# legal_provisions

document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s42
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 42
title: Penalty for obstructing Agency in carrying out its duties
content:
42. Any person who at any time hinders or obstructs the Agency or any officer, employee or agent of the Agency acting in the discharge of its or his or her duties under this Act shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s43
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 43
title: False or misleading information, statement or document
content:
43. —(1) Any person who — ( a ) provides information to the Agency or any officer or employee in connection with any function or duty of the Agency under this Act which is false or misleading in a material particular; ( b ) obtains payment from the Agency of any incentive, grant or loan under this Act or any other written law by means of any false or misleading statement or any document that is false or misleading in any particular; or ( c ) intentionally alters, suppresses or destroys any document or information which the person is required by the Agency under section 41 to furnish, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [20/2016] (2) To avoid doubt, it is not a defence in any proceeding for an offence under subsection (1)( a ) that the accused did not obtain any incentive, grant or loan from the Agency. [20/2016]


document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s44
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 44
title: Preservation of secrecy
content:
44. —(1) Except for the purpose of the performance of his or her duties or the exercise of his or her functions or when lawfully required to do so by any court or where required or allowed by the provisions of any written law, a person who is or has been — ( a ) a member, an officer, an employee or an agent of the Agency; or ( b ) a member of a committee of the Agency, must not disclose any information relating to the affairs of the Agency or of any other person which has been obtained by him or her in the performance of his or her duties or the exercise of his or her functions. [5/2018] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s45
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 45
title: Offences by corporations
content:
45. —(1) Where, in a proceeding for an offence under this Act, it is necessary to prove the state of mind of a corporation in relation to a particular conduct, evidence that — ( a ) an officer, employee or agent of the corporation engaged in that conduct within the scope of his or her actual or apparent authority; and ( b ) the officer, employee or agent had that state of mind, is evidence that the corporation had that state of mind. [20/2016] (2) Where a corporation commits an offence under this Act, a person — ( a ) who is — (i) an officer of the corporation, or a member of a corporation whose affairs are managed by its members; or (ii) an individual who is involved in the management of the corporation and is in a position to influence the conduct of the corporation in relation to the commission of the offence; and ( b ) who — (i) consented or connived, or conspired with others, to effect the commission of the offence; (ii) is in any other way, whether by act or omission, knowingly concerned in, or is party to, the commission of the offence by the corporation; or (iii) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the offence by the corporation (or an offence of the same type) would be or is being committed, and failed to take all reasonable steps to prevent or stop the commission of that offence, shall be guilty of the same offence as is the corporation, and shall be liable on conviction to be punished accordingly. [20/2016] (3) A person mentioned in subsection (2) may rely on a defence that would be available to the corporation if it were charged with the offence with which the person is charged and, in doing so, the person bears the same burden of proof that the corporation would bear. [20/2016] (4) To avoid doubt, this section does not affect the application of — ( a ) Chapters 5 and 5A of the Penal Code 1871; or ( b ) the Evidence Act 1893 or any other law or practice regarding the admissibility of evidence. [20/2016] (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) also does not affect the liability of the corporation for an offence under this Act, and applies whether or not the corporation is convicted of the offence. [20/2016] (6) In this section — “corporation” includes a limited liability partnership within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; “officer”, in relation to a corporation, means any director, partner, chief executive, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the corporation, and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “state of mind” of a person includes — ( a ) the knowledge, intention, opinion, belief or purpose of the person; and ( b ) the person’s reasons for the intention, opinion, belief or purpose. [20/2016]


document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s45A
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 45A
title: Offences by unincorporated associations or partnerships
content:
45A. —(1) Where, in a proceeding for an offence under this Act, it is necessary to prove the state of mind of an unincorporated association or a partnership in relation to a particular conduct, evidence that — ( a ) an employee or agent of the unincorporated association or the partnership engaged in that conduct within the scope of his or her actual or apparent authority; and ( b ) the employee or agent had that state of mind, is evidence that the unincorporated association or partnership had that state of mind. [20/2016] (2) Where an unincorporated association or a partnership commits an offence under this Act, a person — ( a ) who is — (i) an officer of the unincorporated association or a member of its governing body; (ii) a partner in the partnership; or (iii) an individual who is involved in the management of the unincorporated association or partnership and who is in a position to influence the conduct of the unincorporated association or partnership (as the case may be) in relation to the commission of the offence; and ( b ) who — (i) consented or connived, or conspired with others, to effect the commission of the offence; (ii) is in any other way, whether by act or omission, knowingly concerned in, or is party to, the commission of the offence by the unincorporated association or partnership; or (iii) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the offence by the unincorporated association or partnership (or an offence of the same type) would be or is being committed, and failed to take all reasonable steps to prevent or stop the commission of that offence, shall be guilty of the same offence as is the unincorporated association or partnership (as the case may be), and shall be liable on conviction to be punished accordingly. [20/2016] (3) A person mentioned in subsection (2) may rely on a defence that would be available to the unincorporated association or partnership if it were charged with the offence with which the person is charged and, in doing so, the person bears the same burden of proof that the unincorporated association or partnership would bear. [20/2016] (4) To avoid doubt, this section does not affect the application of — ( a ) Chapters 5 and 5A of the Penal Code 1871; or ( b ) the Evidence Act 1893 or any other law or practice regarding the admissibility of evidence. [20/2016] (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) also does not affect the liability of an unincorporated association or a partnership for an offence under this Act, and applies whether or not the unincorporated association or partnership is convicted of the offence. [20/2016] (6) In this section — “officer”, in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary, or any member of the committee of the unincorporated association, and includes — ( a ) any person holding a position analogous to that of president, secretary or member of a committee of the unincorporated association; and ( b ) any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner; “state of mind” of a person includes — ( a ) the knowledge, intention, opinion, belief or purpose of the person; and ( b ) the person’s reasons for the intention, opinion, belief or purpose. [20/2016]


document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s46
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 46
title: Jurisdiction of courts
content:
46. Despite any provision to the contrary in the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, a District Court and a Magistrate’s Court have jurisdiction to try any offence under this Act and have power to impose the full penalty or punishment in respect of the offence.


document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s47
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 47
title: Evidence
content:
47. —(1) Subject to subsection (3), a document or certificate purporting to be a report under the hand of the chief executive or any officer authorised by the chief executive upon any matter or thing in connection with the administration or enforcement of this Act, or with an investigation carried out under this Act, is admissible as evidence in any proceedings under this Act and is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in the document or certificate. (2) For the purposes of this section, a document purporting to be a certificate mentioned in subsection (1) on its production by the prosecution is, until the contrary is proved, deemed to be such a certificate. (3) A certificate mentioned in subsection (1) shall not be received in evidence under that subsection unless the person charged has been given — ( a ) a copy of the certificate; and ( b ) notice of the intention of the prosecution to produce the certificate as evidence in the proceedings, at least 10 clear days before the commencement of the proceedings. (4) Where a certificate of the chief executive or any officer authorised by the chief executive is admitted in evidence under subsection (1), the person charged may require the chief executive or such officer to be called as a witness for the prosecution and be cross‑examined as if he or she had given evidence of the matters stated in the certificate.


document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s48
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 48
title: Composition of offences
content:
48. —(1) The chief executive, or an employee of the Agency authorised in writing by the Agency, may compound any offence under this Act that is prescribed under subsection (4) as a compoundable offence by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: ( a ) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; ( b ) $2,000. [20/2016] (2) On payment of the sum of money, no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. (3) All sums collected under this section must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [20/2016] (4) The Agency may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations to prescribe the offences that may be compounded and the method and procedure by which those offences may be compounded.


