confinement is, on or after 1 January 2017, or (in the case of a stillborn child) on or after 1 November 2021; ( b ) the child delivered during the mother’s confinement — (i) is a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth, or (in the case of a stillborn child) would have been a citizen of Singapore at birth; or (ii) is not a citizen of Singapore at the time of the child’s birth but becomes a citizen of Singapore within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth; ( c ) the child’s mother — (i) is lawfully married to the child’s natural father at the time the child is conceived; (ii) becomes lawfully married to the child’s natural father after the child is conceived but before the child’s birth, whether or not such marriage remains subsisting at the time of the child’s birth; or (iii) is not lawfully married to the child’s natural father at the time the child is conceived or at any time after the child is conceived but before the child’s birth, but becomes lawfully married to the child’s natural father within the period of 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth; ( d ) in the case of a male employee, he has served the employer for a period of at least 3 months preceding the date of the child’s birth; and ( e ) in the case of a self-employed man, he has been carrying on his trade, business, profession or vocation for a continuous period of at least 3 months preceding the date of the child’s birth. [12/2013; 27/2015; 33/2016; 19/2021] (1A) To avoid doubt, where a male employee or a self‑employed man is the natural father of a child, his entitlement under section 12H(1) and (2), section 12H(4) or section 12HA(2) (as the case may be) applies only once for each confinement of the child’s mother, regardless of the number of children born or stillborn during that confinement. [33/2016; 19/2021] (2) A male employee who is the adoptive father of a child is entitled to absent himself from work on paternity leave and to payment under section 12H(1) and (2), and a self‑employed man who is the adoptive father of a child is entitled to payment by the Government under section 12H(4), if — ( a ) the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child is on or after 1 January 2017; ( b ) the child is below 12 months of age on the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( ba ) where the child is a permanent resident of Singapore, the adoptive father or his wife (if she is a joint applicant to the adoption) is a citizen of Singapore on the date the application to adopt the child is made; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( c ) where the child is not a citizen or permanent resident of Singapore, the adoptive father or his wife, if she is a joint applicant to the adoption, is a citizen of Singapore on the date the dependant’s pass is issued in respect of the child; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( d ) in the case of a male employee, he has served his employer for a period of at least 3 months before the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; ( e ) in the case of a self-employed man, he has been carrying on his trade, business, profession or vocation for a continuous period of at least 3 months before the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child; and ( f ) he is not the natural father of the child. [12/2013; 27/2015; 33/2016] (3) Subject to any regulations made under section 20, where a male employee absents himself from work on paternity leave for any period mentioned in section 12H(1), the payment he is entitled to receive from his employer under section 12H(2) is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the male employee’s weekly index or every 6 days, whichever is the lower, of his absence from work under section 12H(1); and ( b ) a total of — (i) $10,000 for the male employee who is the father of an April 2025 Scheme child; or (ii) $5,000 for the male employee who is the father of any other child. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] [33/2016; 19/2021] (4) Subject to any regulations made under section 20, where a self‑employed man ceases to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation during any period mentioned in section 12H(4), the payment he is entitled to receive from the Government under section 12H(4) is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the self‑employed man’s weekly index or every 6 days, whichever is the lower, of his cessation of active engagement in his trade, business, profession or vocation; and ( b ) a total of — (i) $10,000 for the self‑employed man who is the father of a January 2024 Scheme child; or (ii) $5,000 for the self‑employed man who is the father of any other child. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (4A) A man who is the natural father of a child or the adoptive father of a child is entitled to paternity benefits under section 12HA(2), if — ( a ) in relation to the child — (i) the mother’s confinement in respect of the child occurs, or the estimated delivery date for that confinement is, on or after 1 January 2021; or (ii) the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child is on or after 1 January 2021, and the child is below 12 months of age on that eligibility date; ( b ) for at least 90 days in total during the period of 12 months immediately before the day of the mother’s confinement or the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child (as the case may be), the man has been employed by one or more employers, self‑employed or both (whether in Singapore or outside Singapore); ( c ) in the case of a man who is the natural father of the child, the requirements of subsection (1)( b ) and ( c ) are satisfied; ( d ) in the case of a man who is the adoptive father of the child, the requirements of subsection (2)( c ) and ( f ) are satisfied; and ( e ) in the case of a man who has been employed outside Singapore or self‑employed outside Singapore, he — (i) is resident in Singapore, and is no longer employed outside Singapore or self‑employed outside Singapore (as the case may be), on the day of the mother’s confinement or the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child, as the case may be; and (ii) opts to do either or both of the following: (A) use any period during the 12 months immediately before the day of the mother’s confinement or the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child (as the case may be) when he was employed outside Singapore, or was self‑employed outside Singapore, to satisfy the requirement in paragraph ( b ); (B) use his income during any period mentioned in sub‑paragraph (A) to calculate his total income for the purposes of section 12HA(2). [19/2021] (4B) Section 9A(2A) applies for the purposes of reckoning the number of days under subsection (4A)( b ) in which a man has been employed or self‑employed, with the following modifications: ( a ) the reference to the day of a woman’s confinement in section 9A(2A)( a ) is a reference to the day of confinement of the mother of the child or the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child, whichever is applicable; ( b ) every reference in section 9A(2A) to a woman’s employment or self‑employment is a reference to the employment or self‑employment (as the case may be) of the man mentioned in subsection (4A). [19/2021] (5) The amounts of payment referred to in subsections (3) and (4) are inclusive of any contribution to the Central Provident Fund which an employer, a platform operator, a male employee or a self‑employed man is liable to make under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953. [12/2013] [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (6) This section and section 12H must not be construed as derogating from any other benefits that a male employee is entitled to, during the period in which he is entitled to paternity leave and to payment for such leave, under the terms of his contract of service or under any written law. [12/2013]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12J
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12J
title: Reimbursement from Government for paternity leave benefits
content:
12J. —(1) Subject to subsection (2) and any regulations made under section 20, where an employer makes payment to a male employee under section 12H(2), the employer is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government, for — ( a ) the amount paid to the employee under section 12H(2) for the period of his absence from work under that provision; and ( b ) any contribution which the employer has made under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953 in respect of such payment which is not recoverable from the employee’s wages. [12/2013] (2) The reimbursement an employer is entitled to claim from the Government under subsection (1) in respect of a male employee is an amount that does not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the male employee’s weekly index or every 6 days, whichever is the lower, of his absence from work under section 12H(1); and ( b ) a total of — (i) $10,000 for the male employee who is the father of an April 2025 Scheme child; or (ii) $5,000 for the male employee who is the father of any other child. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] [33/2016; 19/2021] (3) Where an employer makes payment to a male employee in relation to whom the requirements of subsection (4) are satisfied, for his absence from work with respect to the delivery or adoption of a child, the Government may reimburse the employer an amount that does not exceed each of the amounts mentioned in subsection (2)( a ) and subsection (2)( b )(i) or (ii), whichever is applicable. [19/2021] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (4) For the purposes of subsection (3), the requirements are all of the following: ( a ) in the case of a male employee who is the natural father of the child — (i) the requirements of section 12I(1)( b ) and ( c ) are satisfied, but not the requirements of section 12I(1)( d ); and (ii) the date of birth of his child is on or after 1 November 2021; ( b ) in the case of a male employee who is the adoptive father of the child — (i) the requirements of section 12I(2)( c ) and ( f ) are satisfied, but not the requirements of section 12I(2)( d ); and (ii) the eligibility date of the employee’s application to adopt that child is on or after 1 November 2021; ( c ) where section 12I(1)( b )(ii) applies, the male employee’s absence from work commences on or after the date that his child becomes a citizen of Singapore; ( d ) the male employee’s absence from work occurs within 12 months commencing on the date of birth of the child; [19/2021] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( e ) where the male employee is the adoptive father of the child, the male employee’s absence from work commences on or after the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (5) Subsection (4) applies in relation to the natural father of a stillborn child as it applies to the natural father of a child born alive. [19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12JA
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12JA
title: Reimbursement of employer by Government for extra paternity leave granted to employee, etc.
content:
12JA. —(1) This section applies to an employer of a male employee, and in respect of a male employee, who is — ( a ) the natural father of a child born alive, where the mother’s confinement and estimated delivery date in respect of the child satisfies the following requirements: (i) the confinement occurs before 1 January 2024 but the estimated delivery date is on or after that date; (ii) the confinement occurs on a date between 1 January 2024 and 31 March 2025 (both dates inclusive), and the estimated delivery date is before 1 April 2025; or [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( b ) the adoptive father of a child, where the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child is on a date between 1 January 2024 and 31 March 2025 (both dates inclusive). [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (2) An employer is entitled to claim reimbursement from the Government in respect of a male employee mentioned in subsection (1) in accordance with this section, if all of the following requirements are satisfied: ( a ) the employee satisfies the requirements of section 12I(1) (in the case of a natural father mentioned in subsection (1)( a )) or section 12I(2) (in the case of an adoptive father mentioned in subsection (1)( b )), and is entitled to absent himself from work on paternity leave and to payment under section 12H(1) and (2) in relation to the child (called in this section the statutory paid paternity leave); ( b ) the employer grants to the employee, in relation to the child, absence from work that is in excess of the employee’s entitlement to statutory paid paternity leave (called in this section the extra paternity leave); ( c ) the employee takes the extra paternity leave after the statutory paid paternity leave has been consumed and within 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth, for — (i) a period not exceeding 2 weeks as agreed with his employer; or (ii) one or more than one period, each being of a duration that is agreed between the employee and his employer, all of which in aggregate are equal in duration to twice the employee’s weekly index or 12 days, whichever is the lower; ( d ) the employer makes payment to the employee for the extra paternity leave taken in accordance with paragraph ( c ) in the following manner: (i) if the employee’s gross rate of pay is $2,500 or less for every period equal in duration to the employee’s weekly index or every 6 days (whichever is the lower) (called the number of reimbursable days per week), the employer pays to the employee his gross rate of pay for every day of the extra paternity leave taken; (ii) if the employee’s gross rate of pay exceeds $2,500 for the number of reimbursable days per week, the employer pays to the employee — (A) his gross rate of pay for every day of the extra paternity leave taken; or (B) an amount for every day of the extra paternity leave taken which is at least an amount calculated in accordance with the formula where P is $2,500 and W is the number of reimbursable days per week. (3) Subject to the limits on the amount of reimbursement mentioned in subsection (4), the reimbursement that the employer is entitled to claim from the Government under subsection (2) in respect of the male employee is — ( a ) the total amount paid by the employer to the employee as mentioned in subsection (2)( d ); and ( b ) any contribution made by the employer under the Central Provident Fund Act 1953 in respect of the payment mentioned in paragraph ( a ) which is not recoverable from the employee’s wages. (4) For the purposes of subsection (3), the amount of reimbursement that the employer is entitled to claim from the Government must not exceed — ( a ) $2,500 for every period equal in duration to the male employee’s weekly index or every 6 days (whichever is the lower) of the extra paternity leave taken by the male employee in accordance with subsection (2)( c ); and ( b ) a total of $5,000 for the period (if only one), or all the periods, of the extra paternity leave taken by the male employee in accordance with subsection (2)( c ) in respect of — (i) if the male employee is a natural father — a child born to the male employee, or all the children born to the male employee during a single confinement; or (ii) if the male employee is an adoptive father — a child who is the subject of an application by the male employee for adoption, or for whom the male employee has obtained a dependant’s pass. (5) In subsections (2) and (4), the weekly index of a male employee must be determined in accordance with Part 1 of the First Schedule, read with item 11, 12 or 13 of Part 2 of the First Schedule, with the modification that the male employee mentioned in item 11, 12 or 13 (as the case may be) of Part 2 of the First Schedule is to be read as the male employee mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ), whichever is applicable. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (6) Despite subsection (2)( a ), the Government may reimburse an employer an amount not exceeding the limits mentioned in subsection (4)( a ) and ( b ) in respect of a male employee, in addition to any amount reimbursed by the Government under section 12J(3) in respect of that male employee, if all of the following requirements apply: ( a ) the employee is a natural father or an adoptive father mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ), who is not entitled to the statutory paid paternity leave in relation to the child because the employee does not satisfy the requirements of section 12I(1)( d ) or (2)( d ), as the case may be; ( b ) despite paragraph ( a ), the employer makes payment to the employee for his absence from work with respect to the delivery or adoption of the child for any duration corresponding to extra paternity leave (as if the employee had been entitled to statutory paid paternity leave), in addition to the employer’s payment to the employee mentioned in section 12J(3); ( c ) the requirements of section 12I(1)( b ) and ( c ) (in the case of a natural father mentioned in subsection (1)( a )) or section 12I(2)( c ) and ( f ) (in the case of an adoptive father mentioned in subsection (1)( b )) are satisfied; ( d ) where section 12I(1)( b )(ii) applies, the employee’s absence from work commences on or after the date that the child becomes a citizen of Singapore; ( e ) the employee’s absence from work occurs within 12 months commencing on the date of the child’s birth; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( f ) where the employee is the adoptive father of the child, the employee’s absence from work commences on or after the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] 12K. [ Repealed by Act 33 of 2016 ] 12KA. [ Repealed by Act 33 of 2016 ] 12KB. [ Repealed by Act 33 of 2016 ] 12KC. [ Repealed by Act 33 of 2016 ]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12L
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12L
title: Payments to include holidays
content:
12L. —(1) To avoid doubt, the payment for any period mentioned in section 12AA, 12AB, 12DA, 12E or 12H, for which a person is entitled to receive payment from an employer or to claim payment from the Government for any lost income, must be paid for every day of that period, including holidays. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (2) This section must not be construed to require an employer to pay an employee an extra day’s salary for a holiday which falls within any period mentioned in subsection (1). [12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12M
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12M
title: No payment under this Part on certain days for employee on leave of absence without pay
content:
12M. —(1) A female employee is not entitled to any payment under this Part for any day on which the female employee is entitled to be absent from work or receive payment under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B), if that day falls on a day the female employee takes leave of absence without pay granted by the employer at the female employee’s request. [27/2015; 33/2016] (2) An employee is not entitled to take — ( a ) paid adoption leave; ( b ) paid childcare leave or paid extended childcare leave; ( c ) paid shared parental leave; or ( d ) paid paternity leave, under this Part on a day the employee takes leave of absence without pay granted by the employer at the employee’s request. [27/2015] (3) This section does not affect the operation of sections 9(6A), 12A(6), 12DC(6) and 12HA(5). [19/2021] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12MA
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12MA
title: Modification of entitlements for concurrent employment and self‑employment, etc.
content:
12MA. —(1) This section applies where a parent (called in this section P ) of a relevant child — ( a ) is concurrently employed by 2 or more employers; or ( b ) is both an employee (whether employed by one employer, or by 2 or more employers) and a self‑employed person, at any time during P ’s entitlement period in relation to the confinement in respect of the child or application to adopt the child. (2) Where P is concurrently employed by 2 or more employers at any time during P ’s entitlement period, P may consume P ’s entitlement in relation to the same confinement or application to adopt the child (as the case may be) during P ’s employment with every employer. Illustration P is concurrently employed by 2 employers (called Employer A and Employer B, respectively). P has an entitlement to paid maternity leave for a total of 16 weeks under section 9(1) in respect of a relevant child. P may therefore claim 16 weeks of paid maternity leave from Employer A, and also claim 16 weeks of paid maternity leave from Employer B, in respect of the same child. (3) Despite anything in this Act, the modified reimbursement limits mentioned in subsection (4) apply to all of the following claims in relation to P for the same confinement or application to adopt the child, even if P becomes employed only by one employer at any other time during P ’s entitlement period: ( a ) all claims by P ’s employer (if only one), or all claims by all of P ’s employers (if more than one), for reimbursement from the Government in respect of any of the following types of payments made by the employer or employers (as the case may be) to P : (i) any payment that P is entitled to receive from an employer of P during P ’s entitlement period in respect of that same confinement or application to adopt the child; (ii) any payment made to P by an employer, where P is a specified employee during P ’s employment with that employer; ( b ) all claims by P as a self‑employed person in respect of P ’s entitlement for payment from the Government for any income lost by reason of any cessation of active engagement in P ’s trade, business, profession or vocation in relation to the same confinement or application to adopt the child, as the case may be. (4) For the purposes of subsection (3), the modified reimbursement limits are the single employer reimbursement limits modified in the following manner: ( a ) the single employer reimbursement limits are to be treated as the limits, in relation to the same confinement or application to adopt a child, on the aggregate amounts of — (i) reimbursement that the Government may make to P ’s employer or all of P ’s employers, as the case may be; and (ii) payments that the Government may make to P as a self‑employed person; ( b ) the single employer reimbursement limits as modified by paragraph ( a ) are subject to any apportionment of the amounts of any reimbursement or payment, or the priority between any claims (or both), as provided in any regulations made under section 20. (5) Where P is employed by more than one employer, sections 9(6), (6A) and (6B), 9A(5A) and (6), 12A, 12DC and 12HA (called any relevant provision) apply with the modification that the reference to any employer or employment of P in any relevant provision includes a reference to all of P ’s employers or P ’s employment with all of P ’s employers, as the case may be. (6) Despite anything in this Act, the Government may do the following after an employer of P (called in this subsection E ) submits a claim mentioned in subsection (3)( a ) and the Government is in possession of any information that P is employed by more than one employer: ( a ) refuse to reimburse E the full amount of E ’s claim, so that E and any other employer or employers of P may be reimbursed to the extent described in paragraph ( b ) for claims that have been or may be submitted by them; ( b ) reimburse P ’s employers in accordance with any apportionment of the amounts of any reimbursement, or the priority between any claims (or both), as mentioned in subsection (4)( b ). (7) Despite anything in this Act, the Government may refuse to pay P (in full or in part) for any income lost by reason of P ’s cessation of active engagement in P ’s trade, business, profession or vocation in respect of the same confinement or application to adopt the child, if the Government has already reimbursed the employer or employers of P to the extent described in subsection (4)( a ) and ( b ) in relation to that same confinement or application to adopt the child, as the case may be. (8) Despite anything in this Act, where any amount has been paid by an employer to P in accordance with the single employer payment limits applicable to P ’s entitlement, but the Government has refused under subsection (6) to reimburse the employer for that amount — ( a ) the employer may recover that amount directly from the employee; and ( b ) the recovery of that amount by the employer is not to be treated as a contravention of the requirement for the employer to pay P at P ’s gross rate of pay under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B), 12AA(4), 12DA(2)( b ) or 12H(2), as the case may be. (9) In this section — “entitlement”, in relation to P , excludes any entitlement of P under section 12B or 12D; “entitlement period”, in relation to P ’s entitlement, means the total period (whether expressed as one period or an aggregate duration of several periods) of P ’s entitlement; “relevant child” means a child — ( a ) whose mother’s confinement in respect of the child occurs on or after 1 April 2025; or ( b ) in respect of whom the eligibility date of the application to adopt the child is on or after 1 April 2025; “single employer payment limits”, in relation to any payment that P is entitled to receive from an employer, means — ( a ) in relation to any entitlement to payment or paid maternity leave under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B) — the limits specified in section 9A(4); ( b ) in relation to any entitlement to paid adoption leave under section 12AA — the limits specified in section 12AA(5); ( c ) in relation to any entitlement to paid shared parental leave under section 12DA — the limits specified in section 12DB(1); or ( d ) in relation to any entitlement to paid paternity leave under section 12H — the limits specified in section 12I(3); “single employer reimbursement limits”, in relation to any claim by an employer for reimbursement from the Government for any payment made to P , means — ( a ) in relation to any claim under section 10(1) or any claim in respect of any payment mentioned in section 10(2A) — the limits specified in section 10(2); ( b ) in relation to any claim under section 12AD(1) or any claim in respect of any payment mentioned in section 12AD(3) — the limits specified in section 12AD(2); ( c ) in relation to any claim under section 12DB(4) or any claim in respect of any payment mentioned in section 12DB(6) — the limits specified in section 12DB(5); or ( d ) in relation to any claim under section 12J(1) or any claim in respect of any payment mentioned in section 12J(3) — the limits specified in section 12J(2); “specified employee” means an employee for whom the requirements of section 10(2B), 12AD(4), 12DB(7) or 12J(4) are satisfied. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12MB