document_id: wsaa-2003
provision_ref: s49
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 49
title: Regulations
content:
49. —(1) The Agency may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations for all or any of the following purposes: ( a ) regulating the proceedings of the Agency or of the committees of the Agency, to the extent not inconsistent with the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018; ( b ) prescribing the fees and charges for the purposes of this Act; ( c ) prescribing the form and duration of certificates and accreditation, certification marks for use in relation to any function of the Agency, the terms and conditions upon which and the circumstances in which — (i) the certificates may be granted, suspended or cancelled; or (ii) the accreditation, certification and inspection marks may be affixed, used or removed, and the fees payable in respect thereof; ( d ) prescribing any matter which is required or permitted to be prescribed by this Act, or which may be necessary or convenient to be prescribed to give effect to the provisions of this Act. [5/2018] (2) Regulations made under subsection (1) may provide that a contravention of those regulations shall be an offence and shall be punishable with a fine not exceeding $10,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or with both and, in the case of a continuing offence, with a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Application of Act
content:
2. Except as otherwise provided in this Act (but not the regulations), the provisions of this Act apply to all workplaces. [18/2011]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 3
title: Application of Act to Government
content:
3. —(1) Except as provided in subsection (2), this Act binds the Government and applies to — ( a ) any workplace wholly or partly owned or occupied by the Government; and ( b ) any premises in which any building operation or any work of engineering construction is carried on by or on behalf of the Government. (2) Nothing in this Act renders the Government liable to prosecution for an offence. (3) To avoid doubt, a person is not immune from prosecution for any offence under this Act by reason that the person is engaged to provide services to the Government.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - INTERPRETATION
section: 4
title: General interpretation
content:
4. —(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “accredited training provider” means a training provider accredited by the Commissioner to provide safety and health training courses for the purposes of section 31; “air receiver” means — ( a ) any vessel (other than a pipe or coil or an accessory, a fitting or part of a compressor) for containing compressed air and connected with an air compressing plant; ( b ) any fixed vessel for containing compressed air and used for the purpose of starting an internal combustion engine; ( c ) any blast air bottle; or ( d ) any vessel in which any substance in the form of solid or liquid is stored and from which it is forced by compressed air; “approved code of practice” means any code of practice issued or approved under section 40B, and includes any such code of practice as amended from time to time under that section; “at work” means — ( a ) in relation to an employee, all times when the employee is performing work in connection with any trade, business, profession or undertaking carried on by his or her employer, wherever that work is carried out; ( aa ) in relation to a platform worker, all times when the platform worker is providing any platform service for a platform operator, wherever the platform service is provided; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] ( b ) in relation to a self-employed person, all times when the person is performing work as a self-employed person, wherever the work is carried out; and ( c ) in any other case, all times when the person is performing work at the direction of the other person who engaged him or her, wherever the work is carried out; “authorised examiner” means any person approved by the Commissioner under section 33 for the purpose of carrying out any prescribed examination or test of any — ( a ) hoist and lift; ( b ) lifting gear; ( c ) lifting appliance or lifting machine; ( d ) steam boiler; ( e ) steam receiver; ( f ) air receiver; ( g ) refrigerating plant pressure receiver; ( h ) pressure vessel; or ( i ) any other machinery required by this Act to be examined or tested by an authorised examiner; “bodily injury” includes injury to health, the contraction of a disease, and the aggravation, acceleration or recurrence of any bodily injury or disease; “building” includes — ( a ) the whole or any part of any house or any other structure, whether used for the purpose of human habitation or otherwise; and ( b ) any structure, support or foundation connected to the house or structure mentioned in paragraph ( a ); “building operation” means — ( a ) the construction, structural alteration, repair or maintenance of a building (including the rewiring of any electrical installation, the replacement of any lift, air conditioning plant and ancillary ducting of a building, and the repointing, redecoration and external cleaning of the structure); ( b ) the demolition of a building; or ( c ) the preparation of a site for, and the laying of foundation of, an intended building, but does not include any operation which is a work of engineering construction; “class or description”, in relation to workplaces, includes a group of workplaces described by reference to locality; “Commissioner” means the Commissioner for Workplace Safety and Health appointed under section 7; “contract of service” means any agreement, whether oral or in writing, express or implied, whereby any person agrees to employ any other person as an employee and that other person agrees to serve as the person’s employee, and includes a contract of apprenticeship; “contractor” — ( a ) means a person engaged by another person (called in this Act the principal) otherwise than under a contract of service — (i) to supply any labour for gain or reward; or (ii) to do any work for gain or reward, in connection with any trade, business, profession or undertaking carried on by the principal; but ( b ) does not include a platform worker who provides a platform service for a platform operator; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “Council” means the Workplace Safety and Health Council established under section 39; “dangerous occurrence” means any occurrence which is specified in the First Schedule; “Deputy Commissioner” means a Deputy Commissioner for Workplace Safety and Health appointed under section 7; “electrical installation” means any cable, wire, fitting, accessory, apparatus or other device used for or for purposes incidental to the conveyance, control or use of electricity; “employ” means to employ the service of any person to do any work under a contract of service, with or without remuneration; “gas” includes any gas in its gaseous or liquid state; “gas plant” — ( a ) means any plant, apparatus or machine for the manufacture or storage of any gas; and ( b ) includes pipes and appliances used in carrying any gas to the place where the gas is to be used; “inspector” means an inspector appointed under section 7(3) and includes the Commissioner and any Deputy Commissioner; “learning report” means a learning report prepared and published under section 27A; “lift” includes any lifting appliance or lifting machine used for carrying persons, whether together with goods or otherwise; “lifting appliance” includes a pulley block, gin wheel, chain block or set of chain blocks; “lifting gear” includes — ( a ) any chain, rope, chain sling, webbing sling, rope sling, ring, hook, shackle, swivel or eyebolt; and ( b ) any cage or work platform used for carrying persons while it is suspended from the load line of a crane; “lifting machine” includes — ( a ) any crane, crab, winch, teagle, runway, transporter, piling frame or piling machine; and ( b ) any work platform or suspended scaffold capable of being raised or lowered by climbers, winches or other powered device; “machinery” includes — ( a ) any oil engine, gas engine, steam engine, and any other machine in which mechanical movement, either linear or rotated or both, takes place; ( b ) any steam boiler, gas cylinder, air receiver, steam receiver, steam container or refrigerating plant pressure receiver; ( c ) any appliance for transmission of power by ropes, belts, chains, driving straps or bands or gearing; and ( d ) any electrical generator or electrical motor, but does not include any machinery used solely for the propulsion of vehicles; “maintain” means maintain in an efficient state, in efficient working order and in good repair; “mechanical power” means any energy derived from steam, water, wind, electricity, compressed air or gas, or the combustion of fuel or explosive, which is used to drive or work any machinery; “occupational disease” means any disease specified in the Second Schedule and any other disease that is directly attributable to any exposure to any chemical or biological agent arising out of and in the course of any employment or the provision of any platform service, as the case may be; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “occupier”, in relation to any premises or part of any premises, means — ( a ) in the case of a factory where a certificate of registration has to be obtained in relation to the premises pursuant to any regulations — the person who is, or is required to be, the holder of the certificate; ( b ) in the case of a factory where a notification has to be submitted in relation to the factory pursuant to any regulations — the person who is named in the notification, or is required to submit a notification; and ( c ) in the case of any other premises — the person who has charge, management or control of those premises either on the person’s own account or as an agent of another person, whether or not the person is also the owner of those premises; “owner”, in relation to any premises, means — ( a ) the person for the time being receiving the rents or profits for the lease of the premises, whether on the person’s own account or as agent or trustee for any other person; or ( b ) the person who would so receive the rents or profits if the premises were leased; “platform operator” has the meaning given by section 4 of the Platform Workers Act 2024; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “platform service” has the meaning given by section 3 of the Platform Workers Act 2024; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “platform work agreement” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Platform Workers Act 2024; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “platform worker” has the meaning given by section 5(1) of the Platform Workers Act 2024; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “premises” includes any place whether enclosed or built on or not, whether situated underground or underwater and, in particular, includes — ( a ) any building, vehicle, vessel or aircraft; ( b ) any structure, whether a fixed structure or a movable structure such as a tent; and ( c ) a part of any premises, including a part of premises of a kind referred to in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ); “pressure vessel” — ( a ) means any container or vessel used for containing any substance under pressure; and ( b ) includes any steam boiler, steam receiver, steam container, air receiver, refrigerating plant pressure receiver and gas cylinder; “prime mover” means every engine, motor or other appliance which provides mechanical energy derived from steam, water, wind, electricity, the combustion of fuel or other source of energy; “principal” means a person who, in connection with any trade, business, profession or undertaking carried on by the person, engages any other person otherwise than under a contract of service — ( a ) to supply any labour for gain or reward; or ( b ) to do any work for gain or reward, but does not include a platform operator that, in connection with the provision of a platform service, engages any platform worker under a platform work agreement; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “refrigerating plant pressure receiver” means any vessel which contains refrigerant under pressure; “registered medical practitioner” means a person registered or deemed to be registered under the Medical Registration Act 1997; “regulations” means regulations made under this Act; “repealed Act” means the Factories Act (Cap. 104, 1998 Revised Edition) repealed by this Act; “self-employed person” — ( a ) means a person who works for gain or reward otherwise than under a contract of service, whether or not employing others; but ( b ) does not include a platform worker; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “ship” includes every description of vessel used in navigation, a floating rig, a barge or any platform used in any form of operations at sea; “steam boiler” — ( a ) means any closed vessel in which, for any purpose, steam is generated under pressure greater than atmospheric pressure; and ( b ) includes any economiser used to heat water being fed to any such vessel and any superheater used for heating steam; “steam container” means any vessel (other than a steam pipe or coil) — ( a ) constructed with a permanent outlet into the atmosphere or into a space where the pressure does not exceed atmospheric pressure; and ( b ) through which steam is passed at atmospheric pressure, or at approximately that pressure for the purpose of heating, boiling, drying, evaporating or a similar purpose; “steam receiver” means any vessel or apparatus (other than a steam boiler, steam container, steam pipe or coil or a part of a prime mover) used for containing steam under pressure greater than atmospheric pressure; “subcontractor” — ( a ) means a person engaged (otherwise than under a contract of service) by any contractor or subcontractor — (i) to supply any labour for gain or reward; or (ii) to do any work for gain or reward, which the contractor or subcontractor has been engaged as contractor or subcontractor (as the case may be) to do; but ( b ) does not include a platform worker who provides a platform service for a platform operator; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “work of engineering construction” means any work specified in the Third Schedule; “workplace safety and health auditor”


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - INTERPRETATION
section: 5
title: Meanings of “workplace” and “factory”