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12MB
title: Paid leave to be treated as taken in certain sequence
content:
12MB. —(1) Where an employee is entitled to be absent from work under section 9, 12AA or 12H (whichever is applicable), and under section 12DA, in relation to an April 2025 Scheme child, the employee is treated as consuming the employee’s entitlements in the following sequence, even if the employee does not do so: ( a ) first, by consuming — (i) for a natural mother of the child — the employee’s entitlement to the total period of paid maternity leave under section 9; (ii) for an adoptive mother of the child — the employee’s entitlement to the total period of paid adoption leave under section 12AA; or (iii) for a natural father or an adoptive father of the child — the employee’s entitlement to the total period of paid paternity leave under section 12H; ( b ) second, by consuming the employee’s entitlement to paid shared parental leave under section 12DA, as if the paid shared parental leave was taken after the total period of paid leave under section 9, 12AA or 12H (as the case may be) was taken. (2) Any claim, payment or reimbursement in relation to any entitlement mentioned in subsection (1) may be made as if the sequence mentioned in that subsection applies to that claim, payment or reimbursement, as the case may be. (3) In this section, “total period”, in relation to any entitlement to paid leave, means the total period of paid leave whether expressed as one period or the aggregate duration of several periods. [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12N
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12N
title: Recovery by employer or Government due to defaulting event
content:
12N. —(1) Where an employer (not being the Government) — ( a ) has, on account of a defaulting event, made any payment under a relevant statutory provision to an employee to which the employee is not entitled; and ( b ) has not been reimbursed by the Government under a relevant statutory provision for that payment, the employer may recover the payment directly from the employee. [19/2021] (2) Where an employer (not being the Government) has made any payment to an employee under a relevant statutory provision in respect of the employee’s adoption of a child and a defaulting event mentioned in paragraph ( f ) of the definition of “defaulting event” in subsection (9) occurs after the payment has been made, the employer may — ( a ) in a case where the Government has refused to reimburse the employer for that payment — recover that payment directly from the employee; or ( b ) in a case where the Government has given written notice to the employer of the Government’s intention to recover the whole or any part of the amount reimbursed by the Government to the employer for that payment — recover from the employee any remaining amount of that payment that the Government does not intend to recover. [19/2021] (3) However, if the employer mentioned in subsection (1) fails to recover the whole or any part of the payment from the employee, the Government may reimburse the employer for the whole or any part of that payment if the Government is satisfied that — ( a ) the employer has failed to so recover despite all reasonable efforts; and ( b ) that payment was not made on account of a defaulting event caused or permitted to be caused by the employer. [19/2021] (4) Where the Government has reimbursed an employer under a relevant statutory provision in respect of any payment made by the employer to the employer’s employee and the employer recovers the payment or any part of it directly from the employee — ( a ) the employer must refund to the Government the amount of the payment or part of it (as the case may be) recovered from the employee within one month after the later of the following dates: (i) the date the amount is so recovered; (ii) the date the employer receives the amount reimbursed; and ( b ) if the employer fails to refund the amount recovered to the Government under paragraph ( a ), the Government may — (i) recover the whole or any part of the amount reimbursed from the employer as a civil debt; (ii) deduct the whole or any part of the amount reimbursed from any subsequent reimbursement to be made by the Government under the same or a different relevant statutory provision to the employer in respect of the same employee; or (iii) make a deduction under sub‑paragraph (ii) and recover any amount that remains outstanding after the deduction from the employer as a civil debt. [19/2021] (5) An employer who contravenes subsection (4)( a ) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000. [19/2021] (6) Despite anything in section 12B, where any amount has been paid by an employer to an employee under that section, and the Government has refused under section 12C(3) or (4) or 12CA(3) or (4) to reimburse the employer for that amount — ( a ) the employer may recover that amount directly from the employee; and ( b ) the recovery of that amount by the employer is not to be treated as a contravention of section 12B(9). [19/2021] (7) Where the Government (as an employer or otherwise) has, on account of a defaulting event — ( a ) made any payment under a relevant statutory provision to any employee, self‑employed person or other person (called a relevant payee) to which the relevant payee is not entitled; or ( b ) reimbursed an employer under a relevant statutory provision for the whole or any part of the payment made by the employer to a relevant payee (then being an employee of that employer), that ought not to have been reimbursed, the Government may — ( c ) recover the whole or any part of the payment from the relevant payee as a civil debt; ( d ) deduct the whole or any part of the payment from any subsequent payment to be made under the same or a different relevant statutory provision by the Government to the relevant payee; or ( e ) make a deduction under paragraph ( d ) and recover any amount that remains outstanding after the deduction from the relevant payee as a civil debt. [19/2021] (8) Where — ( a ) the Government has, on account of a defaulting event caused or permitted to be caused by an employer, reimbursed the employer under a relevant statutory provision for making a payment in respect of an employee, to which the employer is not entitled; and ( b ) the Government has not recovered, or is unable to recover, in accordance with subsection (7)( c ), ( d ) or ( e ), the whole or any part of the payment for which the reimbursement under paragraph ( a ) was made, the Government may — ( c ) recover the whole or any part of the reimbursement under paragraph ( a ) (except for any amount recovered by the Government under subsection (7)( c ), ( d ) or ( e ) in relation to that reimbursement) from the employer as a civil debt; ( d ) deduct the whole or any part of the reimbursement under paragraph ( a ) (except for any amount recovered by the Government under subsection (7)( c ), ( d ) or ( e ) in relation to that reimbursement) from any subsequent reimbursement to be made by the Government to the employer — (i) under the same or a different relevant statutory provision; and (ii) in respect of the same employee; or ( e ) make a deduction under paragraph ( d ) and recover any amount that remains outstanding after the deduction from the employer as a civil debt. [19/2021] (9) In this section — “defaulting event”, in relation to any payment or reimbursement, means any of the following: ( a ) an error (however caused); ( b ) any false or misleading statement, document, or information made or provided by any person; ( c ) in the case of a payment by an employer to an employee under section 12B in respect of any childcare leave or extended childcare leave — the taking of any such leave in excess of the employee’s entitlement, or despite the lack of the employee’s entitlement, under that section; ( d ) in the case of a payment by the Government to a person under section 9(5A), 12A(2), 12DC(2) or 12HA(2) — (i) the entitlement to such payment is disqualified under section 9(6), 12A(5), 12DC(5) or 12HA(4), whichever is applicable; or [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (ii) any absence without pay mentioned in section 9(6A), 12A(6), 12DC(6) or 12HA(5) (whichever is applicable) ends before — (A) in relation to section 9(6A), 12A(6) or 12HA(5) — the 12‑month period as mentioned in the applicable provision; or (B) in relation to section 12DC(6) — the 12‑month period, or the period prescribed in substitution, as mentioned in that provision; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( e ) in the case of any reimbursement made by the Government to an employer, or any payment made by the Government (as an employer or otherwise), under a relevant statutory provision in respect of a person’s application to adopt a child, the child whom that person has applied to adopt — (i) is not adopted by that person within 12 months commencing on the eligibility date in relation to the application to adopt the child; or (ii) where the child is not a citizen of Singapore by birth, does not become a citizen of Singapore within 6 months commencing on the date the child is adopted by that person; ( f ) in the case of a payment made by an employer to the employer’s employee under a relevant statutory provision in respect of the employee’s application to adopt a child — (i) the events referred to in sub‑paragraph (i) or (ii) of paragraph ( e ) apply in relation to the child; and (ii) the Government has refused the employer’s claim for reimbursement under a relevant statutory provision, or has given written notice to the employer that the Government intends to recover from that employee the whole or any part of the amount reimbursed by the Government to the employer in respect of that employee; “employee” includes a person alleged to be an employee, even though the person is not so employed. [19/2021] (10) In this section and section 12O, “relevant statutory provision” means any of the following provisions: ( a ) any provision of this Part; ( b ) section 10A, 12A, 12K, 12KB or 12KC of this Act as in force immediately before 1 January 2017. [19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s12O
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 12O
title: Recovery by Government in other circumstances
content:
12O. —(1) The Government may recover from a woman who delivers a child an amount in accordance with regulations made under section 20 if — ( a ) the Government has paid one or more of the following: (i) any amount under section 9(5A) in respect of the woman’s delivery of the child; (ii) any reimbursement claimed by the woman’s employer under section 10 (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22) for any amount paid to the woman in respect of her delivery of the child; (iii) where the woman has made an election under section 12E(5) for the natural father or adoptive father of the child to take shared parental leave or claim lost income in respect of the child — (A) any reimbursement claimed by the father’s employer under section 12G (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22) for any amount paid to the father under section 12E(2) for shared parental leave taken in respect of the child; or (B) any amount of lost income claimed by the father under section 12E(3) (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22) for ceasing to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation in respect of the child; and ( b ) either of the following applies: (i) the total period of absence from work under section 9(1), (1A) or (1B) or section 12E(2), the cessation of active engagement in trade, business, profession or vocation under section 12E(3) and the extra absence period, to which the payment by the Government under paragraph ( a ) relates, exceeds — (A) 56 days, if the woman’s confinement during which the child is delivered is the woman’s first or second specified event; or (B) 112 days, if the woman’s confinement during which the child is delivered is the woman’s third or subsequent specified event; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (ii) the total amount paid by the Government under paragraph ( a ) exceeds — (A) the amount mentioned in section 9(5A)( a ), if the woman’s confinement during which the child is delivered is the woman’s first or second specified event; or (B) the amount mentioned in section 9(5A)( b ), if the woman’s confinement during which the child is delivered is the woman’s third or subsequent specified event. [19/2021] (2) The Government may recover from a woman an amount in accordance with regulations made under section 20 if, in relation to the woman’s adoption of a child — ( a ) the Government has paid one or more of the following: (i) any amount under section 12A(2) in respect of the woman’s adoption of the child; (ii) any reimbursement claimed by the woman’s employer under section 12AD (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22) for any amount paid to the woman in respect of her adoption of the child; (iii) where the woman has made an election under section 12E(5) for the adoptive father of the child to take shared parental leave or claim lost income in respect of the child — (A) any reimbursement claimed by the father’s employer under section 12G (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22) for any amount paid to the father under section 12E(2) for shared parental leave taken in respect of the child; or (B) any amount of lost income claimed by the father under section 12E(3) (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22) for ceasing to be actively engaged in his trade, business, profession or vocation in respect of the child; and ( b ) either of the following applies: (i) the total period of absence from work under section 12AA(1) or section 12E(2), the cessation of active engagement in trade, business, profession or vocation under section 12E(3) and the extra absence period, to which the payment by the Government under paragraph ( a ) relates, exceeds — (A) 56 days, if the woman’s adoption of the child is the woman’s first or second specified event; or (B) 84 days, if the woman’s adoption of the child is the woman’s third or subsequent specified event; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (ii) the total amount paid by the Government under paragraph ( a ) exceeds — (A) the amount mentioned in section 12A(2)( a ), if the woman’s adoption of the child is the woman’s first or second specified event; or (B) the amount mentioned in section 12A(2)( b ), if the woman’s adoption of the child is the woman’s third or subsequent specified event. [19/2021] (2A) The Government may recover from a person who is a natural parent or an adoptive parent of an April 2025 Scheme child, an amount in accordance with regulations made under section 20 if, in relation to the birth or adoption of the child — ( a ) the Government has paid one or more of the following: (i) any amount under section 12DC(2) to the person in respect of the birth or adoption of the child, whichever is applicable; (ii) any reimbursement claimed by the employer of the person under section 12DB (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22) for any amount paid to the person in respect of the birth or adoption of the child, as the case may be; and ( b ) either of the following applies: (i) the total period of absence from work under section 12DA(2), and the extra absence period, to which the payment by the Government under paragraph ( a ) relates, exceeds the period of (N &#215; 7) days applicable to the person under section 12DC(2); (ii) the total amount paid by the Government under paragraph ( a ) exceeds the amount mentioned in section 12DC(2). [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (3) The Government may recover from a man an amount in accordance with regulations made under section 20 if, in relation to the delivery or adoption of a child — ( a ) the Government has paid one or more of the following: (i) any amount under section 12HA(2) in respect of the delivery or adoption of a child, whichever is applicable; (ii) any reimbursement claimed by the man’s employer under section 12J or 12JA (whether or not pursuant to an exemption under section 22) for any amount paid to the man in respect of the delivery of the child or the adoption of the child, as the case may be; and [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] ( b ) either of the following applies: (i) the total period of absence from work under section 12H(1), and the extra absence period, to which the payment by the Government under paragraph ( a ) relates, exceeds — (A) if section 12HA(2)( a ) applies — 14 days; or (B) if section 12HA(2)( b ) applies — 28 days; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (ii) the total amount paid by the Government under paragraph ( a ) exceeds the amount mentioned in section 12HA(2)( a ) or ( b ), as the case may be. [19/2021] [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] (4) For the purposes of subsections (1), (2), (2A) and (3), the Government may recover the amount concerned from the woman or man (as the case may be) as a civil debt or by deducting the amount concerned from any subsequent payment made by the Government to the woman or man concerned (as the case may be) under any relevant statutory provision. [19/2021] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (5) In this section, “extra absence period” means — ( a ) in the case of subsection (1)( b )(i) in relation to a woman whose employer has claimed reimbursement from the Government under section 10(2A) — the period of the woman’s absence from work granted by the employer that was the subject of the reimbursement; ( b ) in the case of subsection (2)( b )(i) in relation to a woman whose employer has claimed reimbursement from the Government under section 12AD(3) — the period of the woman’s absence from work granted by the employer that was the subject of the reimbursement; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( ba ) in the case of subsection (2A)( b )(i) in relation to a person whose employer has claimed reimbursement from the Government under section 12DB(6) — the period of the person’s absence from work granted by the employer that was the subject of the reimbursement; or [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( c ) in the case of subsection (3)( b )(i) in relation to a man whose employer has claimed reimbursement from the Government under section 12J(3) or 12JA(6), or under both provisions — the period of the man’s absence from work granted by the employer that was the subject of the reimbursement. [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - LEAVE AND BENEFITS
section: 13
title: Exclusion of certain classes of persons
content:
13. This Part or any provision of this Part does not apply to — ( a ) any class of employees; ( b ) any class of self-employed persons; or ( c ) any class of employers, that the Minister may, by notification in the Gazette , specify. [28/2008; 12/2013]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 14
title: Disputes
content:
14. —(1) Any question or dispute arising from or in connection with — ( a ) the eligibility of a child for membership of the Scheme; ( b ) the payment of any moneys to an approved person; ( c ) the entitlement of a person to make a withdrawal of moneys under the Scheme; ( d ) the entitlement of a self-employed woman to any payment under section 9 or 12AB or the repealed section 10A or 12A; ( da ) the entitlement of a self-employed person to any payment under section 12B; ( db ) the entitlement of a person to any payment from the Government under section 9(5A) or (6B), section 12A(2) or (7), section 12DC(2) or (7) or section 12HA(2) or (6); [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( dc ) the entitlement of a self-employed man to any payment under section 12E or 12H or the repealed section 12K or 12KC; ( dd ) the entitlement of a self‑employed person to any payment under section 12DA; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( de ) the refusal of a Director to accept any intended variation of any arrangement mentioned in section 12DD; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( e ) the entitlement of an employer to reimbursement from the Government under section 10, 12AD, 12C, 12CA, 12DB, 12G, 12J, 12JA or 12N or the repealed section 10A, 12A, 12K or 12KB; or [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( f ) any other matter under Part 2 or 3 or the repealed section 10A, 12A, 12K, 12KA, 12KB or 12KC that the Minister may determine, must be referred to the Minister for decision within one month from the date on which the question or dispute arises or such other later time as the Minister may allow. [42/2004; 28/2008; 12/2013; 17/2016; 33/2016; 19/2021] (2) The decision of the Minister under subsection (1) is final. (3) In this section, any reference to the repealed section 10A, 12A, 12K, 12KA, 12KB or 12KC is a reference to the section concerned of this Act as in force immediately before 1 January 2017. [33/2016]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 15
title: Notification of change of residence
content:
15. —(1) Every parent of a member must notify the Minister of any change in his or her place of residence. (2) Every parent who makes a report of the change of his or her place of residence under section 10 of the National Registration Act 1965 is deemed to have complied with subsection (1).


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s15A
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 15A
title: Powers to verify statement, document or information, etc.
content:
15A. —(1) The powers under this section may be exercised only for the purposes of inquiring into or ascertaining the truth or correctness of any statement, document or information made or provided by any person to a Director or a person authorised by the Director (called an authorised person) in connection with — ( a ) any membership of the Scheme, or any payment, withdrawal or transfer under the Scheme; or ( b ) a claim for any payment, reimbursement or lost income under this Act. [19/2021] (2) A Director or an authorised person may, at any reasonable time, do any of the following, without involving any search of any property or person: ( a ) enter any premises; ( b ) require any person to provide or give access to, without charge, any document (in whatever form) or information reasonably required for any purpose in subsection (1); ( c ) inspect and make copies of or take extracts from any such document; ( d ) take possession of any such document if, in the opinion of the Director or authorised person — (i) the inspection or copying of or extraction from the document cannot reasonably be performed without taking possession; (ii) the document may be interfered with or destroyed unless possession is taken; or (iii) the document may be required as evidence in any proceedings instituted or commenced for any of the purposes of, or in connection with, this Act. [19/2021] (3) The power to require a person to provide any document or information under subsection (2)( b ) includes the power — ( a ) to require the person, or any person who is or was an officer or employee of that person, to provide an explanation of the document or information; ( b ) if the document or information is not provided, to require the person to state, to the best of the person’s knowledge and belief, where it is; and ( c ) if the information is recorded otherwise than in legible form, to require the information to be made available to the Director or authorised person (as the case may be) in legible form. [19/2021] (4) For the purposes of subsection (2), if any document is kept in electronic form, the power of a Director, or an authorised person who is a public officer, includes the following powers: ( a ) the power to inspect the document includes the power to — (i) access any computer or other equipment (including a mobile telephone) in which the document is stored; and (ii) require any person having charge of, or otherwise concerned with the operation of, the computer or other equipment to provide assistance in gaining such access; ( b ) the power to take possession of the document includes the power to — (i) make copies of the document in legible or electronic form; and (ii) transfer the information from the document to a disk, tape or other storage device. [19/2021] (5) If the Director or authorised person is unable to make copies of the document, or transfer the information from the document, under subsection (4)( b ), the Director or an authorised person who is a public officer may — ( a ) seize the computer or other equipment (including a mobile telephone) in which the document or material is stored, as evidence in proceedings for an offence under this Act; and ( b ) require any person having charge of, or otherwise concerned with the operation of, the computer or other equipment to disclose any password or access code for gaining access to the document stored in the computer or other equipment. [19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 16
title: False or misleading statement
content:
16. —(1) Any person who for any purpose connected with this Act — ( a ) knowingly makes any false or misleading statement; ( b ) provides, or causes or knowingly allows to be provided, any document or information which the person knows to be false or misleading in a material particular; or ( c ) intentionally alters, suppresses or destroys any document which the person is required to provide under section 15A, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [19/2021] (2) Where a person has been convicted by the court of having made any false or misleading statement or having provided any document or information which is false or misleading in any material particular under subsection (1), the court may order that person to make restitution of any moneys paid out to that person by the Government in reliance of the false or misleading statement, document or information, as the case may be. [19/2021]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 17
title: Offences and penalties
content:
17. —(1) Any employer who — ( a ) fails, without reasonable cause, to grant maternity leave, in accordance with sections 9 and 9A, to a female employee who is entitled to and requests for such leave; ( b ) fails to pay the female employee in accordance with sections 9 and 9A; ( c ) fails to pay the female employee in accordance with any provision of sections 77 to 80, 84(1) and 84A(1) of the Employment Act 1968 as made applicable by section 12; ( d ) acts in contravention of section 81 of the Employment Act 1968 as made applicable by section 12; or ( e ) acts in contravention of section 82 of the Employment Act 1968 as made applicable by section 12, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2013] (1A) Where an employer who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (1)( a ), ( b ), ( c ), ( d ) or ( e ) is a repeat offender, the employer shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [12/2013] (1AA) For the purposes of subsection (1A), a person is a repeat offender in relation to an offence under subsection (1)( a ), ( b ), ( c ), ( d ) or ( e ) if the person who is convicted or found guilty of an offence under subsection (1)( a ), ( b ), ( c ), ( d ) or ( e ) (called the current offence) has been convicted or found guilty of — ( a ) an offence under subsection (1)( a ), ( b ), ( c ), ( d ) or ( e ); or ( b ) an offence under section 82 or 87(1) of the Employment Act 1968 in force before, on or after 1 May 2013, on at least one other occasion on or after 1 May 2013 and before the date on which the person is convicted or found guilty of the current offence. [12/2013] (2) Where an employer has been convicted of an offence under subsection (1)( b ), ( c ) or ( d ), the court may order that employer to make restitution of any moneys paid out to that employer by the Government under section 10 which has not been paid to the female employee in accordance with the provisions of Part 3. [12/2013]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 18
title: Holding out as approved person
content:
18. —(1) Where any person holds himself, herself or itself out to be an approved person when the person is not an approved person, the person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. (2) [ Deleted by Act 28 of 2008 ] (3) Where the person mentioned in subsection (1) is a partnership, every partner, other than a partner who is proved to have been ignorant of or attempted to prevent the commission of the offence, shall be guilty of the offence under subsection (1) and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s18A
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 18A
title: Offence by body corporate
content:
18A. Where — ( a ) an offence under this Act is committed by a body corporate; and ( b ) the offence is proved to have been committed with the consent or connivance of, or to be attributable to any act or default on the part of — (i) any director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate; or (ii) any person purporting to act in any such capacity, he or she, as well as the body corporate, shall be guilty of that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. [28/2008]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 19
title: Composition of offences
content:
19. —(1) The Minister or any person authorised by the Minister may compound any offence under section 12N, 16 or 18 or any regulations made under this Act by collecting from the person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding $5,000. [42/2004; 28/2008; 19/2021] (2) The Commissioner for Labour may compound any offence under section 12AA, 12B, 12D, 12DA, 12E, 12H or 17 by collecting from the person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding $1,000. [42/2004; 28/2008; 12/2013] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 20
title: Regulations
content:
20. —(1) The Minister may make regulations that are necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Act. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Minister may make regulations relating to — ( aa ) the claims by any person for any payment, lost income or reimbursement under this Act, including making provision for the submission of a claim, and the requirements for a submission, on any website or using an electronic system, the time for making a claim or an adjustment to a claim, and the circumstances in which a claim may be refused; ( a ) the terms and conditions, manner and method of — (i) any payment to any female or male employee or self‑employed man or woman under section 9, 12A, 12AA, 12AB, 12DA, 12DC, 12E, 12H or 12HA, as the case may be; and [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (ii) any payment to any employee or self‑employed person under section 12B; ( b ) the manner of and method for determining — (i) the income which a self-employed man or woman is entitled to claim from the Government under section 9, 12AB, 12DA, 12E or 12H, as the case may be; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (ii) the income which a self-employed person is entitled to claim from the Government under section 12B; and (iii) the amount which a person is entitled to claim from the Government under section 9(5A), 12A(2), 12DC(2) or 12HA(2); [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( c ) the manner of and method for determining the amount of reimbursement which an employer is entitled to claim under section 10, 12AD, 12C, 12CA, 12DB, 12G, 12J or 12JA and the terms and conditions subject to which the employer may be reimbursed; [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( d ) the assessment, determination and payment of — (i) the income which a self-employed man or woman is entitled to claim under section 9, 12AB, 12DA, 12E or 12H, as the case may be; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (ii) the income which a self-employed person is entitled to claim under section 12B; (iii) the reimbursement which an employer is entitled to claim under section 10, 12AD, 12C, 12CA, 12DB, 12G, 12J or 12JA; and [Act 32 of 2023 wef 01/01/2024] [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (iv) any claim under section 9(5A), 12A(2), 12DC(2) or 12HA(2) or any other provision of this Act; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( e ) the registers and records to be maintained for the purposes of Part 3 and the forms and contents thereof, or the records to be kept and maintained by any person for the purposes of a claim under this Act; [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( ea ) where an employee is employed concurrently by 2 or more employers, or is both an employee (whether employed by one employer, or by 2 or more employers) and a self‑employed person — (i) the apportionment of the amounts of any reimbursement or payment, or the priority between any claims, or both, for the purposes of section 12MA; and (ii) the provision for a Director to determine the apportionment of the amounts of any reimbursement or payment in any particular case; and [Act 46 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( f ) the prescribing of anything that may be prescribed under this Act. [42/2004; 28/2008; 12/2013; 17/2016; 33/2016; 19/2021] (2A) Without limiting subsection (1), the Minister may make regulations to provide for Part 3 and any regulations made under this section to apply, with such modifications as may be specified, to any part‑time employee or class of part‑time employees. [28/2008] (2B) Regulations made for the purposes of subsection (2) may — ( a ) provide for a decision on the assessment, determination and payment of a claim under this Act to be made by a Director or another person acting under the direction of the Director, or a body of persons (each called a relevant authority), or by an electronic system for which operation a relevant authority is responsible; ( b ) provide that a decision made by the operation of the electronic system is taken to be a decision made by a relevant authority responsible for its operation; and ( c ) provide for the circumstances in which a relevant authority may review or substitute a decision taken to be made by the relevant authority under paragraph ( b ). [19/2021] (3) Any regulations made under this section may provide that any act or omission in contravention of any regulation shall be an offence and may provide for the imposition of penalties for such offence not exceeding a fine of $20,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or both.