content:
5. —(1) In this Act, “workplace” means any premises where a person is at work or is to work, for the time being works, or customarily works, and includes a factory. (2) Subject to this section, “factory” means any premises — ( a ) within which persons are employed in any of the following processes: (i) the handling, sorting, packing, storing, altering, repairing, construction, processing or manufacturing of any goods or product; (ii) the handling, sorting, packing, storing, processing, manufacturing or use of any hazardous substances; (iii) the repair, construction or manufacturing of any vessel or vehicle; (iv) any building operation or work of engineering construction; (v) the operation or maintenance of any facility or system related to the provision of any public utility; and ( b ) which is specified in the Fourth Schedule. [18/2011] (3) Where any person carries on any work mentioned in subsection (2) in a workplace with the express or implied permission of, or under any agreement with, the occupier of the workplace, then, even though the person is not an employee of the occupier of the workplace — ( a ) the workplace is to be treated as a factory for the purposes of this Act; and ( b ) the provisions of this Act relating to the duty of an occupier apply to the occupier of the workplace as if that occupier were the occupier of a factory. [18/2011] (4) Despite subsection (2), where any place situated within a factory is solely used for some purpose other than any of the processes carried on in the factory — ( a ) the place is not to be treated as forming part of the factory for the purposes of this Act; but ( b ) the place is, if it would otherwise be a factory, to be treated as a separate factory for the purposes of this Act. (5) A part of a factory may, with the written approval of the Commissioner, be treated as a separate factory for the purposes of this Act. (6) Two or more factories may, with the written approval of the Commissioner, be treated as a single factory for the purposes of this Act. (7) To avoid doubt, premises are not excluded from the definition of a “factory” by reason only that they are open air premises. (8) Any premises in which work is carried on by or on behalf of the Government or any statutory board or body are not excluded from the definition of a “factory” by reason only that the work carried on at the premises is not carried on by way of trade or for purposes of gain.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - INTERPRETATION
section: 6
title: Meanings of “employee” and “employer”
content:
6. —(1) Subject to subsections (2), (3), (4) and (5), in this Act — “employee” means any person employed by an employer to do any work under a contract of service; “employer” means a person who, in the course of the person’s trade, business, profession or undertaking, employs any person to do any work under a contract of service. (2) For the purposes of this Act, any reference to an employee includes a reference to a volunteer who — ( a ) does work for another person with the knowledge or consent of that other person; and ( b ) does the work on an ongoing and regular basis for that other person, being work that is in connection with any trade, business, profession or undertaking carried on by that other person, and this Act applies — ( c ) as if the volunteer were an employee of the other person; ( d ) as if the other person were the volunteer’s employer; and ( e ) as if the volunteer were at work when doing work for the other person. (3) For the purposes of this Act, any reference to an employee includes a reference to a person who is in a workplace for the purpose of receiving on the job training or gaining work experience, including under a rehabilitation scheme (called in this subsection person A), and this Act applies — ( a ) as if person A were an employee of the person (called in this subsection person B) who agreed to provide on the job training or work experience; ( b ) as if person B were that person A’s employer; and ( c ) as if person A were at work when in the workplace for the purpose of receiving on the job training or gaining work experience. (4) Where — ( a ) an employer places an employee (called in this subsection the loaned employee) at the disposal of another person to do work for that other person; and ( b ) there is no contractual relationship between the employer and that other person regarding the work to be performed by the loaned employee, then, for the purposes of this Act — ( c ) the loaned employee is to be regarded as if he or she were an employee of that other person (instead of his or her employer) while the loaned employee is at work for that other person; ( d ) that other person is to be regarded as if that person were the employer of the loaned employee while the loaned employee is at work for that other person; and ( e ) the loaned employee is to be regarded as if he or she were at work when doing work for that other person. (5) Where a person carries on any work in a factory — ( a ) the occupier of the factory is deemed to be the employer of the person; and ( b ) the provisions of this Act apply as if the occupier of the factory were the employer of the person, unless the occupier of the factory proves that the occupier is not the employer of the person.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 3 - ADMINISTRATION OF ACT
section: 7
title: Appointment of Commissioner for Workplace Safety and Health and other officers
content:
7. —(1) The Minister may appoint any person to be the Commissioner for Workplace Safety and Health, and such other persons, by name or office, as Deputy Commissioners for Workplace Safety and Health. (2) The Commissioner is, subject to any general or special directions of the Minister, responsible for the administration of this Act and may perform such duties as are imposed and may exercise such powers as are conferred upon the Commissioner by this Act or any other written law. (3) The Commissioner may appoint, by name or office, such number of persons as inspectors, and such number of other persons as authorised officers, as may be necessary to assist the Commissioner in the administration of this Act. (4) The Commissioner may, with the approval of the Minister, delegate the exercise of all or any of the powers conferred or duties imposed upon the Commissioner by this Act (except the power of delegation conferred by this subsection) to any Deputy Commissioner, inspector or authorised officer, subject to such conditions or limitations as the Commissioner may specify. (5) Notice of all appointments made under this section must be published in the Gazette .


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 3 - ADMINISTRATION OF ACT
section: 8
title: Commissioner, Deputy Commissioners, inspectors, authorised officers, etc., to be public servants
content:
8. The Commissioner and every Deputy Commissioner, inspector and authorised officer appointed under section 7 and every member of the Council are deemed to be public servants within the meaning of the Penal Code 1871.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 3 - ADMINISTRATION OF ACT
section: 9
title: Identification of inspectors and authorised officers
content:
9. Every inspector and authorised officer must — ( a ) be provided with a certificate of his or her appointment as an inspector or authorised officer, as the case may be; and ( b ) when exercising any powers under this Act, on demand, produce the certificate of his or her appointment to the person affected by the exercise of those powers.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 10
title: Duties according to different capacities
content:
10. To avoid doubt, it is declared that — ( a ) a person may at any one time be 2 or more of the following: (i) an employer; (ii) a contractor; (iii) a subcontractor; (iv) a principal; (iv a ) a platform operator; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (iv b ) a platform worker; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (v) a self-employed person; (vi) an occupier of a workplace; (vii) a designer, manufacturer or supplier of any machinery, equipment or hazardous substance for use at work; (viii) an erector, installer or a modifier of machinery or equipment for use at work; (ix) an owner, a hirer or lessee of machinery moved by mechanical power or a person who maintains such machinery for use at work, and this Act may impose duties or liabilities on the person accordingly; ( b ) this Act may at any one time impose the same duty or liability on 2 or more persons, whether in the same capacity or in different capacities; and ( c ) a duty or liability imposed by this Act on any person is not diminished or affected by the fact that it is imposed on one or more other persons, whether in the same capacity or in different capacities.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 11
title: Duty of occupier of workplace
content:
11. It is the duty of every occupier of any workplace to take, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures to ensure that — ( a ) the workplace; ( b ) all means of access to or egress from the workplace; and ( c ) any machinery, equipment, plant, article or substance kept on the workplace, are safe and without risks to health to every person within those premises, whether or not the person is at work or is an employee of the occupier.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 12
title: Duties of employers
content:
12. —(1) It is the duty of every employer to take, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures as are necessary to ensure the safety and health of the employer’s employees at work. (2) It is the duty of every employer to take, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures as are necessary to ensure the safety and health of persons (not being the employer’s employees) who may be affected by any undertaking carried on by the employer in the workplace. (3) For the purposes of subsection (1), the measures necessary to ensure the safety and health of persons at work include — ( a ) providing and maintaining for those persons a work environment which is safe, without risk to health, and adequate as regards facilities and arrangements for their welfare at work; ( b ) ensuring that adequate safety measures are taken in respect of any machinery, equipment, plant, article or process used by those persons; ( c ) ensuring that those persons are not exposed to hazards arising out of the arrangement, disposal, manipulation, organisation, processing, storage, transport, working or use of things — (i) in their workplace; or (ii) near their workplace and under the control of the employer; ( d ) developing and implementing procedures for dealing with emergencies that may arise while those persons are at work; and ( e ) ensuring that those persons at work have adequate instruction, information, training and supervision as is necessary for them to perform their work. (4) Every employer must, where required by the regulations, give to persons (not being the employer’s employees) the prescribed information about such aspects of the way in which the employer conducts the employer’s undertaking as might affect their safety or health while those persons are at the employer’s workplace.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s12A
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 12A
title: Duties of platform operators
content:
12A. —(1) It is the duty of every platform operator to take, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures as are necessary to ensure the safety and health of the platform operator’s platform workers at work. (2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the measures necessary to ensure the safety and health of platform workers at work include — ( a ) providing and maintaining for those platform workers a work environment which is safe, without risk to health, and adequate as regards facilities and arrangements for their welfare at work; ( b ) ensuring that those platform workers take adequate safety measures in respect of any machinery, equipment, plant, article or process used by those platform workers; ( c ) ensuring that those platform workers are not exposed to hazards arising out of the platform operator’s arrangements and processes for, and organisation of, the provision of the platform service; ( d ) developing and implementing procedures for dealing with emergencies that may arise while those platform workers are at work; and ( e ) ensuring that those platform workers at work have adequate instruction, information, training and supervision as is necessary for them to perform their work. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 13
title: Duties of self-employed persons
content:
13. —(1) It is the duty of every self-employed person (whether or not he or she is also a contractor or subcontractor) to take, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures as are necessary to ensure the safety and health of persons (not being the self‑employed person’s employees) who may be affected by any undertaking carried on by the self‑employed person in the workplace. (2) Every self-employed person must, where required by the regulations, give to persons (not being the self‑employed person’s employees) the prescribed information about such aspects of the way in which the self‑employed person conducts his or her undertaking as might affect their safety or health while those persons are at the self‑employed person’s workplace.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 14
title: Duties of principals
content:
14. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), it is the duty of every principal to take, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures as are necessary to ensure the safety and health of — ( a ) any contractor engaged by the principal when at work; ( b ) any direct or indirect subcontractor engaged by such contractor when at work; and ( c ) any employee employed by such contractor or subcontractor when at work. (2) The duty imposed on the principal in subsection (1) only applies where the contractor, subcontractor or employee mentioned in that subsection is working under the direction of the principal as to the manner in which the work is carried out. (3) It is the duty of every principal to take, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures as are necessary to ensure the safety and health of persons (other than a person referred to in subsection (1)( a ), ( b ) or ( c ) working under the principal’s direction) who may be affected by any undertaking carried on by the principal in the workplace. (4) For the purposes of subsection (1), the measures necessary to ensure the safety and health of persons at work include — ( a ) providing and maintaining for those persons a work environment which is safe, without risk to health, and adequate as regards facilities and arrangements for their welfare at work; ( b ) ensuring that adequate safety measures are taken in respect of any machinery, equipment, plant, article or process used by those persons; ( c ) ensuring that those persons are not exposed to hazards arising out of the arrangement, disposal, manipulation, organisation, processing, storage, transport, working or use of things — (i) in their workplace; or (ii) near their workplace and under the control of the principal; ( d ) developing and implementing procedures for dealing with emergencies that may arise while those persons are at work; and ( e ) ensuring that those persons at work have adequate instruction, information, training and supervision as is necessary for them to perform their work. (5) Every principal must, where required by the regulations, give to persons (other than a person referred to in subsection (1)( a ), ( b ) or ( c ) working under the principal’s direction) the prescribed information about such aspects of the way in which the principal conducts the principal’s undertaking as might affect their safety or health while those persons are at the principal’s workplace.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s14A
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 14A
title: Additional duties of principals in relation to contractors
content:
14A. —(1) It is the duty of every principal to take, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures as are necessary to ensure that any contractor engaged by the principal on or after 1 September 2011 — ( a ) has the necessary expertise to carry out the work for which the contractor is engaged by the principal to do; and ( b ) has taken adequate safety and health measures in respect of any machinery, equipment, plant, article or process used, or to be used, by the contractor or any employee employed by the contractor. [18/2011] (2) The duty imposed on every principal under subsection (1)( a ) includes ascertaining that the contractor engaged by the principal and any employee of the contractor — ( a ) have sufficient experience and training to carry out the work for which the contractor is engaged by the principal to do; and ( b ) have obtained any necessary licence, permit, certificate or any other document in order to carry out the work for which the contractor is engaged by the principal to do. [18/2011] (3) The duty imposed on every principal under subsection (1)( b ) includes ascertaining that the contractor engaged by the principal — ( a ) has conducted a risk assessment in relation to the safety and health risks posed to any person who may be affected by the work for which the contractor is engaged by the principal to do; and ( b ) has informed any person who may be affected by the work for which the contractor is engaged by the principal to do of the nature of the risk involved in the work and any measure or safe work procedure which is implemented at the workplace. [18/2011] (4) In any proceedings for an offence under this section, it is not a defence for the principal to prove that the principal has taken, so far as is reasonably practicable, such measures as are necessary to ensure compliance with this section solely by providing directly or indirectly, by a term in a contract with the principal’s contractor, that the contractor has complied with or will comply with the requirements mentioned in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ) of subsection (1). [18/2011] (5) In this section, “risk assessment” means the process of evaluating the probability and consequences of injury or illness arising from exposure to an identified hazard, and determining the appropriate measure for risk control. [18/2011] (6) Section 14 does not limit the duty of a principal under this section. [18/2011]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 15
title: Duties of persons at work
content:
15. —(1) It is the duty of every person at work — ( a ) to use in such manner so as to provide the protection intended, any suitable appliance, protective clothing, convenience, equipment or other means or thing provided (whether for his or her use alone or for use by him or her in common with others) for securing his or her safety, health and welfare while at work; and ( b ) to cooperate with his or her employer, principal or platform operator and any other person to such extent as will enable his or her employer, principal, platform operator or the other person (as the case may be) to comply with the provisions of this Act. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (2) A person at work must not wilfully or recklessly interfere with or misuse any appliance, protective clothing, convenience, equipment or other means or thing provided (whether for his or her use alone or for use by him or her in common with others) pursuant to any requirement under this Act for securing the safety, health or welfare of persons (including himself or herself) at work. (3) Any person at work who, without reasonable cause, wilfully or recklessly does any act which endangers the safety or health of himself or herself or others shall be guilty of an offence. (4) Any person at work who, without reasonable cause, does any negligent act which endangers the safety or health of himself or herself or others shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable upon conviction to a fine not exceeding $30,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. [18/2011] (5) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000 and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $2,000.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 16
title: Duties of manufacturers and suppliers of machinery, equipment or hazardous substances used at work
content:
16. —(1) Subject to this section, it is the duty of any person who manufactures or supplies any machinery, equipment or hazardous substance for use at work to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable — ( a ) that the following information about the safe use of the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance is available to any person to whom the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance is supplied for use at work: (i) the precautions (if any) to be taken for the proper use and maintenance of the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance; (ii) the health hazards (if any) associated with the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance; and (iii) the information relating to and the results of any examinations or tests of the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance under paragraph ( c ) that are relevant to its safe use; ( b ) that the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance is safe, and without risk to health, when properly used; ( c ) that the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance is examined and tested so as to comply with the obligation imposed by paragraph ( b ). (2) The duties imposed on any person specified in subsection (1) — ( a ) apply only if the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance is manufactured or supplied in the course of trade, business, profession or undertaking carried on by the person, whether for profit or not; ( b ) apply whether or not the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance is exclusively manufactured or supplied for use by persons at work; and ( c ) extend to the supply of the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance by way of sale, transfer, lease or hire and whether as principal or agent, and to the supply of the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance to a person for the purpose of supply to others. (3) The duties imposed on any person specified in subsection (1) do not apply to a person by reason only that the person supplies the machinery or equipment under a hire-purchase agreement, conditional sale agreement or credit-sale agreement to another (called in this section the customer) in the course of a business of financing the acquisition of the machinery or equipment by the customer from others. (4) Where a person (called in this subsection the ostensible supplier) supplies any machinery or equipment for use at work to a customer under a hire-purchase agreement, conditional sale agreement or credit-sale agreement, and the ostensible supplier — ( a ) carries on the business of financing the acquisition of goods by others by means of such agreements; and ( b ) in the course of that business acquired an interest in the machinery or equipment supplied to the customer as a means of financing its acquisition by the customer from a third person (called in this subsection the effective supplier), the effective supplier is treated for the purposes of this section as supplying the machinery or equipment to the customer instead of the ostensible supplier, and any duty imposed by subsection (1) on a supplier accordingly applies to the effective supplier, and not to the ostensible supplier. (5) Where a person designs, manufactures or supplies any machinery, equipment or hazardous substance for use at work and does so for or to another on the basis of a written undertaking by that other to take specified steps sufficient to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the machinery, equipment or hazardous substance will be safe and without risk to health when properly used, the undertaking has the effect of relieving the firstmentioned person from the duty imposed by subsection (1)( b ) to such extent as is reasonable having regard to the terms of the undertaking. (6) Any person required under subsection (1)( c ) to ensure that any machinery, equipment or hazardous substance is examined and tested so as to comply with the obligation imposed by subsection (1)( b ) is regarded as having complied with subsection (1)( c ) to the extent that — ( a ) the examination or test has already been carried out otherwise than by, or on behalf of, the person; and ( b ) it is reasonable for the person to rely on that examination or test. (7) For the purposes of this section, an absence of safety, or a risk to health, is to be disregarded insofar as the case in or in relation to which it would arise is shown to be one the occurrence of which could not reasonably be foreseen. (8) In this section, “supplier”, in relation to any machinery, equipment or hazardous substance, does not include a manufacturer of those items when supplying, but includes an importer when supplying those items. (9) This section applies only to machinery, equipment or hazardous substances specified in the Fifth Schedule.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 17
title:
Duties of persons who erect, install or modify machinery or equipment and persons in control of machinery for use at work

content:
17. —(1) It is the duty of any person who erects, installs or modifies any machinery or equipment for use at work to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the machinery or equipment is erected, installed or modified in such a manner that it is safe, and without risk to health, when properly used. (2) The duty imposed on a person erecting, installing or modifying any machinery or equipment under subsection (1) applies only if the machinery or equipment is erected, installed or modified in the course of the person’s trade, business, profession or undertaking. (3) Any person required under subsection (1) to ensure that any machinery or equipment is erected, installed or modified in such a manner that it is safe, and without risk to health, when properly used is regarded as having complied with that subsection to the extent that — ( a ) the person ensured, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the erection, installation or modification was in accordance with the information supplied by the designer, manufacturer or supplier of the machinery or equipment regarding its erection, installation or modification; and ( b ) it is reasonable for the person to rely on that information. (4) Where any machinery moved by mechanical power is used in any workplace, then despite anything in this Act, it is the duty of the owner of the machinery to ensure — ( a ) so far as is reasonably practicable, that the machinery is maintained in a safe condition; and ( b ) that the precautions (if any) to be taken for the safe use of the machinery and the health hazards (if any) associated with the machinery are available to any person using the machinery. (5) Where the owner of any machinery moved by mechanical power has entered into a contract of hire or lease with a hirer or lessee, the duty imposed under subsection (4) applies to the hirer or lessee of the machinery instead of the owner. (6) Where the owner, hirer or lessee of any machinery moved by mechanical power has entered into a contract with another person to maintain the machinery, the duty under subsection (4)( a ) applies to that other person instead of the owner, hirer or lessee of the machinery. (7) Subsections (1), (2) and (3) apply only to machinery or equipment specified in Part 1 of the Fifth Schedule.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 18
title: Other related duties of occupiers, employers and platform operators
content:
18. —(1) An employer must not — ( a ) deduct, or allow to be deducted, from the sum contracted to be paid by the employer to any of the employer’s employees; or ( b ) receive, or allow any agent of the employer to receive, any payment from any employee of the employer, in respect of anything to be done or provided by the employer in accordance with this Act in order to ensure the safety, health or welfare of any of the employer’s employees at work. (2) An employer must not dismiss or threaten to dismiss an employee because the employee — ( a ) has assisted (whether by the giving of information or otherwise) an inspector, authorised person or any other public authority in the conduct of any inspection or investigation under this Act for a breach or an alleged breach of this Act, or proposes to do so; ( b ) has in good faith sought the assistance of, or made a report to an inspector or authorised person in relation to a safety and health matter, or proposes to do so; ( c ) is performing the employee’s duties in good faith as a member of a workplace safety and health committee; or ( d ) has complied with an order made under section 21 or otherwise complied with this Act, or proposes to do so. (2A) A platform operator must not — ( a ) deduct, or allow to be deducted, from the earnings of any platform worker relating to the platform worker’s provision of a platform service for the platform operator; or ( b ) receive, or allow any agent of the platform operator to receive, any payment from any platform worker who is providing or has provided a platform service for the platform operator, in respect of anything to be done or provided by the platform operator in accordance with this Act in order to ensure the safety, health or welfare of any of the platform operator’s platform workers at work. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (2B) A platform operator must not — ( a ) terminate or threaten to terminate a platform work agreement with any platform worker; or ( b ) refuse or threaten to refuse to assign to or facilitate for any platform worker, or prevent or threaten to prevent any platform worker from receiving or obtaining, any tasks to be performed in relation to the provision of any platform service for the platform operator, because the platform worker — ( c ) has assisted (whether by the giving of information or otherwise) an inspector or authorised person or any other public authority in the conduct of any inspection or investigation under this Act for a breach or an alleged breach of this Act, or proposes to do so; ( d ) has in good faith sought the assistance of, or made a report to, an inspector or authorised person in relation to a safety and health matter, or proposes to do so; or ( e ) has complied with an order made under section 21 or otherwise complied with this Act, or proposes to do so. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (3) The occupier of a workplace must cause to be kept in the workplace the following records: ( a ) every document issued in respect of the workplace by the Commissioner under the provisions of this Act; ( b ) a copy of every notice furnished to the Commissioner as required under this Act; and ( c ) all reports and particulars prepared in respect of the workplace under this Act. (4) Any occupier of a workplace must — ( a ) ensure that the records mentioned in subsection (3) are kept for at least 5 years from the date the records were made or such other period as may be prescribed; and ( b ) whenever required to do so within that period, produce and make available to an inspector for inspection a copy of the records. (5) Any person who contravenes subsection (1), (2), (2A) or (2B) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (6) Any person who contravenes subsection (3) or (4) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 19
title: Duties of occupiers of common areas
content:
19. —(1) For the purposes of subsection (2), where a building comprises one or more workplaces, any common property or limited common property of the building (called in this section the common area) which is used by persons at work in any such workplace or is used by such persons to move through is treated as part of their workplace. (2) It is the duty of the occupier of the common area to comply with any provision of this Act with respect to — ( a ) electric generators and motors located in the common area; ( b ) hoists and lifts, lifting gear, lifting appliances and lifting machines located in the common area; ( c ) means of access into or egress from the common area; and ( d ) any machinery or plant located in the common area which belongs to or is supplied by the owner or occupier of the common area. (3) In this section — “common property” and “limited common property” have the meanings given by the Building (Strata Management) Act 2004; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/10/2025] “occupier”, in relation to a common area, includes the management corporation or subsidiary management corporation (as the case may be) having control of that common area.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL DUTIES OF PERSONS
section: 20
title: Offence of breaching duty under this Part
content:
20. In the event of any contravention of any provision in this Part which imposes a duty on a person, that person shall be guilty of an offence.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 5 - POWERS OF COMMISSIONER
section: 21
title: Power to issue remedial order or stop-work order
content:
21. —(1) This section applies if the Commissioner is satisfied that — ( a ) any workplace is in such condition, or is so located, or any part of the machinery, equipment, plant or article in the workplace is so used, that any work or process carried on in the workplace cannot be carried on with due regard to the safety, health and welfare of persons at work; ( b ) any person has contravened any duty imposed by this Act; or ( c ) any person has done any act, or has refrained from doing any act which, in the opinion of the Commissioner, poses or is likely to pose a risk to the safety, health and welfare of persons at work. (2) Where this section applies, the Commissioner may serve a remedial order or a stop-work order in respect of a workplace on — ( a ) any person who is in control of the workplace, or the work or process carried out in the workplace; ( b ) any person whose duty under this Act is to ensure the safety, health and welfare of any person at work in the workplace; or ( c ) any person who poses or is likely to pose a risk to the safety, health and welfare of any person at work in the workplace. (3) A remedial order under this section must — ( a ) direct the person served with the order to take such measures, to the satisfaction of the Commissioner — (i) to remedy any danger so as to enable the work or process in the workplace to be carried on with due regard to the safety, health and welfare of the persons at work; (ii) to comply with any duty imposed under this Act; or (iii) to do or refrain from doing any act mentioned in subsection (1)( c ); and ( b ) specify the date on which it is to take effect and the period (which runs from the date the remedial order takes effect) within which any step required by the order must be taken. (4) A stop-work order must — ( a ) direct the person served with the order to immediately cease to carry on any work or process — (i) indefinitely; or (ii) until such measures as are required by the Commissioner have been taken, to the satisfaction of the Commissioner, to remedy any danger so as to enable the work or process in the workplace to be carried on with due regard to the safety, health and welfare of the persons at work; and ( b ) specify the date on which it is to take effect. (5) The Commissioner may delegate the power to issue a remedial order or stop-work order to any Deputy Commissioner. (6) Any person who fails to comply with a remedial order shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $5,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. (7) Any person who fails to comply with a stop-work order shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $500,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $20,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. (8) Where any person fails to comply with a remedial order or stop‑work order, the Commissioner may — ( a ) at all reasonable times enter upon the workplace and take such measures and do such work as may be necessary to give effect to the order; and ( b ) take appropriate measures to prevent — (i) unauthorised entry to any area; or (ii) unauthorised access to any machinery, equipment, plant or article affected by the order. (9) Any costs and expenses incurred by the Commissioner under subsection (8) may be recovered as a debt due to the Government from the person served with the remedial order or stop‑work order. (10) Where the Commissioner has taken measures under subsection (8)( b ) in respect of any area or machinery, equipment, plant or article, any person who, knowing that such measures have been taken, enters that area or gains access to that machinery, equipment, plant or article without the authorisation of the Commissioner shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 5 - POWERS OF COMMISSIONER
section: 22
title: Appeal from order made by Commissioner
content:
22. —(1) Any person who is affected by any order made by the Commissioner under section 21 may, within 14 days of the date of service of the order, appeal to the Minister who may rescind or vary the order. (2) Where an appeal is made to the Minister against any remedial order, that order does not have effect pending the outcome of the appeal. (3) Where an appeal is made to the Minister against any stop-work order, the affected person must comply with the order pending the outcome of the appeal, and the stop-work order has effect until it is otherwise rescinded or varied.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 5 - POWERS OF COMMISSIONER
section: 23
title: Power to suspend certificate
content:
23. —(1) The Commissioner may suspend any certificate issued by him or her under this Act in respect of any work or workplace, and must inform the person named in the certificate in writing of the suspension and also the reason for the suspension. (2) Where any certificate is suspended under subsection (1), the person affected must immediately cease to do any work at any workplace for which the certificate was required. (3) Any person who contravenes subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 6 - INVESTIGATIONS, INQUIRIES AND
section: 24
title: Investigation into accidents, dangerous occurrences, etc.
content:
24. Where the Commissioner becomes aware of any accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease in a workplace, the Commissioner may direct an inspector to investigate the circumstances of the accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s25
chapter: PART 6 - INVESTIGATIONS, INQUIRIES AND
section: 25
title: Alteration or addition to machinery, equipment, etc.
content:
25. —(1) A person must not, without the consent of the Commissioner — ( a ) alter, replace, remove or add to any machinery, equipment, plant or article which may have contributed to the cause of any accident resulting in the death of any person or any dangerous occurrence or occupational disease; or ( b ) modify the scene of the fatal accident or dangerous occurrence or the scene where the occupational disease occurred. (2) The occupier of a workplace in which an accident, a dangerous occurrence or an occupational disease occurs must take all reasonable measures to prevent any person from — ( a ) altering, replacing, removing or adding to any machinery, equipment, plant or article which may have contributed to the cause of the accident resulting in the death of any person or the dangerous occurrence or occupational disease; or ( b ) modifying the scene of the fatal accident or dangerous occurrence or the scene where the occupational disease occurred. (3) It is presumed, unless it is proved to the contrary, that any alteration, replacement, removal or addition as is mentioned in subsection (1) has been made by the occupier of a workplace. (4) Nothing in subsection (1) or (2) operates to interfere with rescue work or work necessary for the general safety of life and property. (5) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) and any occupier of a workplace who contravenes subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s26
chapter: PART 6 - INVESTIGATIONS, INQUIRIES AND
section: 26
title: Minister may direct inquiry to be held
content:
26. —(1) The Minister may appoint an Inquiry Committee to hold an inquiry into any accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease that has occurred in a workplace and into its causes and circumstances, and direct that the Committee reports its findings to the Minister. (2) The Inquiry Committee mentioned in subsection (1) must comprise — ( a ) a District Judge appointed by the Minister after consulting the Presiding Judge of the State Courts; and ( b ) one or more assessors appointed by the Minister. [5/2014] (3) The Inquiry Committee must hold the inquiry in open court in such manner and under such conditions as it thinks most effectual for — ( a ) ascertaining the causes and circumstances of the accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease; and ( b ) enabling it to make the report to the Minister. (4) The Inquiry Committee has, for the purposes of the inquiry — ( a ) all the powers of a District Court when trying offences under this Act; ( b ) all the powers of an inspector under this Act; and ( c ) all of the following powers: (i) to enter and inspect any premises, the entry or inspection of which appears to the Inquiry Committee requisite for the purposes of the inquiry; (ii) by summons signed by the District Judge, to require attendance of all such persons as the Inquiry Committee thinks fit to call before it and examine and to require answers or returns to such inquiries as it thinks fit; (iii) to require the production of all books, papers and documents which the Inquiry Committee considers important for the purposes of the inquiry; and (iv) to administer oaths and to require any person examined to make and sign a declaration of the truth of the statements made by the person in the person’s examination. (5) Upon conclusion of its inquiry, the Inquiry Committee must make a report to the Minister — ( a ) stating the causes and circumstances of the accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease; and ( b ) adding any observations or recommendations which the Inquiry Committee thinks appropriate to make. (6) If the District Judge is of the opinion that criminal proceedings ought to be instituted against any person in connection with the accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease, the District Judge is to also forward a copy of the report to the Public Prosecutor. (7) Any person who — ( a ) fails to comply with any summons, order or requisition of the District Judge; or ( b ) prevents or impedes the Inquiry Committee in the execution of its duties, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000. (8) It is a defence for a person charged with an offence under subsection (7)( a ) to prove that the person had a reasonable excuse for failing to comply with the summons, order or requisition of the District Judge. (9) The Minister may cause the report of the Inquiry Committee to be made public at such time and in such manner as the Minister thinks fit.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s27
chapter: PART 6 - INVESTIGATIONS, INQUIRIES AND
section: 27
title: Notification and reporting of accidents, dangerous occurrences, etc.