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 21
title: Class exemption
content:
21. The Minister may, by order in the Gazette , exempt any class of persons from complying with any provision of this Act or any regulations made under this Act, subject to any terms or conditions specified in the order. [12/2013]


document_id: cdcsa-2001
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 22
title: Exemption on application
content:
22. —(1) The Minister may, on the application of any person, exempt that person from complying with any requirement of this Act or any regulations made under this Act. [12/2013] (2) An exemption under subsection (1) — ( a ) may be granted subject to such terms or conditions as the Minister considers appropriate; ( b ) has effect for such period as the Minister considers appropriate; ( c ) must be in writing and sent by the Minister to the person to whom the exemption is granted; and ( d ) need not be published in the Gazette . [12/2013] (3) An exemption under this section, unless previously revoked in accordance with the terms of the exemption, continues in force for such period as may be specified in the exemption. [12/2013] (4) The Minister may, on the application of any person — ( a ) extend the period for which an exemption granted under subsection (1) has effect; ( b ) vary or revoke any existing term or condition specified in an exemption granted under subsection (1); ( c ) revoke, whether wholly or partly, any exemption granted to a person under subsection (1); or ( d ) impose additional terms or conditions in an exemption granted under subsection (1). [12/2013] (5) In this section, any reference to the Minister includes a reference to any of the following persons designated by the Minister to exercise the power to exempt under this section in place of the Minister: ( a ) a Second Minister, Minister of State or Senior Minister of State for his or her Ministry; ( b ) a Parliamentary Secretary or Senior Parliamentary Secretary to his or her Ministry. [12/2013]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: General interpretation
content:
2. —(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “auxiliary community relations officer” means an auxiliary community relations officer appointed under section 13D; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “claim” includes a counterclaim; “Community Disputes Resolution Tribunal” or “tribunal” means a District Court designated under section 14 as a Community Disputes Resolution Tribunal; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “Community Mediation Centre” means a Community Mediation Centre established under section 3 of the Community Mediation Centres Act 1997; “community relations officer” means a community relations officer appointed under section 13C; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “Deputy Director” means a Deputy Director of Community Relations appointed under section 13B; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “Director” means a Director of Community Relations appointed under section 13B; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “Director-General” means the Director-General of Community Relations appointed under section 13B; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “Registrar” means the registrar of the State Courts appointed under section 12 of the State Courts Act 1970 and includes a deputy registrar appointed under that section; “Registry” means the Registry of the State Courts; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “Senior Assistant Director” means a Senior Assistant Director of Community Relations appointed under section 13B; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “statutory body” means a body corporate established by or under a public Act for the purposes of a public function; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] “unreasonable interference”, in relation to a neighbour of an individual, means unreasonable interference with the enjoyment or use of the place of residence that the neighbour resides in. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] (2) For the purposes of the definition of “unreasonable interference” in subsection (1) — ( a ) whether an act or omission causes interference with a neighbour’s enjoyment or use of his or her place of residence is to be construed in accordance with section 4(2); and ( b ) whether a person is a neighbour of an individual is to be construed in accordance with section 4(4) and (5). [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 3
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
3. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires — “court” means a court of competent jurisdiction and includes a Community Disputes Resolution Tribunal; “exclusion order” means an order made under section 9(2) excluding a contravening party (within the meaning of that section) from his or her place of residence; “place of residence” means a house, a flat, an apartment or other dwelling place used for the purpose of residence; “special direction” means a direction made by a court under section 6(2) against a contravening party (within the meaning of that section); “vicinity”, in relation to a place of residence, includes any common corridor, common space or common property, any road, or any building or other property, in the surrounding area of the place of residence.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 4
title: Tort of interference with enjoyment or use of place of residence
content:
4. —(1) An individual who resides in a place of residence (called in this Part the respondent) must not, by his or her act or omission, directly or indirectly, and whether intentionally, recklessly or negligently, cause unreasonable interference with his or her neighbour’s enjoyment or use of the place of residence that the neighbour resides in. (2) An act or omission by a respondent which may cause interference with his or her neighbour’s enjoyment or use of the neighbour’s place of residence may include (but is not limited to) any of the following: ( a ) causing excessive noise, smell, smoke, light or vibration; ( b ) littering at or in the vicinity of the neighbour’s place of residence; ( c ) obstructing the neighbour’s place of residence, by placing any thing or object, or by any other manner, at or in the vicinity of the neighbour’s place of residence; ( d ) interfering with the neighbour or the neighbour’s movable property, at or in the vicinity of the neighbour’s place of residence; ( e ) surveillance of the neighbour or of the neighbour’s place of residence, where the surveillance is done at or in the vicinity of that place of residence; ( f ) trespassing on the neighbour’s place of residence; ( g ) allowing an animal owned by or under the care or control of the respondent to trespass on the neighbour’s place of residence, to cause excessive noise or smell, or to defecate or urinate at or in the vicinity of the neighbour’s place of residence. (3) A neighbour of a respondent may bring civil proceedings in a court against the respondent for the respondent’s wrongful act or omission in subsection (1). (4) For the purposes of this section, a neighbour of a respondent is an individual who lawfully resides in a place of residence — ( a ) that is in the same building as the respondent’s place of residence; or ( b ) that is within 100 metres of the respondent’s place of residence, but does not include an individual who occupies the same place of residence as the respondent. Illustrations ( a ) X and Y live in the same apartment but in different rooms. X and Y occupy the same place of residence. ( b ) An apartment with the same registered address is partitioned into sub-divided units with separate entrances. X and Y live in different sub-divided units in this apartment with the same registered address. X and Y occupy the same place of residence. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] (5) For the purposes of subsection (4)( b ), that distance is to be measured from any part of the boundary of one place of residence to any part of the boundary of the other place of residence.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 5
title: Orders of court
content:
5. —(1) A court may make one or more of the following orders if the court is satisfied on a balance of probabilities that a claim under section 4 by a respondent’s neighbour has been made out against the respondent, and is satisfied that it is just and equitable to do so: ( a ) an order for damages; ( b ) an order granting an injunction; ( c ) an order for specific performance; ( d ) an order that the respondent provide an apology to the neighbour, in such form or manner as the court thinks fit; ( da ) any other order that the court may make under this Act; [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] ( e ) any ancillary order as may be necessary to give effect to any of the court’s orders. (2) In deciding whether it is just and equitable for any order to be made under subsection (1), the court is to consider all the following matters: ( a ) the impact of the order, if made, on — (i) the respondent; (ii) any individual who, at the time of the making of the order, resides in the same place of residence as the respondent; and (iii) any other person who can reasonably be expected to be affected by the order; ( b ) the ordinary instances of daily living that can be expected to be tolerated by reasonable persons living in Singapore; ( c ) any other matters as the court deems fit. (3) To avoid doubt, an order made under this section by the consent of the parties or in the absence of a party, in accordance with Rules of Court made under section 32, has the same force and effect as if the order were made by the court under this section after a hearing by the court. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 6
title: Special direction on breach of court order, etc.
content:
6. —(1) Where a respondent (called in this Part the contravening party) fails to comply with an order of court made under section 5 (called in this section the disobeyed order), the party in whose favour the disobeyed order was made may apply to a relevant court for a direction that the contravening party must comply with the disobeyed order. (2) Any court (at first instance or on appeal) may make a direction that a contravening party comply with a disobeyed order within a specified time if the court is satisfied on a balance of probabilities that the contravening party has, without reasonable excuse, failed to comply with the disobeyed order. (3) Where a court in subsection (2) makes a special direction, the court may also order any person as the court may specify, to enter into a bond to ensure that the contravening party complies with that direction. (4) The court may, in making an order under subsection (3) for a person to enter into a bond, impose such conditions on or give such directions to that person, as part of the bond, as the court thinks fit, for the purpose of ensuring that the contravening party complies with the special direction. (5) No order under subsection (3) may be made without giving the person mentioned in that subsection an opportunity to attend and be heard. (6) Despite subsection (5), an order under subsection (3) may be made if the person mentioned in subsection (3), having been given an opportunity to attend and be heard, has failed to do so or cannot be found within a reasonable time. (7) A person who fails to comply with an order to enter into a bond under subsection (3) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000. (8) Where a person is convicted of an offence under subsection (7) for failure to comply with an order to enter into a bond, the failure to comply with that order is not punishable as a contempt of court. (9) A person is not to be convicted of an offence under subsection (7) in respect of any non‑compliance which has been punished as a contempt of court. (10) In this section, “relevant court”, in relation to an application for a special direction, means the court of first instance which heard the claim under section 4 (whether or not the claim was allowed), or its equivalent.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 7
title: Breach of special direction an offence
content:
7. —(1) A contravening party who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a special direction shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both; and ( b ) in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction, but not exceeding $10,000 in total. (2) It is not a defence for a person charged with an offence under subsection (1) that the court which made an order under section 5 or the court which made a special direction should not have, for whatever reason, made that order or direction. (3) Where a person is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) for failure to comply with a special direction, the failure to comply with the special direction as well as the failure to comply with the order of court made under section 5 which is the subject of that special direction is not punishable as a contempt of court. (4) A person shall not be convicted of an offence under subsection (1) in respect of any non‑compliance which has been punished as a contempt of court.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 8
title: Section 6 not to apply to certain court orders
content:
8. Section 6 does not apply to an order of court made under section 5 which requires a contravening party to pay damages.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 9
title: Exclusion order
content:
9. —(1) Where a contravening party fails to comply with a special direction, the party in whose favour the special direction was made may apply to a court (called in this section a second court) for an order that the contravening party be excluded from his or her place of residence. (2) A second court may make an exclusion order if the court is satisfied on a balance of probabilities that the contravening party has, without reasonable excuse, failed to comply with a special direction, and is satisfied that it is just and equitable to do so. (3) A second court may make an exclusion order on such terms and conditions as the court thinks fit. (4) In deciding whether it is just and equitable for an exclusion order to be made, the court is to consider all the following matters: ( a ) the impact of the order, if made, on — (i) the contravening party; (ii) any individual who, at the time of the making of the order, resides in the same place of residence as the contravening party; and (iii) any other person who can reasonably be expected to be affected by the order; ( b ) any other matters as the court deems fit. (5) To avoid doubt, a court may make more than one exclusion order under this section against the same contravening party. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 10
title: Breach of exclusion order an offence
content:
10. —(1) A contravening party who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an exclusion order shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both; and ( b ) in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction, but not exceeding $10,000 in total. (2) Where a person is convicted of an offence under subsection (1) for failure to comply with an exclusion order, the failure to comply with the exclusion order is not punishable as a contempt of court. (3) A person shall not be convicted of an offence under subsection (1) in respect of any non‑compliance which has been punished as a contempt of court.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 11
title: Termination of tenancy, etc.
content:
11. —(1) Where a person who is ordered to enter into a bond under section 6(3) is a landlord of the place of residence a contravening party resides in (called in this section the specified residence), the landlord is entitled to terminate, in accordance with subsection (2), any tenancy relating to that specified residence to which the landlord is party. (2) A tenancy may be terminated by giving written notice which must specify a date of re‑possession that is at least 14 days after the date on which the notice is given. (3) A landlord is entitled to terminate a tenancy in accordance with this section despite anything in any other law or in any agreement, and section 18 of the Conveyancing and Law of Property Act 1886 does not apply to or in relation to any tenancy which is lawfully terminated under this section. (4) A landlord is not liable in respect of any termination of a tenancy in accordance with this section. (5) Where a landlord terminates a tenancy for a specified residence in accordance with this section and there is a subtenancy derived out of that tenancy in relation to that specified residence — ( a ) the tenant is not liable in respect of any termination of that subtenancy, if the tenant is not a contravening party; and ( b ) section 18 of the Conveyancing and Law of Property Act 1886 does not apply in relation to that subtenancy. Illustrations ( a ) X lets out a place of residence to Y. Y, or another person occupying that place of residence, is a contravening party. If a court orders X to enter into a bond under section 6(3), X is entitled to terminate the entire tenancy with Y, even if the contravening party only occupies a part of that place of residence. ( b ) X lets out one part of a place of residence to Y under a tenancy with Y. X lets out another part of the place of residence to Z under a separate tenancy with Z. Y, or a person occupying the part of the place of residence which is the subject of Y’s tenancy with X, is a contravening party. If a court orders X to enter into a bond under section 6(3), X is entitled to terminate the tenancy which X has entered into with Y but may not terminate the tenancy which X has entered into with Z.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s11A
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 11A
title: Order to address hoarding
content:
11A. —(1) A tribunal may, on the application of the Director-General, make an order to authorise a community relations officer or any other person specified in the order to remove and dispose of any thing or material in a place of residence specified in the order if the tribunal is satisfied on a balance of probabilities that — ( a ) there are accumulated or stockpiled, excessive or unconstrained things or material in the place of residence that a reasonable person would consider to be of low or no value or no utility in the circumstances; ( b ) the individual residing in the place of residence is unwilling or unable to remove or dispose of those things or material despite a notice or advisory to do so given by a community relations officer, a public officer, an officer or employee of a statutory body or a person exercising a public official function; ( c ) the accumulation or stockpiling of those things or material in the place of residence is of a nature or in a quantity that is causing unreasonable interference to the individual’s neighbour; and ( d ) an order for specific performance had been made under section 5(1)( c ) whether before, on or after the appointed date but prior to the Director-General’s application, for the removal and disposal of the things or material mentioned in paragraphs ( a ), ( b ) and ( c ) but any term of the order has not been complied with. (2) The order of the tribunal made under subsection (1) may authorise a community relations officer or any other person specified in the order to do any of the following with or without the consent of the owner or occupier of the place of residence: ( a ) enter a place of residence at any reasonable time of the day for the purpose of enforcing the order; ( b ) remove and dispose of any thing or material in the place of residence, that if not removed or disposed of would in the opinion of a reasonable person cause unreasonable interference to the individual’s neighbour; ( c ) do any other act that may be specified in the order. (3) The tribunal may vary, suspend or revoke the order made under subsection (1) on the application of the Director-General or any party to the order. (4) In this section, “appointed date” means the date of commencement of section 11 of the Community Disputes Resolution (Amendment) Act 2024. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 12
title: Community order
content:
12. Where a court convicts any person for an offence under section 6, 7 or 10, the court has the power to make a community order under Part 17 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 despite any provision to the contrary in section 337(1)( h ) of that Code.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 2 - TORT OF INTERFERENCE WITH ENJOYMENT OR USE
section: 13
title: Exemption
content:
13. The Minister may exempt from the application of section 6(3) any person or class of persons as the Minister may, by order in the Gazette , prescribe.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13A
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13A
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
13A. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires — “abate”, in relation to an act or omission causing unreasonable interference, includes to prevent, reduce, eliminate or control the act or omission; “auxiliary police officer” means an auxiliary police officer appointed under Part 9 of the Police Force Act 2004; “court” means a court of competent jurisdiction and includes a Community Disputes Resolution Tribunal; “detection and monitoring equipment” means any equipment or device (including any software) or a combination of such equipment and devices (including any software) that is capable of detecting, monitoring or recording any activity causing unreasonable interference in a place of residence or the vicinity of a place of residence; “entity responsible for the vicinity of a place of residence” means a person, agency or other entity that has the charge, management or control of the vicinity of the place of residence either on his, her or its own account or as agent of another person, including but not limited to, the Housing and Development Board established under the Housing and Development Act 1959, a Town Council established under the Town Councils Act 1988 or a management corporation for a strata title plan; “occupier”, in relation to a place of residence, means a person in occupation of the place of residence or having the charge, management or control of the place either on his, her or its own account or as agent of another person, but does not include a lodger; “owner”, in relation to a place of residence, means a person other than the mortgagee or chargee not in possession, who is for the time being entitled to dispose of the freehold of the place of residence whether in possession or reversion, or who holds under a leasehold or is entitled to the rents and profits of the place of residence; “place of residence” means a house, a flat, an apartment or other dwelling place used for the purpose of residence; “prescribed limitations” means the limitations prescribed under section 13G; “suspected individual” means an individual who is suspected of an act or omission which causes unreasonable interference with his or her neighbour’s enjoyment or use of the place of residence that the neighbour resides in; “vicinity”, in relation to a place of residence, includes any common corridor, common space or common property, any road, or any building or other property, in the surrounding area of the place of residence. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] Division 2 &#x2014; Director-General of
Community Relations, community relations officers
and auxiliary community relations officers


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13B
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13B
title:
Appointment of Director-General, Directors, Deputy Directors and Senior Assistant Directors of Community Relations

content:
13B. —(1) The Minister may appoint any person to be the Director-General of Community Relations who is responsible for the administration of this Part and to perform the following functions: ( a ) to facilitate the amicable and early resolution of disputes relating to unreasonable interference with an individual’s enjoyment or use of his or her place of residence; ( b ) to administer this Part subject to the general or special directions of the Minister; ( c ) to inform and advise the Minister on matters relating to this Part; ( d ) to perform such other functions and duties as the Minister may assign to the Director-General. (2) The Minister may in writing appoint such numbers of Directors of Community Relations, Deputy Directors of Community Relations and Senior Assistant Directors of Community Relations as the Minister may consider expedient or necessary for the purposes of this Part. (3) An appointment under subsection (1) must be published in the Gazette . (4) Subject to the directions of the Director-General, the powers and duties of the Director-General under this Act may be exercised and discharged by a Director, Deputy Director or Senior Assistant Director of Community Relations. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13C
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13C
title: Appointment of community relations officers
content:
13C. —(1) The Director-General may in writing appoint any of the following individuals to be a community relations officer to facilitate the amicable and early resolution of disputes relating to unreasonable interference with an individual’s enjoyment or use of his or her place of residence in any particular area or areas in Singapore: ( a ) a police officer; ( b ) a public officer; ( c ) an officer or employee of a statutory body. (2) The Director-General may, for any reason that appears to the Director-General to be sufficient, at any time revoke an individual’s appointment as a community relations officer. (3) An individual who is appointed as a community relations officer under subsection (1) does not, only because of the appointment, become an employee or agent of the Government. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13D
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13D
title: Appointment of auxiliary community relations officers
content:
13D. —(1) The Director-General may in writing appoint any of the following individuals who is at least 18 years of age to be an auxiliary community relations officer to facilitate the amicable and early resolution of disputes relating to unreasonable interference with an individual’s enjoyment or use of his or her place of residence in any particular area or areas in Singapore: ( a ) an auxiliary police officer; ( b ) an individual who is not mentioned in section 13C(1) but who has the suitable training to properly exercise the powers of an auxiliary community relations officer. (2) The Director-General may, for any reason that appears to the Director-General to be sufficient, at any time revoke an individual’s appointment as an auxiliary community relations officer. (3) An individual who is appointed as an auxiliary community relations officer under subsection (1) does not, only because of the appointment, become an employee or agent of the Government. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13E
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13E
title: Identification cards and equipment
content:
13E. —(1) The Director-General must issue to each community relations officer and auxiliary community relations officer an identification card, which must be carried at all times by the community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) when exercising powers under any provision in this Act or in any other written law. (2) A community relations officer and an auxiliary community relations officer whose appointment as such ceases must return any identification card issued to him or her under subsection (1) to the Director-General. (3) A community relations officer and an auxiliary community relations officer must produce his or her identification card for inspection — ( a ) before exercising a power under this Act; and ( b ) at any time during the exercise of a power under this Act, if asked to do so. (4) A community relations officer and an auxiliary community relations officer is to be issued with such equipment, or such description of equipment, as the Director-General may determine to be necessary for the effectual discharge of the duties of a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer, as the case may be. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13F
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13F
title: Public servants
content:
13F. A community relations officer and an auxiliary community relations officer who, in the course of his or her duty as a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be), exercises any power under this Part, in accordance with the written authorisation of the Director-General is taken to be a public servant for the purposes of the Penal Code 1871 when exercising the power. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] Division 3 &#x2014; Powers and duties of Director-General,
community relations officers
and auxiliary community relations officers


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13G
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13G
title: Powers and duties under this Part subject to prescribed limitations
content:
13G. —(1) The powers and duties of the Director-General, Directors, Deputy Directors, Senior Assistant Directors, community relations officers and auxiliary community relations officers under this Part (called in this section the powers and duties) are subject to the following limitations that the Minister may prescribe by regulations made under section 13Z: ( a ) limitations as to the categories or types of unreasonable interference in relation to which the powers and duties may be exercised or performed; ( b ) limitations as to the degree of seriousness or severity of the unreasonable interference before certain powers and duties may be exercised or performed; ( c ) limitations as to the conduct of any relevant person or other circumstances in which the powers and duties may be exercised or performed; ( d ) limitations as to the geographical area or location in which the powers and duties may be exercised or performed; ( e ) limitations as to the types and capabilities of the detection and monitoring equipment that may be used or installed. (2) The regulations mentioned in subsection (1) may — ( a ) make different provisions for different categories or types of unreasonable interference; ( b ) make different provisions for different classes of powers and duties that may be exercised or performed under different provisions of this Part; ( c ) provide for the scope and application of any of the prescribed limitations to be determined by the Director-General including but not limited to determining the degree of seriousness or severity of the unreasonable interference before certain powers and duties may be exercised; and ( d ) provide for factors which may be taken into account by the Director-General in determining whether a particular complaint or circumstance falls within the scope of the prescribed limitations. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13H
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13H
title:
Authorisation of community relations officers and auxiliary community relations officers to exercise powers

content:
13H. —(1) The Director-General must issue each community relations officer and auxiliary community relations officer a written authorisation specifying each power mentioned in section 13I, 13J, 13L or 13M that the community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) may exercise subject to the prescribed limitations. (2) A community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) who is authorised to exercise any power under section 13I, 13J, 13L or 13M may only exercise the power — ( a ) to the extent authorised by the Director-General under this section and subject to the prescribed limitations; and ( b ) in any case where an individual is suspected of an act or omission which causes unreasonable interference with his or her neighbour’s enjoyment or use of the place of residence that the neighbour resides in. (3) The Director-General’s authorisation under subsection (1) for a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) may also do all or any of the following: ( a ) limit the powers in section 13I, 13J, 13L or 13M that the community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) may exercise; ( b ) limit when the community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) may exercise those powers; ( c ) limit the geographical area or location in Singapore in which the community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) may exercise those powers; ( d ) limit the categories or types of unreasonable interference in relation to which those powers may be exercised by the community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer, as the case may be; ( e ) limit the circumstances in which the community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) may exercise those powers. (4) A community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer who is authorised under subsection (1) to exercise any power under section 13I, 13J, 13L or 13M (as the case may be) must obey all lawful directions (general or specific) of the Director-General when exercising that power. (5) Nothing in section 13I, 13J, 13L or 13M and this section limits the Director-General of Public Health’s powers under Part 5 of the Environmental Public Health Act 1987 or a Magistrate Court’s powers under section 15 of the Miscellaneous Offences (Public Order and Nuisance) Act 1906. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13I
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13I
title: Powers of community relations officers
content:
13I. —(1) The powers that a community relations officer may be authorised under section 13H to exercise are all or any of the following: ( a ) to require a suspected individual to state the suspected individual’s name and residential address; ( b ) to require any person present or residing in a place of residence to provide information on the identity and particulars of the owner of or any person residing in the same place of residence, where an act or omission causing unreasonable interference was reasonably suspected to have been committed in that place; ( c ) to require any of the following individuals to attend before a community relations officer, if any prior reasonable attempt to meet and communicate with the individual has not been successful: (i) a suspected individual; (ii) any complainant against the suspected individual; (iii) any other individual who may assist in the investigation of the complaint against the suspected individual; ( d ) to advise a suspected individual to abate the act or omission causing unreasonable interference; ( e ) to photograph or film, or otherwise make an audio or visual recording in the place or the vicinity of the place where, or in respect of which, an act or omission causing unreasonable interference was committed or was reasonably suspected to have been committed, and any individual, thing, document or record in that place and to retain the photograph, film or recording; ( f ) to make a copy of and retain the copy of any document or record mentioned in paragraph ( e ); ( g ) to take statements from — (i) a suspected individual; (ii) any complainant against the suspected individual; or (iii) any other individual who may assist in the investigation of the complaint against the suspected individual; ( h ) to require any individual or complainant mentioned in paragraph ( g ) to make and sign a declaration of the truth of the statement that he or she makes; ( i ) to issue a written warning to a suspected individual to cease any act or omission causing unreasonable interference; ( j ) to issue written advisories to residents to maintain neighbourly relations and community peace; ( k ) to carry out an order made by a tribunal under section 11A and for this purpose the community relations officer may exercise the powers mentioned in this section; ( l ) to serve or deliver to a suspected individual, if he or she is alleged to have committed an offence, an offer of composition made by the Director-General or a person authorised by the Director-General; ( m ) to enter a place of residence at any reasonable time of the day, with the consent of the owner or occupier of the place of residence, for the purpose — (i) of installing detection and monitoring equipment; or (ii) of exercising any power under paragraph ( e ) or ( f ); ( n ) to install detection and monitoring equipment in the vicinity of a place of residence without entering the place of residence and with the consent of the entity responsible for the vicinity of the place of residence; ( o ) to serve or deliver any other direction, notice, order or requirement issued by the Director-General, a community relations officer or a tribunal under this Act. (2) The powers that a community relations officer may be authorised under section 13H to exercise, with the Director-General’s prior written approval, are all or any of the following: ( a ) to require any person, organisation or public agency to provide information on the identity and particulars of the owner of or any person or tenant residing in a place of residence in respect of which an act or omission causing unreasonable interference was reasonably suspected to have been committed; ( b ) to require any person to provide any other information in the possession or within the knowledge of that person that in the opinion of the Director-General is required to investigate an act or omission causing unreasonable interference that was reasonably suspected to have been committed; ( c ) to enter a place of residence at any reasonable time of the day, without the consent of the owner or occupier of the place of residence for the purpose of exercising any power under subsection (1)( e ) or ( f ). (3) A community relations officer may, in the exercise of his or her powers under subsection (1)( m )(i) and ( n ) and (2)( c ), be accompanied by a person authorised by the Director-General to render technical and other assistance. (4) The Director-General or a community relations officer may disclose or provide any information, statement, image, audio or visual recording, document or other evidence obtained under this section — ( a ) to any court in relation to or in support of any claim or application under this Act; or ( b ) for the purposes of exercising the functions or powers of the Director-General or a community relations officer under this Act. (5) To avoid doubt, it is not necessary to obtain the consent of the owner or occupier of the place of residence mentioned in subsection (1)( n ) in exercising the power in that provision to install detection and monitoring equipment in the vicinity of that place of residence. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13J
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13J
title: Powers of auxiliary community relations officers
content:
13J. —(1) The powers that an auxiliary community relations officer may be authorised under section 13H to exercise are all or any of the following: ( a ) to require a suspected individual to state the suspected individual’s name and residential address; ( b ) to advise a suspected individual to abate the act or omission causing unreasonable interference; ( c ) to photograph or film, or otherwise make an audio or visual recording in the place or the vicinity of the place where, or in respect of which, an act or omission causing unreasonable interference was committed or was reasonably suspected to have been committed, and any individual, thing, document or record in that place and to retain the photograph, film or recording; ( d ) to make a copy of and retain the copy of any document or record mentioned in paragraph ( c ); ( e ) to take statements from — (i) a suspected individual; (ii) any complainant against the suspected individual; or (iii) any other individual who may assist in the investigation of the complaint against the suspected individual; ( f ) to require any individual or complainant mentioned in paragraph ( e ) to make and sign a declaration of the truth of the statement which he or she makes; ( g ) to serve or deliver a written warning to cease any act or omission causing unreasonable interference; ( h ) to serve or deliver written advisories to residents to maintain neighbourly relations and community peace; ( i ) to accompany and assist a community relations officer in the exercise of the community relations officer’s powers under this Part, subject to the directions of the community relations officer; ( j ) to serve or deliver to a suspected individual, if he or she is alleged to have committed an offence, an offer of composition made by the Director-General or a person authorised by the Director-General; ( k ) to serve or deliver any other direction, notice, order or requirement issued by the Director-General, a community relations officer or a tribunal under this Act. (2) The powers that an auxiliary community relations officer may be authorised under section 13H to exercise, with the Director-General’s prior written approval, are all or any of the following: ( a ) to install detection and monitoring equipment in the vicinity of a place of residence without entering the place of residence and with the consent of the entity responsible for the vicinity of the place of residence; ( b ) to enter a place of residence at any reasonable time to install detection and monitoring equipment with the consent of the owner or occupier of the place of residence. (3) An auxiliary community relations officer may, in the exercise of his or her powers under subsection (2), be accompanied by a person authorised by the Director-General to render technical and other assistance. (4) The Director-General or an auxiliary community relations officer may disclose or provide any information, statement, image, audio or visual recording, document or other evidence obtained under this section — ( a ) to any court in relation to or in support of any claim or application under this Act; or ( b ) for the purposes of exercising the functions or powers of the Director-General or an auxiliary community relations officer under this Act. (5) To avoid doubt, it is not necessary to obtain the consent of the owner or occupier of the place of residence mentioned in subsection (2)( a ) in exercising the power in that provision to install detection and monitoring equipment in the vicinity of that place of residence. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13K
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13K
title: Discretion not to investigate or take further action
content:
13K. —(1) The Director-General or a community relations officer may dismiss any complaint relating to unreasonable interference without any investigation or further action, if the Director-General or the officer is satisfied that the complaint is trivial, frivolous or vexatious or not made in good faith. (2) The Director-General may in writing direct that a person be prohibited from making any further complaint if the Director-General is satisfied that the person had habitually and persistently, and without any reasonable ground, made trivial, frivolous or vexatious complaints relating to unreasonable interference. (3) In deciding whether to issue a direction against a person under subsection (2), the Director-General may consider all the circumstances of the case including whether any civil restraint order under section 31C, 31D or 31E has been made against the person. (4) Any person who without reasonable excuse fails to comply with a direction issued under subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000. (5) Without affecting subsections (1) and (2), the Director-General or a community relations officer may dismiss any complaint relating to unreasonable interference without any investigation or further action after considering the following factors: ( a ) the likelihood that an amicable resolution to the dispute may be achieved; ( b ) the availability and need to prioritise the resources available; ( c ) the degree of seriousness or severity of the alleged unreasonable interference. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] Division 4 &#x2014; Abatement orders


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13L
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13L
title: Powers to issue and enforce abatement orders
content:
13L. —(1) The Director-General may issue an abatement order in writing against any suspected individual or any other individual residing in the same place of residence as the suspected individual if — ( a ) the Director-General is satisfied after considering any complaint and the evidence and information obtained by the community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer under section 13I or 13J (as the case may be) that the suspected individual or another individual residing in the same place of residence was responsible for the act or omission causing unreasonable interference; ( b ) the suspected individual or another individual residing in the same place of residence was given a reasonable opportunity to make representations to the Director-General; and ( c ) the suspected individual or another individual residing in the same place of residence was previously issued a written warning to cease that act or omission causing unreasonable interference but failed to do so. (2) Despite subsection (1), where the Director-General — ( a ) has reasonable grounds to believe that the act or omission causing unreasonable interference mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) poses a serious and imminent threat or risk to the mental or physical health or welfare of other persons in the vicinity of the place of residence; and ( b ) is satisfied that it is impracticable in the circumstances of the particular case for the requirements in subsection (1)( b ) and ( c ) to be complied with, the Director-General may issue an abatement order in writing under subsection (1) without complying with subsection (1)( b ) and ( c ) except that a reasonable opportunity to make representations to the Director-General must be given immediately after the abatement order is issued. (3) An abatement order may for the purpose of abating the act or omission causing unreasonable interference — ( a ) require the individual specified in the abatement order to stop or to take any reasonable steps to stop any act specified in the order within a reasonable time specified in the order; ( b ) require the individual specified in the abatement order to take any reasonable steps to stop any act, specified in the order, by any other individual residing in the same place of residence within a reasonable time specified in the order; ( c ) require any other specified steps to be taken to abate the act or omission causing unreasonable interference; and ( d ) impose any conditions that the Director-General thinks fit. (4) The Director-General may vary or revoke any abatement order issued under subsection (1). (5) Any person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an abatement order within the time specified in the order shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) to a fine not exceeding $10,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; and ( b ) in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. (6) The Director-General may (even though proceedings for an offence under subsection (5) have not started) authorise in writing a community relations officer to exercise the powers set out in subsection (7) if the Director-General is satisfied that — ( a ) an individual has, without any reasonable excuse, failed (in whole or in part) to comply with an abatement order within the time specified in the order; ( b ) at least 2 written warnings have been given to the individual to comply with the order; and ( c ) in the case where any instrument or object was used to cause the unreasonable interference, the removal of the instrument or object will reduce the unreasonable interference. (7) The powers mentioned in subsection (6) are all or any of the following: ( a ) to enter a place of residence at any reasonable time of the day (with or without the consent of the owner or occupier of the place of residence) for the purpose of taking reasonable steps to abate or investigate the act or omission causing unreasonable interference; ( b ) to require an owner or occupier of the place of residence to produce and surrender any instrument or object suspected to have been used to cause the unreasonable interference; ( c ) to take reasonable steps, with or without the consent of the owner or occupier of the place of residence — (i) to abate or investigate the act or omission causing unreasonable interference in any appropriate manner; or (ii) to seize and remove any instrument or object suspected to have been used to cause the unreasonable interference; ( d ) to retain or dispose of, in accordance with regulations made under section 13Z, any instrument or object that has been seized or removed under paragraph ( c )(ii). (8) Despite subsection (6), where the Director-General — ( a ) has reasonable grounds to believe that the failure to comply with an abatement order mentioned in subsection (6)( a ) poses a serious and imminent threat or risk to the mental or physical health or welfare of other persons in the vicinity of the place of residence; and ( b ) is satisfied that it is impracticable in the circumstances of the particular case for the requirement in subsection (6)( b ) to be complied with, the Director-General may authorise in writing a community relations officer to exercise any of the powers set out in subsection (7) without complying with subsection (6)( b ). (9) An auxiliary community relations officer may accompany and assist a community relations officer in the exercise of the community relations officer’s powers under subsection (7), subject to the directions of the community relations officer. (10) To avoid doubt, any reasonable step taken under subsection (7) does not affect any proceedings for an offence under subsection (5) but may be taken into consideration by the court in those proceedings. (11) Where the abatement order under subsection (1) is issued to an individual who is not the owner of the place of residence in which that individual resides, the Director-General must cause a copy of the order to be given to the owner. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] Division 5 &#x2014; Referral for mediation


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13M
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13M
title: Referral for mediation by community relations officer, etc.
content:
13M. —(1) Despite any written law, the persons mentioned in subsection (2) may in writing direct all or any of the following persons to a Community Mediation Centre or to any other prescribed person or entity for mediation (called in this section a mediation entity), with or without the consent of the persons to be directed for mediation: ( a ) the individuals involved in a complaint or dispute involving alleged unreasonable interference with a neighbour’s enjoyment or use of the neighbour’s place of residence; ( b ) a landlord of the place of residence of an individual mentioned in paragraph ( a ). (2) The persons who may issue a direction under subsection (1) are — ( a ) a community relations officer so authorised under this Part; ( b ) where the complaint or dispute involves an allegation that a person who is a party to a settlement agreement breached the settlement agreement — a person authorised in writing by the mediation entity that administered the mediation where the settlement agreement was made; ( c ) a person authorised in writing by a mediation entity that administers a mediation under a direction issued under subsection (1); and ( d ) any of the following persons appointed in writing by the Minister to issue a direction under subsection (1) subject to any condition or limitation that the Minister may impose: (i) a public officer; (ii) an officer or employee of a statutory body. (3) The persons mentioned in subsection (2) may, in issuing a direction under subsection (1), direct all or any of the persons referred for mediation to attend (personally or by a representative permitted under section 14 of the Community Mediation Centres Act 1997 or under a prescribed written law) before a mediation entity — ( a ) at a time and place to be specified in the direction; or ( b ) in the case where the mediation is to be conducted by electronic communication, video conferencing or other electronic means, at a time to be specified in the direction and in accordance with the electronic means specified in the direction. (4) A direction issued under subsection (1) is final. (5) Without affecting section 30, a direction under subsection (1) must not be made with respect to a complaint or dispute involving alleged unreasonable interference with a neighbour’s enjoyment or use of the neighbour’s place of residence where — ( a ) an action on a claim under section 4 has been brought in any court; and ( b ) the subject of the claim is substantially the same as that of the complaint or dispute. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] Division 6 &#x2014; Offences