content:
27. —(1) The Minister may by regulations require an employer, a platform operator, an occupier, a registered medical practitioner or any other person to notify or to submit a report to the Commissioner in the event of an accident, a dangerous occurrence or an occupational disease in a prescribed workplace. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (2) Regulations made under subsection (1) may apply to a person who is an exempt person at work specified in the Sixth Schedule. [18/2011]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s27A
chapter: PART 6 - INVESTIGATIONS, INQUIRIES AND
section: 27A
title: Learning report of accident, etc.
content:
27A. —(1) Where the Commissioner considers it necessary in the interest of the public, or a section of the public, the Commissioner may prepare and publish a learning report on any accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease in a workplace that is the subject of an investigation under section 24. [44/2017] (2) The sole objective of publishing a learning report is to prevent or minimise the recurrence of any accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease in a workplace, and not to apportion blame or liability. [44/2017] (3) A learning report may be published before or after the conclusion of the investigation under section 24. [44/2017] (4) To avoid doubt, every learning report is, for the purpose of any law, to be treated as prepared and published by and on behalf of the Government and in the service of the Government. [44/2017] (5) A learning report on an accident, a dangerous occurrence or an occupational disease in a workplace may — ( a ) contain an account of the accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease; ( b ) specify the cause or causes of, and circumstances or factors leading to, the accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease insofar as they may be ascertained; ( c ) contain an opinion by a person with technical or specialised knowledge of the machinery, equipment, plant, article, process, substance, work or workplace involved in the accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease; ( d ) contain a warning of any danger or risk to the safety and health of persons at work or persons who may be affected by any undertaking carried on in the workplace; ( e ) contain any recommendation to prevent or minimise the recurrence of any similar accident, dangerous occurrence or occupational disease in a workplace; and ( f ) contain any other matter that the Commissioner considers relevant, taking into account the sole objective mentioned in subsection (2). [44/2017]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s27B
chapter: PART 6 - INVESTIGATIONS, INQUIRIES AND
section: 27B
title: Learning report, etc., not admissible in evidence
content:
27B. —(1) Subject to subsection (3), a learning report, or any draft of the learning report, is not admissible in evidence in any civil, criminal, arbitral or disciplinary proceedings before any court, tribunal or body, or any proceedings under the Work Injury Compensation Act 2019 or the Work Injury Compensation Act (Cap. 354, 2009 Revised Edition) repealed by that Act. [44/2017; 27/2019] (2) An inspector is, in any proceedings mentioned in subsection (1), not compellable — ( a ) to produce or answer questions about any document or part of a document made by the inspector and contained in a learning report, or in any draft of the learning report; or ( b ) to give evidence on the preparation of a learning report, or any draft of the learning report. [44/2017] (3) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply to the following: ( a ) an inquiry under section 26; ( b ) an inquiry under the Coroners Act 2010; ( c ) an inquiry by a commission of inquiry or a committee of inquiry under the Inquiries Act 2007. [44/2017]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s28
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 28
title: Workplace safety and health officers and coordinators
content:
28. —(1) Every workplace within the prescribed class or description of workplaces must have appointed in respect thereof a workplace safety and health officer or a workplace safety and health coordinator. (2) For the purposes of this section, the Minister may prescribe — ( a ) the manner of appointment of a workplace safety and health officer and a workplace safety and health coordinator; ( b ) the functions and duties of a workplace safety and health officer and a workplace safety and health coordinator; and ( c ) the powers of a workplace safety and health officer and a workplace safety and health coordinator, being necessary powers for the officer or coordinator (as the case may be) to discharge his or her functions and duties under this Act.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s29
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 29
title: Workplace safety and health committees
content:
29. —(1) Every workplace within the prescribed class or description of workplaces must have appointed in respect thereof a workplace safety and health committee. (2) Every workplace safety and health committee of a workplace must comprise representatives of employees of the workplace as well as employers. (3) The functions of a workplace safety and health committee appointed in respect of a workplace are — ( a ) to keep under review circumstances in the workplace which affect or may affect the safety or health of persons in the workplace; ( b ) to promote cooperation between management and employees in achieving and maintaining safe and healthy working conditions; ( c ) to carry out from time to time inspections of the scene of any accident or dangerous occurrence in the interests of the safety and health of the employees; ( d ) to exercise any other functions and duties as may be prescribed or conferred on the committee under this Act; and ( e ) any other functions as may be prescribed. (4) The management must provide such facilities and assistance to the workplace safety and health committee of a workplace as the committee may reasonably require for the purpose of carrying out the committee’s functions and duties under this section. (5) A workplace safety and health committee has such powers as may be prescribed, being necessary powers for the committee to discharge its functions and duties under this Act.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s30
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 30
title: Workplace safety and health auditors
content:
30. —(1) Every workplace within the prescribed class or description of workplaces must have appointed in respect thereof a workplace safety and health auditor. (2) The functions of a workplace safety and health auditor appointed in respect of a workplace are to audit, in such manner as the Commissioner may determine, all or any of the following with a view to ensuring the safety, health and welfare of persons at work in the workplace: ( a ) the safety and health management system of the workplace; ( b ) any risk assessment relating to the workplace or the work carried out in that workplace; ( c ) any work process at the workplace; or ( d ) the workplace. (3) A workplace safety and health auditor has such powers as may be prescribed, being necessary powers for the auditor to discharge his or her functions and duties under this Act. (4) In this section, “risk assessment” means the process of evaluating the probability and consequences of injury or illness arising from exposure to an identified hazard, and determining the appropriate measures for risk control.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s31
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 31
title: Safety and health training courses
content:
31. —(1) The Minister may, by order in the Gazette , require such prescribed class or description of persons to attend such training courses as are specified in the order. (2) The employer of any person required to attend any training course under subsection (1) must ensure that the person completes or has completed such safety and health training course before allowing that person to perform any work for which the training is required. (3) Any safety and health training course mentioned in subsection (1) must be conducted by an accredited training provider. (4) Even though a person has completed such safety and health training course as is required under this section, the Commissioner may, if the Commissioner thinks that a refresher course is necessary, issue a written direction requiring that person to attend another such training course. (5) An employer who contravenes subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s32
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 32
title: Requirement for approval of Commissioner to act
content:
32. A person must not act as — ( a ) an authorised examiner for the purpose of carrying out any prescribed examination or test of any — (i) hoist or lift; (ii) lifting gear; (iii) lifting appliance or lifting machine; (iv) steam boiler; (v) steam receiver; (vi) air receiver; (vii) refrigerating plant pressure receiver; (viii) pressure vessel; or (ix) any other machinery required by this Act to be examined or tested by an authorised examiner; ( b ) a workplace safety and health officer; ( c ) a workplace safety and health coordinator; ( d ) a workplace safety and health auditor; or ( e ) an accredited training provider, (called in this Part an authorised person) except with the approval of the Commissioner.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s33
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 33
title: Application for and grant of approval
content:
33. —(1) An application for approval to act as an authorised person must be — ( a ) in such form as the Commissioner may determine; ( b ) accompanied by such information, statements and documents as the Commissioner may require; and ( c ) accompanied by the prescribed fee. (2) Upon receiving an application under subsection (1), the Commissioner may — ( a ) grant the approval applied for either unconditionally or subject to such conditions as the Commissioner thinks fit; or ( b ) refuse the application. (3) The Commissioner must not approve any person as an authorised person unless the Commissioner is satisfied that the applicant — ( a ) possesses the prescribed qualifications and prescribed practical experience; and ( b ) is sufficiently competent and is, in all other respects, a fit and proper person, to be entrusted to carry out the work of the relevant authorised person. (4) The Commissioner may at any time vary or revoke any of the existing conditions imposed under subsection (2) or impose new conditions. (5) Upon the approval of a person as an authorised person, the Commissioner must issue the applicant with a certificate of approval to act as a relevant authorised person for such period and subject to such terms and conditions as the Commissioner may specify therein.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s34
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 34
title: Duration of approval
content:
34. —(1) Subject to section 35, any approval of a person as an authorised person is valid for such period as the Commissioner may determine. (2) The Commissioner may, on application in writing and on payment of the prescribed fee, renew the approval of any authorised person.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s35
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 35
title: Cancellation of approval
content:
35. —(1) The Commissioner may suspend or cancel the approval of a person as an authorised person if — ( a ) the Commissioner is satisfied that the person — (i) had obtained or procured the person’s approval by fraud or misrepresentation; (ii) has breached any term or condition subject to which the approval was granted; or (iii) is no longer a fit and proper person to act as a relevant authorised person; or ( b ) the Commissioner considers that it is in the public interest to do so. (2) The Commissioner must, before cancelling the approval of a person as an authorised person under subsection (1) — ( a ) give the affected person written notice of the Commissioner’s intention to do so; ( b ) specify a date, at least 21 days after the date of the notice, upon which the cancellation takes effect; and ( c ) call upon the affected person to show cause to the Commissioner why the Commissioner’s approval as an authorised person should not be cancelled. (3) If the person to whom a notice has been given under subsection (2) — ( a ) fails to show cause within the period of time given to the person to do so or such extended period of time as the Commissioner may allow; or ( b ) fails to show sufficient cause, the Commissioner must give written notice to that person of the date from which the cancellation of the approval takes effect. (4) A person whose approval as an authorised person has been cancelled may, within 14 days after the receipt of the notice mentioned in subsection (3), appeal in writing against the cancellation to the Minister whose decision is final.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s36
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 36
title: Surrender of certificate
content:
36. A person whose approval as an authorised person has been cancelled by the Commissioner under section 35 must, within 7 days of the date of the cancellation, surrender the person’s certificate of approval issued under section 33(5).