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13N
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13N
title: Obstructing community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer
content:
13N. —(1) Any person who without reasonable excuse — ( a ) refuses to give access to, or obstructs, hinders or delays; or ( b ) refuses to comply with any request, demand or order made or given by, a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer in the discharge of his or her duties under this Act shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. (2) However, it is not an offence under subsection (1) for any person to refuse to comply with any request, demand or order made or given by a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) who — ( a ) fails to declare his or her office; or ( b ) refuses to produce his or her identification card on demand being made by that person. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13O
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13O
title: Damaging, altering, etc., detection and monitoring equipment
content:
13O. Any person who without reasonable excuse — ( a ) damages or alters; or ( b ) obstructs or impairs the proper functioning of, any detection and monitoring equipment that has been installed in a place of residence or in the vicinity of a place of residence by a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer pursuant to his or her powers under section 13I or 13J shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13P
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13P
title: Offence of providing false information, etc.
content:
13P. —(1) If — ( a ) a person provides a document, or makes a statement (whether orally, in writing or any other way) or gives information, to the Director-General, a Director, a Deputy Director, a Senior Assistant Director, a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer; ( b ) the document, statement or information is false or misleading, or the statement or information omits any matter or thing without which the statement or information (as the case may be) is misleading; ( c ) the person knows, or ought reasonably to know, that the document is false or misleading, or that the statement or information is as described in paragraph ( b ); and ( d ) the document is provided, or the statement is made or the information is given, for or in connection with a question or request of the Director-General, a Director, a Deputy Director, a Senior Assistant Director, a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be) under this Act, the person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. (2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the document, statement or information is not false or misleading in a material particular, or if the statement or information did not omit any matter or thing without which the statement or information (as the case may be) would be misleading in a material particular. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13Q
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13Q
title: Impersonating community relations officer or auxiliary community relations officer
content:
13Q. —(1) An individual who represents himself or herself, by word or conduct to be a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer, when he or she is not a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer (as the case may be), shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,500 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. (2) However, it is a defence in any proceedings for an offence under subsection (1) where the accused proves, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused used or possessed the equipment or identification card issued under section 13E for the purposes of a public entertainment provided in compliance with the Public Entertainments Act 1958. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13R
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13R
title: Failure to comply with mediation direction
content:
13R. —(1) A person served a direction under section 13M(1) (called in this section a mediation direction) commits an offence if he or she does not attend the mediation (personally or by a representative) at the time specified in the direction. (2) A person ( A ) who attends a mediation (personally or by a representative) at a time specified in a mediation direction commits an offence if A or A ’s representative (as the case may be) withdraws from the mediation before the person conducting the mediation in accordance with that direction allows A or A ’s representative (as the case may be) to do so. (3) It is a defence for any person charged with an offence for contravening subsection (1) or (2) to prove that the person had a reasonable excuse for the contravention. (4) A person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) or (2) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,500. (5) In this section, “representative”, in relation to a person A who is served a mediation direction, means another person permitted, under section 14 of the Community Mediation Centres Act 1997 or under a prescribed written law, to represent A at the mediation. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] Division 7 &#x2014; Enforcement


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13S
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13S
title: Power to investigate offences under this Part
content:
13S. —(1) For the purpose of investigating any offence under this Part, the Director-General or a community relations officer may — ( a ) examine orally any person supposed to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case; and ( b ) by written order require any person within the limits of Singapore, who appears to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case, to attend before the Director-General or community relations officer. (2) The person mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) is bound to state truly the facts and circumstances with which the person is acquainted concerning the case except only that the person may decline to make, with regard to any fact or circumstance, a statement which would have a tendency to expose the person to a criminal charge or to penalty or forfeiture. (3) A statement made by any person examined under this section must — ( a ) be reduced to writing; ( b ) be read over to the person; ( c ) if the person does not understand English, be interpreted for the person in a language that the person understands; and ( d ) after correction, if necessary, be signed by the person. (4) If any person fails to attend before the Director-General or a community relations officer as required by a written order under subsection (1)( b ), the Director-General or community relations officer may report such failure to a Magistrate who may issue a warrant to secure the attendance of that person as required by the order. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13T
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13T
title: Notice to attend court
content:
13T. —(1) Where the Director-General or a community relations officer has reasonable grounds for believing that a person has committed an offence under this Part, the Director-General or community relations officer may, in lieu of applying to a court for a summons, serve upon that person a prescribed notice requiring that person to attend at the court described, at the hour and on the date specified in the notice. (2) A duplicate of the notice must be prepared by the Director-General or a community relations officer and, if so required by a court, produced to the court. (3) The notice may be served on the person alleged to have committed the offence in the same manner as the service of a summons under section 116 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010. (4) On an accused person appearing before a court pursuant to a notice under subsection (1), the court is to take cognizance of the offence alleged, and is to proceed as though the accused person were produced before it pursuant to section 153 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010. (5) If a person upon whom a notice has been served under subsection (1) fails to appear before a court in person or by counsel as required by that notice, the court may, if satisfied that the notice was duly served, issue a warrant for the arrest of the person unless, in the case of an offence which may be compounded, that person has before that date been permitted to compound the offence. (6) Upon a person arrested pursuant to a warrant issued under subsection (5) being produced before a court, the court is to proceed as though the person were produced before it pursuant to section 153 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010. (7) The Director-General or a community relations officer may, at any time before the date specified in the notice under subsection (1), cancel the notice. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13U
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13U
title: Composition of offences under this Part
content:
13U. —(1) The Director-General or a person authorised by the Director-General may compound any offence under this Part that is prescribed as a compoundable offence — ( a ) by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: (i) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; (ii) $2,000; and ( b ) by requiring the person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence to do, or to refrain from doing, such things as may be specified in an offer of composition (called conditions of composition) by the Director-General with the concurrence (general or specific) of the Public Prosecutor. (2) On payment of the sum of money and on full compliance with the conditions of composition, no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. (3) The Minister may make regulations to prescribe the offences that may be compounded under this section. (4) All sums collected under this section must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13V
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13V
title: Community Order for offences under this Part
content:
13V. Where a court convicts any person for an offence under this Part, the court has the power to make a community order under Part 17 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 despite any provision to the contrary in section 337(1)( h ) of that Code. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] Division 8 &#x2014; General


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13W
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13W
title: Appeal to Minister
content:
13W. —(1) A person who is aggrieved by an order issued under section 13L may, within 14 days after receiving the order, appeal in the prescribed manner to the Minister. (2) Despite any appeal made under subsection (1), the order appealed against takes effect and must be complied with unless otherwise provided in this Act or ordered by the Minister. (3) The Minister may, after considering the appeal — ( a ) dismiss or allow the appeal; ( b ) confirm, vary or revoke the order; or ( c ) impose such conditions as the Minister thinks fit. (4) The Minister may, in considering an appeal under this section, give the appellant an opportunity to make representations in writing. (5) The Minister’s decision on any appeal is final. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13X
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13X
title: Preservation of secrecy
content:
13X. —(1) An individual who is or has been — ( a ) a public officer; ( b ) an officer or employee of a statutory body; ( c ) a police officer or other officer of any law enforcement agency; ( d ) a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer; or ( e ) a contractor engaged by the Government or an employee of that contractor, must not disclose any information relating to the affairs of the Director-General, a Director, a Deputy Director or a Senior Assistant Director or of any other person which has been obtained by the individual in the performance of his or her duties or the exercise of his or her functions under this Act, except — ( f ) for the purposes of the performance of his or her duties or the exercise of his or her functions under this Act or other written law; ( g ) for the purpose of assisting any person (being a public officer, officer or employee of a statutory body or person exercising a public official function) who is responsible for administering or enforcing any written law, to administer or enforce that written law; ( h ) with the prior authorisation of the Minister; ( i ) where permitted or authorised under this Act; or ( j ) when lawfully required to do so by any court or where required or allowed to do so by the provisions of any written law. (2) Any individual who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. (3) Subject to this section, any monitoring data is to be used by the Director-General, a Director, a Deputy Director, a Senior Assistant Director, a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer only for the purposes of this Part and for the purposes of a claim or an application to a tribunal or court under this Act. (4) In this section, “monitoring data” means — ( a ) any photograph, image or audio or visual recording taken or captured by a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer pursuant to his or her powers under section 13I or 13J; or ( b ) any information and data recorded in any detection and monitoring equipment installed pursuant to section 13I or 13J. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13Y
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13Y
title: Protection from personal liability
content:
13Y. No liability shall lie against the Director-General, a Director, a Deputy Director, a Senior Assistant Director, a community relations officer, an auxiliary community relations officer or any other person authorised under this Act for anything which is done or intended to be done with reasonable care and in good faith in — ( a ) the exercise or purported exercise of any power under this Act; or ( b ) the performance or purported performance of any function under this Act. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13Z
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13Z
title: Regulations
content:
13Z. —(1) The Minister may make regulations for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Part and for any matter which is required under this Part to be prescribed. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Minister may make regulations for all or any of the following matters: ( a ) the fees to be paid in respect of any application under this Part and otherwise in connection with the administration of this Part, and the waiver, remission or refund (in whole or in part) of the fees; ( b ) the manner in which fees are to be paid; ( c ) the form, manner and procedure by which an application or a complaint relating to unreasonable interference is to be made to the Director-General, a community relations officer or an auxiliary community relations officer, and the persons who may make such applications or complaints; ( d ) to provide for the manner and procedure for the retention or disposal of any instrument or object mentioned in section 13L(7) including for the manner of disposal to be determined by the Director-General; ( e ) to provide for such saving, transitional and other consequential, incidental and supplemental provisions as are necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Part. (3) The powers conferred by this section do not extend to any matter for which Rules of Court may be made under section 32. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13ZA
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13ZA
title: Designation of persons to exercise Minister’s duties and powers
content:
13ZA. —(1) The Minister may designate any of the following persons to perform any of the duties or exercise any of the powers of the Minister under this Part (except for the powers under this section and section 13Z) as the Minister may specify: ( a ) the Second Minister (if any) for his or her Ministry; ( b ) any Minister of State, including a Senior Minister of State, for his or her Ministry; ( c ) any Parliamentary Secretary, including a Senior Parliamentary Secretary, to his or her Ministry. (2) Without affecting subsection (1), the Minister may designate any public officer in his or her Ministry not subordinate to the Director-General whose decision or order is appealed against, to hear and determine (in the Minister’s place) any appeal under section 13W. (3) A reference to the Minister in this Part (except for this section and section 13Z) includes a reference to a person designated under subsection (1). [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13ZB
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13ZB
title: Exemption
content:
13ZB. The Minister may, by order in the Gazette , exempt any person or class of persons from all or any of the provisions of this Part, either generally or in a particular case and subject to any condition that the Minister may impose. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s13ZC
chapter: PART 2A - COMMUNITY RELATIONS OFFICERS
section: 13ZC
title: Service of directions, orders or notices
content:
13ZC. —(1) A direction, order or notice issued under this Part must be served as described in this section. (2) The direction, order or notice may be served — ( a ) by giving it to the individual personally; ( b ) by sending it by post to the address specified by the individual for the service of the direction, order or notice or, if no address is so specified, the individual’s residential address or business address; ( c ) by leaving it at the individual’s residential address with an adult apparently resident there, or at the individual’s business address with an adult apparently employed there; ( d ) by affixing a copy of the direction, order or notice in a conspicuous place at the individual’s residential address or business address; or ( e ) by sending it by email to the individual’s last email address. (3) Service of the direction, order or notice takes effect — ( a ) if the direction, order or notice is sent by email, at the time that the email becomes capable of being retrieved by the person to whom it is sent; or ( b ) if the direction, order or notice is sent by post, 2 days after the day the direction, order or notice was posted (even if it is returned undelivered). (4) However, service of a direction, order or notice on an individual by email may be effected only with the individual’s prior written consent to service in that way. (5) This section does not apply to documents to be served in proceedings in court. (6) In this section — “business address” means the individual’s usual or last known place of business in Singapore; “last email address” means the last email address given by the individual to the person serving the direction, order or notice as the email address to serve a direction, order or notice; “residential address” means an individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 14
title: Community Disputes Resolution Tribunals
content:
14. —(1) For the purposes of this Act, the Presiding Judge of the State Courts may — ( a ) designate one or more District Courts as Community Disputes Resolution Tribunals; and [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] ( b ) designate so many District Judges, as may be necessary, as tribunal judges for the Community Disputes Resolution Tribunals. (2) A tribunal is to be presided over by a tribunal judge designated under subsection (1)( b ).


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 15
title: Jurisdiction, powers and duties of Registrar
content:
15. The Registrar is, subject to this Act and any other written law, to have such jurisdiction, powers and duties as may be prescribed by the Rules of Court.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 16
title: Application of State Courts Act 1970 and other written laws
content:
16. Subject to this Act and except as otherwise provided in any regulations made under section 33 — ( a ) the provisions of the State Courts Act 1970 apply to the Community Disputes Resolution Tribunals; ( b ) unless the context otherwise requires, any reference in any written law to a District Court or a State Court includes a reference to a Community Disputes Resolution Tribunal; and ( c ) unless the context otherwise requires, any reference in any written law to a District Judge or a judicial officer includes a reference to a tribunal judge. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 17
title: Jurisdiction of tribunal
content:
17. —(1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, a tribunal has jurisdiction only to hear and determine any claim under section 4. (2) Where an action brought by a claimant includes a claim or matter which is not within the tribunal’s jurisdiction under subsection (1) (called in this section the non‑relevant claim), the tribunal must dismiss the action in its entirety if — ( a ) the claimant does not first withdraw, discontinue or abandon the non‑relevant claim; or [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] ( b ) an application under section 20 is not first made to transfer the whole proceedings or the proceedings on the non‑relevant claim. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (3) Except where this Act expressly provides otherwise, the tribunal’s jurisdiction does not extend to a claim under section 4 — ( a ) which exceeds the prescribed limit; or ( b ) which is brought more than 2 years after the cause of action has accrued. (4) Where the amount of a claim exceeds the prescribed limit, the claimant may abandon the excess amount and thereafter — ( a ) the amount of the claim is deemed to be within the prescribed limit; ( b ) the tribunal has jurisdiction to hear and determine the claim; ( c ) the claimant may not obtain in the claim any remedy or relief, in respect of the action, the value of which exceeds the prescribed limit; and [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] ( d ) an order of the tribunal in relation to the claim will be in full discharge of all demands in respect of the claim. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (5) The prescribed limit, in relation to the jurisdiction of the tribunal, is $20,000 or such other amount as the Minister may, after consultation with the Chief Justice, substitute by order in the Gazette .


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 18
title: Exclusion of other jurisdictions
content:
18. —(1) Where an action on a claim (called in this section the firstmentioned proceedings) is commenced in a tribunal, no other civil proceedings relating to that claim (called in this section the second‑mentioned proceedings) may be commenced in any other court except — ( a ) where the second‑mentioned proceedings were commenced in that other court before the firstmentioned proceedings were commenced in the tribunal; or ( b ) where the claim before the tribunal is withdrawn, discontinued or abandoned, or is dismissed for lack of jurisdiction. (2) No action for a claim may be brought before a tribunal if civil proceedings relating to that claim are pending in or have been heard and determined by any other court.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 19
title: No division of claims
content:
19. A claim may not be split or divided and pursued in separate proceedings before a tribunal for the sole purpose of bringing the sum claimed in each of such proceedings within the jurisdiction of a tribunal.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 20
title: Transfer of claim, etc., from tribunal to court
content:
20. —(1) Where any claim, counterclaim or set-off and counterclaim in proceedings before a tribunal is or includes a claim or matter not within the tribunal’s jurisdiction (called in this section the non-relevant claim), the tribunal may, on its own motion or on the application of any party in the proceedings, order that the whole proceedings, or the proceedings on the non-relevant claim, be transferred to the appropriate court. (2) Where an order is made under subsection (1) and the tribunal gives judgment to the claimant in proceedings related to the claim or matter in which the tribunal has jurisdiction, enforcement of the judgment is to be stayed until the proceedings transferred to the appropriate court have been concluded, unless that court at any time orders otherwise. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 21
title: Costs in transferred cases
content:
21. Where the whole or any part of the proceedings are transferred pursuant to an order of court under section 20(1) — ( a ) the costs of the proceedings which are transferred (both before and after the transfer) are, subject to any order made by the court which ordered the transfer, to be in the discretion of the court to which those proceedings are transferred; and ( b ) the court to which those proceedings are transferred may make orders with respect to the costs and as to the scales on which the costs of the several parts of those proceedings are to be paid. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] Division 2 &#x2014; Proceedings before tribunal


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 22
title: Sittings in private, etc.
content:
22. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), all matters and proceedings in a tribunal are to be heard in private. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (2) A tribunal has the power to hear any matter or part of a matter in an open and public manner to which the public generally may have access, if the tribunal is satisfied that it is expedient in the interests of justice, or for other sufficient reason to do so. (3) A tribunal may, in any matter or proceeding or any part of it which is tried or held or to be tried or held before the tribunal, if satisfied that it is expedient in the interests of justice, public safety, public security or propriety, or for other sufficient reason to do so, order that any of the following, which is contained in any tribunal document or intended to be produced before the tribunal, be removed or be sufficiently redacted: ( a ) the name, address or photograph of any witness in that matter or proceeding; ( b ) any evidence or any other thing likely to lead to the identification of any such witness by any person other than a party to that matter or proceeding. (4) A tribunal may make an order under subsection (3) on its own motion or on the application of any party to the matter or proceeding before the tribunal. (5) A tribunal may, on its own motion or on the application of any party to a matter or proceeding before the tribunal, at any time order that no person is to — ( a ) publish the name, address or photograph of any witness in the matter or proceeding or any part of it tried or held or to be tried or held before the tribunal, or any evidence or any other thing likely to lead to the identification of any such witness; or ( b ) do any other act which is likely to lead to the identification of any such witness. (6) Any person who acts in contravention of any order under subsection (3) or (5) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 23
title: Evidence
content:
23. —(1) A tribunal is not to be bound by the rules of evidence but may inform itself on any matter in such manner as the tribunal thinks fit. (2) Evidence tendered to a tribunal by or on behalf of a party to any proceedings need not be given on oath but the tribunal may, at any stage of the proceedings, require that such evidence or any part of it be given on oath whether orally or in writing. (3) For the purposes of subsection (2), a tribunal judge is empowered to administer an oath. (4) A tribunal may require any written evidence given in the proceedings before the tribunal to be verified by statutory declaration.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 24
title: Enforcement of orders, etc.
content:
24. A decision, a direction or an order of a tribunal or the Registrar may be enforced in any manner which may be prescribed under this Act or by any other written law.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s25
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 25
title: No costs allowed except as provided in Act
content:
25. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, costs, other than disbursements, must not be granted to or awarded against any party to any proceedings before a tribunal or the Registrar. Division 3 &#x2014; Appeals from tribunal


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s26
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 26
title: Appeals from tribunal
content:
26. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), an appeal lies to the General Division of the High Court only against a decision, a direction or an order of a tribunal — ( a ) on any ground involving a question of law; ( b ) on the ground that the claim was outside the jurisdiction of the tribunal; ( c ) made under section 6(2) or (3) or 9(2); or ( d ) which is a final order. [40/2019] (2) An appeal lies to the General Division of the High Court under this section only if permission to appeal is given by a tribunal. [40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (3) An order of the tribunal giving or refusing permission under subsection (2) is final and is not subject to any appeal. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s27
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 27
title: Appeal not to operate as stay of execution or enforcement
content:
27. —(1) An appeal from a tribunal does not operate as a stay of execution or enforcement of a decision, a direction or an order (as the case may be) of the tribunal appealed from, unless the tribunal or the General Division of the High Court otherwise orders. [40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (2) An order of a stay of execution or enforcement may be subject to such conditions as to costs, payment into a tribunal or the General Division of the High Court, the giving of security or otherwise, as the tribunal or the General Division of the High Court thinks fit. [40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s28
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 28
title: Judgment or order of General Division of High Court to be final
content:
28. A judgment or an order of the General Division of the High Court, on an appeal under section 26, is final and is not subject to any appeal. [40/2019] Division 4 &#x2014; Miscellaneous


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s29
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 29
title: Right of audience
content:
29. —(1) Subject to this section, a party to proceedings before the Registrar or a tribunal must present his or her own case. (2) The following persons may present a case on behalf of a party to proceedings before the Registrar or a tribunal: ( a ) where the party is a minor and is, in the opinion of the Registrar or tribunal, unable to present his or her own case, the minor’s parent or guardian, or any other person as may be approved by the Registrar or tribunal (as the case may be); ( b ) where the party is not resident in Singapore and is unable to remain in Singapore until the hearing of the case, any other person who is duly authorised in writing by that party and who is approved by the Registrar or tribunal (as the case may be); ( c ) where the party who, in the opinion of the Registrar or tribunal (as the case may be), is unable to present his or her own case by reason of old age, illiteracy or infirmity of mind or body, any other person who is duly authorised in writing by that party or who is approved by the Registrar or tribunal (as the case may be); [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] ( d ) where the party is the Director-General, a public officer or any other person who is approved by the Registrar or tribunal, as the case may be. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] (3) Despite subsection (2), no party (other than the Director-General) to any proceedings before the Registrar or a tribunal may be represented by an advocate and solicitor unless — ( a ) all the parties to the proceedings otherwise agree to that party being represented by an advocate and solicitor; and ( b ) the Registrar or tribunal (as the case may be) grants permission. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] (4) Except as provided in subsection (2), no party to any proceedings before the Registrar or a tribunal may be represented by an agent, whether paid or otherwise. (5) Despite subsection (2), the Registrar or tribunal must, before approving any person referred to in that subsection to represent a party, be satisfied that the person has sufficient knowledge of the case and sufficient authority to bind that party whom the person represents.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s30
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 30
title: Referral of cases to Community Mediation Centre, etc.
content:
30. —(1) Despite any written law, the Registrar or a tribunal judge may refer a claim commenced in a tribunal to a Community Mediation Centre or to any other person for mediation, with or without the consent of the parties to the claim, if the Registrar or tribunal judge is satisfied that there is a reasonable prospect that the parties will be able to resolve the claim through mediation. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] (1A) In considering whether there is a reasonable prospect that the parties will be able to resolve the claim through mediation under subsection (1), the Registrar or tribunal judge is to consider whether the parties have previously attempted to resolve the matter through mediation. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] (2) The Registrar or tribunal judge may, in making a referral under subsection (1), order all or any of the parties to the claim to attend (personally or by a representative permitted under section 14 of the Community Mediation Centres Act 1997 or under a prescribed written law) before a mediator of a Community Mediation Centre or any other person — ( a ) at a time and place to be specified in the Registrar’s or tribunal judge’s order; and ( b ) in a case where the mediation is to be conducted by electronic communication, video conferencing or other electronic means, at a time to be specified in the Registrar’s or tribunal judge’s order and according to the electronic means specified in that order. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] (3) Any person who fails to comply with the Registrar’s or tribunal judge’s order made under subsection (2) commits contempt of court and action may be taken against that person under the Administration of Justice (Protection) Act 2016. [19/2016]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s31
chapter: PART 3 - COMMUNITY DISPUTES RESOLUTION TRIBUNALS
section: 31
title: Person not precluded from filing claim in court
content:
31. Subject to section 18, nothing in this Act is to be construed as precluding a person from commencing proceedings for a claim that is within the jurisdiction of a tribunal in any other court if that person elects to institute proceedings in that other court to hear and determine that claim.


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s32
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL
section: 32
title: Rules of Court
content:
32. —(1) The Rules Committee appointed under section 80(3) of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1969 may make Rules of Court to — ( a ) regulate and prescribe the procedure and practice to be followed in the tribunals and the Registry, including any procedure and practice to be followed in any proceedings or hearings (including mediation), and any matters incidental to or relating to any such procedure and practice; ( b ) regulate the enforcement of decisions, directions and orders of the tribunals and the Registrar; and ( c ) prescribe such matters as are required by this Act to be prescribed or as are necessary for carrying out the provisions of this Act. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Rules of Court may provide for the following: ( a ) what part of the business which may be transacted and the jurisdiction and powers which may be exercised by a tribunal judge may be exercised by the Registrar; ( b ) the form and content of documents to be used for the purposes under this Act, the service of documents and the giving of notices; ( c ) the manner and time within which any act, application, claim or appeal under this Act is to be done or made; ( d ) the functions, powers and duties of the tribunals, the Registrar and other officers including but not limited to — (i) the service of documents and giving of notices; (ii) the enlargement and abridgement of time for the doing of any act or taking any proceedings; and (iii) the conduct of proceedings; ( e ) the manner in and the time within which an application or a claim may be heard, and the circumstances and manner in which claims may be heard together; ( f ) the withdrawal and amendment of claims; ( g ) the summoning of witnesses and the payment of witnesses from public funds or otherwise; ( h ) the means by which particular facts may be proved, and the mode in which evidence of such facts may be given, in any proceedings or on any application in connection with or at any stage of any proceedings; ( i ) the commission of offences by, and the punishment of, persons who refuse to give evidence or obey a summons to witness; ( j ) the transfer of proceedings from a tribunal to a court; ( k ) to regulate the joinder of parties and to prescribe in what cases persons absent, but having an interest in the claim, are to be bound by any order made in that claim, and the circumstances in which orders may be made for the representation of absent persons by one or more parties to a cause or matter; ( l ) the circumstances in which a decision, a direction or an order of the Registrar or a tribunal may be set aside and the procedure for setting aside such decisions, directions or orders; ( m ) the circumstances in which a decision, a direction or an order of the Registrar may be appealed against and the procedure for appeals from the Registrar to a tribunal and from a tribunal to the General Division of the High Court; ( n ) the scales of allowances, costs and fees to be taken or paid to any party or witness in any proceedings in a tribunal or before the Registrar, the fees to be charged in respect of anything done or any service rendered under or by virtue of this Act, the circumstances in which costs may be awarded in any proceedings in a tribunal or before the Registrar and for regulating any matters relating to the costs of such proceedings. [40/2019] (3) The Rules of Court may, instead of providing for any matter, refer to any provision made or to be made for that matter by practice directions issued for the time being by the Registrar of the Supreme Court or the Registrar of the State Courts, as the case may be. (4) All Rules of Court made under this section are to be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette .


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s33
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL
section: 33
title: Regulations
content:
33. —(1) The Minister may make regulations for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act and for any matter which is required under this Act to be prescribed. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Minister may make regulations for all or any of the following matters: ( a ) the fees to be paid in respect of any application under this Act and otherwise in connection with the administration of this Act, and the waiver, remission or refund (in whole or in part) of the fees; ( b ) the manner in which fees are to be paid. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025] (3) The powers conferred by this section do not extend to any matter for which — ( a ) regulations may be made under section 13Z; and ( b ) Rules of Court may be made under section 32. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdra-2015
provision_ref: s34
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL
section: 34
title: Composition of offences
content:
34. —(1) A person authorised by the Minister may compound any offence under this Act (except Part 2A) that is prescribed as a compoundable offence — ( a ) by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: (i) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; (ii) $2,000; and ( b ) by requiring the person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence to do, or to refrain from doing, such things as may be specified in an offer of composition (called conditions of composition) by the authorised officer with the concurrence (general or specific) of the Public Prosecutor. (2) On payment of the sum of money and on full compliance with the conditions of composition, no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. (3) The Minister may make regulations to prescribe the offences that may be compounded under this section. (4) All sums collected under this section must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [Act 43 of 2024 wef 24/03/2025]


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s1
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 1
title: Short title
content:
1. —(1) This Act is the Civil Defence Shelter Act 1997. (2) Parts 4 and 5 do not come into operation except at the time and for the duration and in the manner provided in subsections (3) and (4). (3) Whenever it appears to the Minister that — ( a ) a Proclamation of Emergency by the President under Article 150 of the Constitution or a declaration of a state of civil defence emergency by the Minister under Part 12 of the Civil Defence Act 1986 is imminent; and ( b ) it is necessary or expedient to do so for the securing of public safety, the Minister may by order direct that all or any of the provisions of Parts 4 and 5 are to come into operation and the provisions of those Parts specified in the order are to come into operation and remain in operation for such period as may be specified in the order. (4) An order made under subsection (3) is not to be in force for a period exceeding 7 days from the commencement of the order unless it has been made with the approval of the President.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. —(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “authorised person” means any person authorised by the Commissioner in writing in accordance with this Act to carry out any duty or exercise any power under this Act or the regulations; “building” means any permanent building or tenement and includes — ( a ) any structure or erection of whatever kind or nature; and ( b ) any building to be erected within a stratum shown or specified in any strata subdivision plan submitted for approval under the Land Titles (Strata) Act 1967; “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Civil Defence appointed under section 6 of the Civil Defence Act 1986; “competent authority” means the competent authority appointed under section 5 of the Planning Act 1998; “flat” means a horizontal stratum of a building or part thereof, whether such stratum is on one or more levels or is partially or wholly below the surface of the ground, which is wholly and principally constructed, adapted or intended to be used as a complete and separate unit for private dwelling, but does not include any part of any building which is constructed, adapted or intended to be used as a hotel, hostel, dormitory or nursing home or for any other prescribed purposes; “Force” has the meaning given by the Civil Defence Act 1986; “house” means a building or any part thereof which is wholly and principally constructed, adapted or intended to be used for private dwelling, but does not include a flat or any building or part thereof which is constructed, adapted or intended to be used as a hotel, hostel, dormitory or nursing home or for any other prescribed purposes; “household shelter” means a shelter in a house or flat for the use, primarily, of the occupants of that house or flat and of persons ordinarily frequenting that house or flat, during a state of emergency; “improvised shelter” means any building or part thereof which has been designated by the Commissioner under section 7 as a shelter for the use of any person needing to take refuge therein during a state of emergency; “new building” means a building — ( a ) which is constructed on vacant land or in place of a building which has been demolished; and ( b ) the plans in respect of which are submitted to or lodged with the competent authority under the Planning Act 1998 on or after 1 May 1998; “new flat” means a flat comprised in a new building; “new house” means a house — ( a ) which is constructed on vacant land or in place of a building which has been demolished; and ( b ) the plans in respect of which are submitted to or lodged with the competent authority under the Planning Act 1998 on or after 1 May 1998; “non-residential building” means a building which is wholly or principally constructed, adapted or intended to be used for any purpose other than for private dwelling; “occupier” — ( a ) in relation to any building, means the person in occupation of the building or having the charge, management or control thereof; and ( b ) in relation to any part of any building different parts of which are occupied by different persons, means the person in occupation or having the charge, management or control of that part, whether on the person’s own account or as agent of another person; “owner” — ( a ) in relation to any building or part thereof, includes any mortgagee in possession and any person for the time being receiving the rent of the building or part thereof whether on the person’s own account or as agent or trustee or as receiver, or who would receive the rent if the building or part thereof were let to a tenant, and any person whose name is entered in the Valuation List prepared under section 10 of the Property Tax Act 1960 as the owner of the building or part thereof; ( b ) in relation to the common property of any building erected on land comprised in a strata subdivision plan approved by the competent authority, means the management corporation having control of the building; ( c ) in relation to the limited common property of any building erected on land comprised in a strata subdivision plan approved by the competent authority, means the subsidiary management corporation having control of that limited common property; and ( d ) in relation to the common property of any building comprising flats sold under Part 4 of the Housing and Development Act 1959, means the Town Council which is liable for the maintenance and management of that common property; “public shelter” means a shelter in any building or part thereof for the use of any person needing to take refuge therein during a state of emergency; “regulations” means regulations made under section 28; “shelter” means any part of any building which has been constructed or adapted in accordance with the specifications as a shelter in which a person may take refuge during a state of emergency, and includes a household shelter, a storey shelter, a public shelter and an improvised shelter; “specifications” — ( a ) means the specifications, technical codes and standards issued by the Commissioner under section 14; and ( b ) in relation to any building, house or flat in respect of which the Commissioner has modified the requirements of any of the specifications, means the specifications as so modified; “state of emergency” means the period when there is in force — ( a ) a Proclamation of Emergency issued by the President under Article 150 of the Constitution; or ( b ) a declaration of a state of civil defence emergency made by the Minister under Part 12 of the Civil Defence Act 1986; “storey shelter” means a shelter located on any storey of a building which is subdivided into flats for the use, primarily, of the occupants of, and of persons ordinarily frequenting, the flats on that storey of the building. [47/2004] (2) Any household shelter or storey shelter which has been provided in any house, flat or building (as the case may be) before 1 May 1998 with the approval of the Commissioner is deemed to be a household shelter or storey shelter provided under this Act. (3) The public shelters specified in the Schedule and any other public shelter which has been provided in any building before 1 May 1998 with the approval of the Commissioner are deemed to be public shelters provided under this Act.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - HOUSEHOLD AND STOREY SHELTERS
section: 3
title: Provision of household and storey shelters
content:
3. —(1) Every new house must be provided with a household shelter in accordance with the specifications. (2) Every new building which is to be subdivided into flats must be provided with — ( a ) a household shelter in accordance with the specifications in every flat in that building; or ( b ) in lieu of a household shelter being provided in every flat on any storey of the building, at least one storey shelter in accordance with the specifications on that storey of the building.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - HOUSEHOLD AND STOREY SHELTERS
section: 4
title: Duties in relation to household and storey shelters
content:
4. —(1) Where — ( a ) any house or flat is provided with a household shelter under this Act; or ( b ) any part of any building consists of a storey shelter provided under this Act, the owner or occupier of the house, flat, building or part thereof — ( c ) must not carry out or permit another person to carry out therein, any repair or alteration, or anything else, which is likely to damage or otherwise impair the efficient use of the household or storey shelter as such, except with the written permission of the Commissioner and subject to such conditions as the Commissioner thinks fit; ( d ) must maintain the household or storey shelter in accordance with the regulations and such other directions as the Commissioner may give from time to time; and ( e ) must carry out such works for the maintenance, alteration or improvement of the household or storey shelter or for the installation of any equipment in the household or storey shelter as the Commissioner may, from time to time, by writing require. (2) Any person who fails to comply with this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $250 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 3 - PUBLIC SHELTERS
section: 5
title: Provision of public shelters in non-residential buildings owned by statutory boards
content:
5. The Commissioner may require any statutory board to provide a public shelter in accordance with the specifications in any new non‑residential building which is owned by the statutory board and the statutory board must comply with the Commissioner’s requirement.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 3 - PUBLIC SHELTERS
section: 6
title: Duties in relation to public shelters
content:
6. —(1) Where any part of a building consists of a public shelter provided under this Act, the owner or occupier of the building or part thereof — ( a ) must not carry out or permit another person to carry out therein, any repair or alteration, or anything else, which is likely to damage or otherwise impair the efficient use of the public shelter as such, except with the written permission of the Commissioner and subject to such conditions as the Commissioner thinks fit; ( b ) must maintain the public shelter in accordance with the regulations and such other directions as the Commissioner may give from time to time; and ( c ) must carry out such works for the maintenance, alteration or improvement of the public shelter or for the installation of any equipment in the public shelter as the Commissioner may, from time to time, by writing require. (2) Any person who fails to comply with this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $500 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 4 - IMPROVISED SHELTERS
section: 7
title: Commissioner may designate part of building as improvised shelter
content:
7. —(1) If, during the period in which this Part is in operation, the Commissioner is satisfied that any part of any building is suitable for use as a shelter, the Commissioner may designate that part of the building as an improvised shelter and must inform the owner or occupier of the building or part of the building of the designation. (2) Any part of any building which has been designated by the Commissioner as an improvised shelter pursuant to subsection (1) ceases to be an improvised shelter when this Part ceases to be in operation, unless the designation is sooner revoked by the Commissioner.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 4 - IMPROVISED SHELTERS
section: 8
title: Duties in relation to improvised shelters
content:
8. —(1) Where any part of any building has been designated as an improvised shelter pursuant to section 7, the owner or occupier of the building or part thereof — ( a ) must not carry out or permit another person to carry out therein, any repair or alteration, or anything else, which is likely to damage or otherwise impair the efficient use of the improvised shelter as such, except with the written permission of the Commissioner and subject to such conditions as the Commissioner thinks fit; ( b ) must maintain the improvised shelter in accordance with the regulations and such other directions as the Commissioner may give from time to time; and ( c ) must carry out such works for the maintenance, alteration or improvement of the improvised shelter or for the installation of any equipment in the improvised shelter as the Commissioner may, from time to time, by writing require. (2) Any person who fails to comply with this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $500 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 5 - USE OF SHELTERS DURING STATE OF EMERGENCY
section: 9
title: Preparatory works for occupation of shelters
content:
9. —(1) The Commissioner may, during the period when this Part is in operation, serve a notice on the owner or occupier of — ( a ) any house or flat which is provided with a household shelter under this Act; and ( b ) any part of any building which — (i) consists of a storey shelter or public shelter provided under this Act; or (ii) has been designated as an improvised shelter pursuant to section 7, requiring the owner or occupier within the period specified in the notice to prepare the household shelter, storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter (as the case may be) for occupation by persons needing to take refuge in the shelter during a state of emergency. (2) Any person who fails to comply with a notice served on the person under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $500 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 5 - USE OF SHELTERS DURING STATE OF EMERGENCY
section: 10
title: Entry into shelters during operation of this Part
content:
10. —(1) Where pursuant to section 9 a notice is served on the owner or occupier of any part of any building which consists of a storey shelter, a public shelter or an improvised shelter and the owner or occupier fails to comply with any of the requirements of the notice within the time specified in the notice, the Commissioner or an authorised person may — ( a ) enter that part of the building which consists of the storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter (as the case may be) and carry out or cause to be carried out in relation to the shelter such acts or works (including the seizure and removal of any property) as may be necessary to prepare the shelter for occupation by persons needing to take refuge in the shelter during a state of emergency; and ( b ) recover any costs and expenses incurred by doing the acts or works mentioned in paragraph ( a ) from the owner or occupier. (2) The Government shall not be liable for any loss of or damage to any property seized or removed by the Commissioner or authorised person in exercise of the powers under subsection (1).


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 5 - USE OF SHELTERS DURING STATE OF EMERGENCY
section: 11
title: Duties of owner or occupier of part of building which consists of shelter during state of emergency
content:
11. —(1) The owner or occupier of any part of any building which consists of a storey shelter, a public shelter or an improvised shelter is bound, during the periods required or designated by the Minister — ( a ) to permit any person to enter and take refuge in the storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter, as the case may be; and ( b ) to permit any person authorised by the Commissioner to occupy or use the storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter for any purpose the Commissioner may require. (2) Subject to subsection (3), any person who fails to comply with subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $500 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. (3) It is a defence to a prosecution for an offence under subsection (2) for the person charged with the offence to prove to the satisfaction of the court that the person took all reasonable steps to ensure that all persons who needed to enter and take refuge in the storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter (as the case may be) were allowed to do so.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 12
title: Permitted uses of shelter
content:
12. —(1) The owner or occupier of any part of a building which consists of a shelter may, at any time other than the period when an order made under section 1(3) is in operation, use such part of the building for such purposes as may be — ( a ) prescribed by the regulations; ( b ) approved by the Commissioner in writing; or ( c ) allowed under any other written law. (2) A person must not change the use of any part of any building which consists of a shelter without the prior written approval of the Commissioner. (3) Any person who fails to comply with this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $500 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 13
title: Commissioner to administer Act and may delegate authority
content:
13. —(1) The Commissioner is responsible for the administration of this Act. (2) Without affecting subsection (1), the powers conferred and the duties imposed on the Commissioner under this Act or the regulations may generally or specifically be exercised and carried out by any person generally or specifically authorised by name or office by the Commissioner.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 14
title: Specifications for construction of shelters
content:
14. The Commissioner may — ( a ) issue or approve and, from time to time, review and amend the specifications, technical codes and standards relating to the design, construction and maintenance of shelters to be provided under this Act and the equipment to be installed in the shelters; and ( b ) if circumstances so require, modify, subject to such conditions as the Commissioner may impose, the requirements of any of the specifications in respect of any building, house or flat in which a shelter is to be provided under this Act.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 15
title: Powers of entry
content:
15. —(1) The Commissioner or any authorised person on producing, if so required, evidence of his or her authority has a right to enter and inspect, at all reasonable hours — ( a ) any building or part thereof for the purpose of ascertaining whether any part of the building is suitable or required for use as an improvised shelter; ( b ) any building or part thereof in which a shelter is being constructed for the purpose of ascertaining whether there is or has been any contravention of any of the provisions of this Act, the regulations or any specifications; and ( c ) any shelter for the purpose of — (i) ascertaining whether there is or has been any contravention of any of the provisions of this Act or the regulations; (ii) ensuring that the shelter is suitable for use as such; or (iii) performing the duties or exercising the powers of the Commissioner under this Act, the regulations or any other written law. (2) For the purpose of subsection (1)( a ), the Commissioner or authorised person may require the owner or occupier of the building or part thereof being inspected to — ( a ) produce to the Commissioner or authorised person for inspection; or ( b ) supply the Commissioner or authorised person with copies of, any plans, records and other documents relating to the building or part thereof being inspected as may be in the possession, custody or control of the owner or occupier, either forthwith or at such time and place as may be specified by the Commissioner or authorised person. (3) The Commissioner or any authorised person must not exercise the right of entry conferred by subsection (1)( a ) unless at least 24 hours’ notice of the intended entry has been given to the owner or occupier of the building or part thereof to be inspected.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 16
title: Authorised persons may make forcible entry
content:
16. —(1) When any storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter liable to inspection under section 15 is closed, the owner or occupier of the building or part thereof which consists of the storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter must, on demand by the Commissioner or any authorised person, allow the Commissioner or authorised person free entry to the shelter and afford all reasonable facilities for a search in the shelter. (2) If entry to the storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter cannot be obtained, the Commissioner or authorised person may — ( a ) break open any outer or inner door or window leading to the storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter; ( b ) forcibly enter the storey shelter, public shelter or improvised shelter and every part of the shelter; or ( c ) remove by force any obstruction to such entry or search.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 17
title: Furnishing of information
content:
17. —(1) Where any person appears to the Commissioner to be acquainted with the circumstances of any case which is under investigation, the Commissioner may by notice require such person within such time as may be specified in the notice to furnish the Commissioner with such information relating to that case as is within that person’s knowledge or possession. (2) Any person who fails to comply with any notice under subsection (1) or who furnishes any information which the person knows or has reason to believe is false or misleading shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $250 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 18
title: Obstructing authorised persons in execution of duty
content:
18. Any person who — ( a ) refuses the Commissioner or any authorised person access to any building or part thereof or otherwise hinders the Commissioner or authorised person in the performance of his or her duty; or ( b ) neglects to give any information which is reasonably required of the person and which is in the person’s power to give or which the person is required by this Act or the regulations to give, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 19
title: Service of notices, etc.
content:
19. —(1) Any notice, order or document required or authorised by this Act or the regulations to be served on any person may be served on that person — ( a ) by delivering it personally to that person; ( b ) by delivering it at the usual or last known place of residence, business or employment of that person to some adult member or employee of that person’s family or household or to some adult person who is apparently in charge of or is employed at the usual or last known place of business or employment of the person to be served; ( c ) by sending it by registered post addressed to that person at that person’s usual or last known place of residence, business or employment; or ( d ) by affixing it to some conspicuous part of the building or part thereof of which that person is the owner or occupier. (2) Without affecting subsection (1), any notice, order or document required or authorised by this Act or the regulations to be served on any person during the period when an order made under section 1(3) is in operation may be served on that person — ( a ) by publishing it in the daily newspapers circulating in Singapore in all the official languages and in the Gazette ; ( b ) by broadcasting it over the radio and television in the prescribed manner; ( c ) by audible signals given in the prescribed manner over a public-address system or through a siren where such signals are audible from the usual or last known place of residence, business or employment of the person to be served; ( d ) by reading the contents of the notice, order or document over the telephone to that person; ( e ) by reading the contents of the notice, order or document over the telephone to some adult member or employee of that person’s family or household; or ( f ) by sending it by fax, telex or any other prescribed means of telecommunication to the person to be served at the usual or last known place of residence, business or employment of that person where there is an acknowledgment by electronic or any other means to the effect that the order or notice has been received at that place. (3) Where a notice, order or document is served on any person pursuant to — ( a ) subsection (1)( b ), it is — (i) presumed, until the contrary is proved, to have been conveyed or read to the person to whom it applies at the time of delivery; and (ii) deemed to have been conveyed or read to the person to whom it applies on the expiry of 6 hours from the time of delivery; ( b ) subsection (1)( c ), it is deemed to have been received and read by the person to whom it applies on the expiry of 48 hours from the time at which it was delivered to the post office for despatch; ( c ) subsection (1)( d ), it is deemed to have been received and read by the person to whom it applies on the expiry of 24 hours from the time at which it was affixed to the building or part thereof; ( d ) subsection (2)( a ), it is deemed to have been read by the person to whom it applies by noon on the day following the date of publication; ( e ) subsection (2)( b ) or ( c ), it is deemed to have been seen or heard by the person to whom it applies on the expiry of 6 hours from the commencement of the first broadcast or audible signal, as the case may be; ( f ) subsection (2)( e ), it is — (i) presumed, until the contrary is proved, to have been conveyed to the person to whom it applies at the time of the telephone conversation; and (ii) deemed to have been conveyed to the person to whom it applies on the expiry of 6 hours from the time of the telephone conversation; or ( g ) subsection (2)( f ), it is — (i) presumed, until the contrary is proved, to have been received and read or heard by the person to whom it applies at the time of the first transmission; and (ii) deemed to have been received and read or heard by the person to whom it applies on the expiry of 6 hours from the time of the first transmission. (4) Any notice, order or document required or authorised by this Act or the regulations to be served on the owner or occupier of any building or part thereof is deemed to be properly addressed if addressed by the description of the “owner” or “occupier” of the building or part thereof without further name or description. (5) Any notice, order or document required or authorised by this Act or the regulations to be served on any person may be issued in such form as the Commissioner may determine. (6) Where any such notice, order or document requires authentication, the signature of the Commissioner or an authorised person or an official facsimile of the signature appended to the notice, order or document is sufficient authentication.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 20
title: Inaccuracies in documents
content:
20. —(1) No misnomer or inaccurate description of any person or place named or described in any document prepared, issued or served under, by virtue of or for the purposes of this Act or the regulations affects, in any way, the operation of this Act or the regulations as respects that person or place if that person or place is so designated in the document as to be identifiable. (2) No proceedings taken under or by virtue of this Act or the regulations are to be invalid for want of form.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 21
title: Immunity from suit
content:
21. No suit or other legal proceedings shall lie against the Government, the Commissioner or any authorised person or public officer or any other person acting under the direction of the Commissioner or an authorised person or public officer for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done in the execution or purported execution of this Act or the regulations.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 22
title: Jurisdiction of Courts
content:
22. Despite the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, a District Court or a Magistrate’s Court has jurisdiction to hear and determine all offences under this Act or the regulations and has power to impose the full penalty or punishment in respect of an offence under this Act or the regulations.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 23
title: Conduct of prosecutions
content:
23. Proceedings in respect of any offence under this Act or the regulations may, with the authorisation of the Public Prosecutor, be conducted by any officer of the Force or any other person authorised in writing in that behalf by the Commissioner. [15/2010]


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 24
title: Evidence
content:
24. —(1) The contents of any document prepared, issued or served under, by virtue of or for the purposes of this Act or the regulations are, until the contrary is proved, presumed to be correct. (2) All records and other documents required by this Act or the regulations to be kept by the Commissioner are deemed to be public documents. (3) A copy of or extract from any record or document mentioned in subsection (2) that is — ( a ) certified by the officer responsible for the custody of the record or document to be a true copy or extract; and ( b ) subscribed by that officer with his or her name and official title, is admissible in evidence as proof of its contents. (4) A certificate purporting to be under the hand of the Commissioner and specifying the costs and expenses or arrears as due and payable by any person is prima facie evidence of the facts certified therein and of the signature of the Commissioner.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s25
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 25
title: Offence by body corporate
content:
25. Where an offence under this Act or the regulations has been committed by a body corporate, a partnership or an unincorporated association of persons, any person who at the time of the commission of the offence was a director, manager, partner, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association (as the case may be), or was purporting to act in any such capacity shall be guilty of that offence unless the person proves that — ( a ) the offence was committed without his or her consent or connivance; and ( b ) the person had exercised all such diligence to prevent the commission of the offence as he or she ought to have exercised having regard to the nature of his or her functions in that capacity and to all the circumstances.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s26
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 26
title: Composition of offences
content:
26. —(1) The Commissioner may compound any offence under this Act or the regulations that is prescribed as a compoundable offence by collecting from the person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding $500. (2) All sums received under subsection (1) must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s27
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 27
title: Exemption
content:
27. The Minister may, by order either generally or in any particular case, and subject to such conditions as the Minister may impose, exempt any person or building or part thereof from all or any of the provisions of this Act or the regulations.


document_id: cdsa-1997
provision_ref: s28
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 28
title: Regulations
content:
28. —(1) The Minister may make regulations for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act as the Minister considers necessary and for any matter which is required under this Act to be prescribed and, in particular, the Minister may make regulations — ( a ) to regulate and control the use and maintenance of shelters during a state of emergency and the conduct of persons taking refuge in them; ( b ) to regulate and control the use and maintenance of shelters when there is no state of emergency; ( c ) to provide for the inspection of shelters; ( d ) to prescribe the time and manner for making any application under this Act; ( e ) to prescribe the fees and charges which may be levied under this Act or the regulations; ( f ) to prescribe the forms for use in connection with this Act or the regulations; ( g ) to prescribe the offences that may be compounded under section 26; and ( h ) to prescribe any other matter which is required to be prescribed for the purposes of this Act. (2) The Minister may, in making any regulations under subsection (1), provide that any contravention or failure to comply with any of the provisions of the regulations shall be an offence punishable with a fine not exceeding $10,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or with both.