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s37
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 37
title: False assumption of title
content:
37. A person must not claim or imply that the person is approved by the Commissioner as a relevant authorised person unless the person is approved as such by the Commissioner under section 33.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s38
chapter: PART 7 - SAFETY AND HEALTH
section: 38
title: Offence under this Part
content:
38. Any person who contravenes section 32, 36 or 37 shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s39
chapter: PART 8 - WORKPLACE SAFETY AND
section: 39
title: Establishment of Workplace Safety and Health Council
content:
39. —(1) A Workplace Safety and Health Council is established, consisting of the following members, each of whom must be appointed by the Minister in accordance with this section: ( a ) a chairperson; ( b ) a deputy chairperson; and ( c ) at least 10 but not more than 18 other members. (2) The chairperson, the deputy chairperson and every member of the Council are to be appointed for a term not exceeding 3 years and are eligible for re‑appointment. (3) The Minister may, at any time, revoke the appointment of the chairperson, the deputy chairperson or any member of the Council. (4) If any member of the Council dies, resigns or is removed from office, the Minister may appoint any person to fill the vacancy and the person so appointed holds office for the remainder of the term for which the vacating member was appointed. (5) The powers of the Council are not affected by any vacancy in the membership thereof.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s40
chapter: PART 8 - WORKPLACE SAFETY AND
section: 40
title: Powers and proceedings of Council
content:
40. —(1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Council may determine its own procedure. (2) At any meeting of the Council, 5 members thereof constitutes a quorum. (3) The chairperson of the Council or, in the chairperson’s absence, the deputy chairperson thereof presides at all meetings of the Council and, in their absence, the members present must elect one of their number to preside. (4) The deputy chairperson of the Council may, subject to such directions as may be given by the chairperson thereof, exercise all or any of the powers exercisable by the chairperson of the Council under this Act. (5) The Council may appoint, from among its own members or other persons who are not members of the Council, such number of committees as it may think fit consisting of its members or other persons, or both its members and other persons, for purposes which, in the opinion of the Council, would be better regulated and managed by means of such committees.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s40A
chapter: PART 8 - WORKPLACE SAFETY AND
section: 40A
title: Functions of Council
content:
40A. The functions of the Council are — ( a ) to develop or facilitate the development of acceptable practices relating to safety, health and welfare at work; ( b ) to promote the adoption of acceptable practices relating to safety, health and welfare at work; ( c ) to devise, organise and implement programmes and other activities for or related to providing support, assistance or advice to any person or organisation in preserving, improving and promoting safety, health and welfare at work; ( d ) to facilitate and promote the development and upgrading of competencies, skills and expertise of the workforce relating to safety, health and welfare at work; ( e ) to research into any matter relating to safety, health and welfare at work; ( f ) to grant prizes and scholarships, and to establish and subsidise lectureships in universities and other educational institutions in subjects relating to safety, health and welfare at work; ( g ) to provide practical guidance with respect to the requirements of this Act relating to safety, health and welfare at work; and ( h ) to do all the things that it is authorised or required to do under this Act.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s40B
chapter: PART 8 - WORKPLACE SAFETY AND
section: 40B
title: Codes of practice
content:
40B. —(1) For the purpose of providing practical guidance with respect to the requirements of this Act relating to safety, health and welfare at work, the Council may do all or any of the following: ( a ) issue one or more codes of practice, which may include any code of practice issued or approved under another written law if the Council considers that code of practice suitable for this purpose; ( b ) approve as a code of practice any document prepared by any person or organisation other than the Council if the Council considers the document as a suitable document for this purpose; ( c ) amend or revoke any code of practice issued or approved under this section. (2) The power of the Council under subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ) to issue or approve a code of practice that is either a code of practice issued or approved under another written law or a document prepared by any person or organisation other than the Council includes the power to issue or approve a part of such a code of practice or document. (3) Where a code of practice is issued, approved, amended or revoked by the Council under subsection (1), the Council must — ( a ) publish a notice of the issue, approval, amendment or revocation (as the case may be) of the code of practice in such manner as will secure adequate publicity for such issue, approval, amendment or revocation; ( b ) specify in the notice mentioned in paragraph ( a ) — (i) the date of issue, approval, amendment or revocation, as the case may be; (ii) the class of hazards, activities or articles in respect of which the code of practice is issued, approved, amended or revoked; and (iii) the place at and the time during which, or the Internet website where, the code of practice which is the subject of the notice may be inspected; and ( c ) ensure that, so long as the code of practice remains in force, copies of that code, and of all amendments to that code, are available — (i) for inspection by members of the public free of charge; and (ii) for purchase by members of the public at a reasonable price. (4) Any code of practice, amendment to an approved code of practice or revocation of any such approved code of practice, does not have any force or effect until the notice relating thereto is published in accordance with subsection (3). (5) An approved code of practice that is also either a code of practice issued or approved under another written law or a document prepared by any person or organisation other than the Council must consist of the contents of that code or document as that code or document existed on the date it was issued or approved as an approved code of practice under this section. (6) If any provision of any approved code of practice is inconsistent with any provision of this Act, such provision, to the extent of the inconsistency — ( a ) has effect subject to the provisions of this Act; or ( b ) having regard to the provisions of this Act, does not have effect. (7) Any approved code of practice is deemed not to be subsidiary legislation.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s40C
chapter: PART 8 - WORKPLACE SAFETY AND
section: 40C
title: Use of approved codes of practice in criminal proceedings
content:
40C. —(1) A person shall not be liable to any criminal proceedings by reason only that the person has failed to observe any approved code of practice. (2) In any proceedings for an offence under this Act, an approved code of practice that is relevant to any matter which it is necessary for the prosecution to prove in order to establish the commission of the offence is admissible in evidence in the proceedings. (3) Without affecting any other method of proof, in any proceedings for an offence under this Act — ( a ) the production of a document purporting to be a copy of a notice published by the Council under section 40B(3)( a ) is taken to be such a notice until the contrary is proved; and ( b ) the production of a code of practice, or an amendment or a revocation of a code of practice, purporting to be the subject of a notice under section 40B(3)( a ) is taken to be the subject of that notice until the contrary is proved. (4) In determining for the purpose of any provision of this Act as to whether any machinery, equipment, plant, installation or article is of good construction, sound material, adequate strength or in accordance with the generally accepted principles of safe and sound practice, regard must be had any relevant Singapore Standards established and published by the Enterprise Singapore Board under the Enterprise Singapore Board Act 2018 or such other standards, codes of practice or guidance acceptable to the Council. [10/2018]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s41
chapter: PART 9 - INSPECTIONS AND OTHER POWERS
section: 41
title: Powers of inspectors
content:
41. —(1) An inspector has, for the purposes of the execution of this Act, power to do all or any of the following: ( a ) to enter, inspect and examine at any time any workplace; ( b ) to enter, inspect and examine at all reasonable times any place which the inspector has reasonable cause to believe to be — (i) a workplace; or (ii) a place of which a workplace forms a part; ( c ) to inspect and examine any machinery, equipment, plant, installation or article in any place mentioned in paragraphs ( a ) and ( b ); ( d ) to require the production of workplace records, certificates, notices and documents kept or required to be kept under this Act, and to inspect, examine and make a copy of any of them; ( e ) to make such examination and inquiry as may be necessary to ascertain whether the provisions of this Act are complied with, so far as regards any workplace and any person at work; ( f ) to require any person whom the inspector finds in a workplace to give such particulars of the employer and the occupier of the workplace as are within the person’s knowledge; ( g ) in the case of an inspector who is a registered medical practitioner, to carry out on any person who is or had been working in a workplace such medical examinations as may be necessary for the purposes of the inspector’s duties under this Act; ( h ) to take samples of any material or substance found in a workplace or being discharged from any workplace for the purpose of analysis or test; ( i ) to assess the levels of noise, illumination, heat or harmful or hazardous substances in any workplace and the exposure levels of persons at work therein; ( j ) to require any hospital, medical clinic or mortuary to provide any information (including the medical records) of any person who is or had been working in a workplace who is injured in an accident in a workplace or who is suspected of suffering from an occupational disease contracted from a workplace and is receiving treatment at the hospital or medical clinic; ( k ) to take such photographs or video recording as the inspector thinks necessary to record the conditions in a workplace and the processes carried on therein which may be dangerous to the safety or health of the persons at work therein; ( l ) to require any person to produce any article which is relevant to any investigation or inquiry under this Act and, if necessary, to take into custody any such article; ( m ) to require any person whom the inspector finds in the workplace to produce evidence of the person’s identity. (2) Any person who is found in a workplace must render all necessary assistance and cooperation to the inspector as are necessary for an entry, inspection, examination, inquiry, the taking of samples or otherwise for the exercise of the inspector’s powers under this Act in relation to that workplace. (3) If entry to a workplace cannot be obtained, an inspector may — ( a ) break open any outer or inner door or window leading to the workplace; ( b ) forcibly enter such workplace and every part thereof; or ( c ) remove by force any obstruction to such entry or search. (4) Any person who — ( a ) obstructs or delays an inspector in the exercise of the inspector’s power under this section; ( b ) fails to comply with any order of an inspector under this section, or fails to produce any record, certificate, notice or document which the person is required by or under this Act to produce; ( c ) withholds any information as to who the employer or occupier of the workplace is; or ( d ) conceals or prevents or attempts to conceal or prevent a person from appearing before or being examined by an inspector, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s42
chapter: PART 9 - INSPECTIONS AND OTHER POWERS
section: 42
title: Power to take samples
content:
42. —(1) An inspector may, at any time after informing the occupier of a workplace or any person apparently in charge of the workplace, take for analysis sufficient samples of — ( a ) any substance used or intended to be used in the workplace; ( b ) any substance found in the workplace that is required for the purposes of an investigation or inquiry under this Act; ( c ) any substance the use or presence of which in the workplace is suspected to be prohibited under this Act; or ( d ) any substance found in the workplace which, in the inspector’s opinion, is likely or may prove on analysis to be likely to cause bodily injury to the persons at work in the workplace. (2) The occupier of a workplace or any person apparently in charge of the workplace may, at the time when a sample is taken under this section, and on providing the necessary appliances, require the inspector to divide the sample into 3 parts, to mark and seal or fasten up each part in such manner as its nature permits, and — ( a ) to deliver one part to the occupier of the workplace or the person apparently in charge of the workplace; ( b ) to retain one part for future comparison; and ( c ) to submit one part to the Health Sciences Authority, or any testing laboratory as the Commissioner may appoint, for analysis. (3) A certificate purporting to be a certificate by an analyst employed by the Health Sciences Authority or the testing laboratory appointed by the Commissioner under subsection (2)( c ) as to the result of an analysis of a sample under this section is admissible in any proceedings under this Act as evidence of the matters stated therein, but either party may require the person by whom the analysis was made to be called as a witness. (4) A person must not interfere with any equipment, instrument or device used for monitoring the workplace or taking samples for analysis. (5) Any person who — ( a ) contravenes subsection (4); or ( b ) without the permission of the Commissioner, publishes or discloses to any person the results of any analysis made under this section, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s43
chapter: PART 9 - INSPECTIONS AND OTHER POWERS
section: 43
title: Power to examine and secure attendance
content:
43. —(1) An inspector may — ( a ) examine orally any person supposed to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of any accident or dangerous occurrence or occupational disease occurring in the workplace, or with respect to any matter under this Act, and to reduce to writing any statement made by the person so examined; and ( b ) require by order in writing the attendance before the inspector of any person, being within the limits of Singapore, who, from information given or otherwise, appears to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of matters under this Act and that person must attend as so required. (2) The person mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) is bound to state truly the facts and circumstances with which he or she is acquainted concerning matters under this Act, except only that he or she may decline to make with regard to any fact or circumstance, a statement which would have a tendency to expose him or her to a criminal charge, penalty or forfeiture. (3) A statement made under this section by any person must be read over to him or her and must, after correction, if necessary, be signed by him or her. (4) If any person fails to attend as required by an order under subsection (1)( b ), the inspector may report such failure to a Magistrate who may thereupon issue a warrant to secure the attendance of that person as required by the order.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s44
chapter: PART 9 - INSPECTIONS AND OTHER POWERS
section: 44
title: Competency of inspector as witness
content:
44. In any case where a prosecution under this Act is brought at the instance of, or is conducted by, an inspector, there is to be no objection to the competency of an inspector to give evidence as a witness in any prosecution for an offence under this Act by reason that the prosecution is brought at the inspector’s instance, or conducted by the inspector.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s45
chapter: PART 9 - INSPECTIONS AND OTHER POWERS
section: 45
title: Persons not to reveal protected information
content:
45. —(1) If a person exercising any function under this Act as an inspector obtains protected information about the affairs of another person, the inspector must not disclose that protected information to any other person unless the disclosure — ( a ) is made with the written consent of the person to whom the information relates; ( b ) is for the purpose of the administration or enforcement of this Act; or ( c ) is in compliance with the requirement of any court, tribunal, authority or person having lawful authority to require the production of documents or the answering of questions. (2) If any person acts in contravention of subsection (1), he or she shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. (3) For the purpose of this section, the reference to a person disclosing any protected information includes his or her permitting any other person to have any access to any record, document or other thing containing that information which is in his or her possession or under his or her control by virtue of the person being or having been an inspector. (4) In this section, “protected information” means information the disclosure of which would, or could reasonably be expected to disclose a trade secret or to adversely affect a person in relation to the lawful business affairs of that person.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s46
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 46
title: Unregistered factories
content:
46. —(1) A person must not occupy or use any premises as a factory if — ( a ) the regulations require the person to hold a certificate of registration of a factory issued under the regulations; and ( b ) the person does not hold such a valid certificate of registration of a factory. [18/2011] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both; and ( b ) in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $500 or to further imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 days or to both for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s47
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 47
title: Onus of proving what is reasonably practicable
content:
47. Where in any proceedings for an offence under any provision in this Act, it is alleged that any person failed to comply with a duty to do something so far as is reasonably practicable, it is for the accused to prove that — ( a ) it was not reasonably practicable to do more than what was in fact done to satisfy that duty; or ( b ) there was no better practicable means than was in fact used to satisfy that duty.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s48
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 48
title: Offences by bodies corporate, etc.
content:
48. —(1) Where an offence under this Act has been committed by a body corporate, an officer of the body corporate shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly unless the officer proves that — ( a ) the offence was committed without his or her consent or connivance; and ( b ) he or she had exercised all such diligence to prevent the commission of the offence as he or she ought to have exercised having regard to the nature of his or her functions in that capacity and to all the circumstances. (2) Where the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, subsection (1) applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a member in connection with the member’s functions of management as if the member were a director of the body corporate. (3) Where an offence under this Act is committed by a partnership of individuals or bodies corporate, any partner of the partnership or any officer of the body corporate shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly unless he or she proves that — ( a ) the offence was committed without his or her consent or connivance; and ( b ) he or she had exercised all such diligence to prevent the commission of the offence as he or she ought to have exercised having regard to the nature of his or her functions in that capacity and to all the circumstances. (4) Where an offence under this Act is committed by an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), any officer of the unincorporated association or member of its governing body shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly unless he or she proves that — ( a ) the offence was committed without his or her consent or connivance; and ( b ) he or she had exercised all such diligence to prevent the commission of the offence as he or she ought to have exercised having regard to the nature of his or her functions in that capacity and to all the circumstances. (5) In this section — “body corporate” includes a limited liability partnership; “officer” — ( a ) in relation to a body corporate, means any director, partner, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; and ( b ) in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary, or any member of the committee of the unincorporated association, or any person holding a position analogous to that of the president, secretary or member of the committee and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner. (6) Regulations may provide for the application of any provision of this section, with such modifications as the Minister considers appropriate, to any body corporate or unincorporated association formed or recognised under the law of a territory outside Singapore.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s49
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 49
title: Arrest of person accused of offence under section 15(3) or 21(7)
content:
49. —(1) Any person reasonably suspected of having committed an offence under section 15(3) or 21(7) may be arrested without warrant by any police officer or by any inspector authorised by the Commissioner in that behalf and produced before a Magistrate’s Court or a District Court. (2) Despite any other written law, any police officer or inspector who, having effected an arrest in accordance with subsection (1), is satisfied as to the identity, name and place of residence of the person arrested may, instead of producing the person before a court or to a police station, serve upon the person a prescribed notice requiring the person to attend at such court, at such time and on such date as may be specified in the notice. (3) For the purpose of satisfying himself or herself as to the identity of the person arrested, the police officer or inspector may require any evidence of identity that the police officer or inspector considers necessary to be furnished by the person. (4) A duplicate of the notice served under subsection (2) must be prepared by the police officer or inspector (as the case may be) and produced by him or her to the court if so required by the court. (5) Where an accused person appears before a court in accordance with a notice served under subsection (2), the court is to take cognizance of the offence alleged and is to proceed as though the person were produced before the court pursuant to subsection (1). (6) If a person upon whom a notice has been served under subsection (2) fails to appear before a court in accordance with the notice, the court may issue a warrant for the arrest of that person. (7) Where a person arrested pursuant to a warrant issued under subsection (6) is produced before a court, the court is to proceed as though the person were produced before the court under subsection (1). [Act 31 of 2022 wef 01/11/2022] (8) [ Deleted by Act 31 of 2022 wef 01/11/2022 ]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s50
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 50
title: General penalties
content:
50. Any person guilty of an offence under this Act (but not including the regulations) for which no penalty is expressly provided by this Act shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) in the case of a natural person, to a fine not exceeding $200,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both; and ( b ) in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding $500,000, and, if the contravention in respect of which the person was so convicted continues after the conviction, the person shall (subject to section 52) be guilty of a further offence and shall be liable to a fine — ( c ) in the case of a natural person, not exceeding $2,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; or ( d ) in the case of a body corporate, not exceeding $5,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s51
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 51
title: Penalty for repeat offenders
content:
51. Where a person — ( a ) has on at least one previous occasion been convicted of an offence under this Act (but not including the regulations) that causes the death of any person; and ( b ) is subsequently convicted of the same offence that causes the death of another person, the court may, in addition to any imprisonment if prescribed, punish the person with — ( c ) in the case of a natural person, a fine not exceeding $400,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, with a further fine not exceeding $2,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; and ( d ) in the case of a body corporate, a fine not exceeding $1 million and, in the case of a continuing offence, with a further fine not exceeding $5,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s52
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 52
title: Power of court to order cause of contravention to be remedied
content:
52. —(1) Where any person is convicted of an offence under this Act, the court may, in addition to or instead of imposing any penalty, order the person to take, within the time specified in the order (or within such further time as the court may allow), such steps as may be so specified for remedying the matters in respect of which the contravention occurred. (2) Subject to subsection (3), where an order is made under subsection (1), the convicted person shall not be liable under this Act in respect of the continuation of the contravention during the time specified in the order or allowed by the court to remedy the matters in respect of which the contravention occurred. (3) If, after the expiry of the time specified in the order or allowed by the court under subsection (1) following a conviction of an offence, the order is not complied with, the person mentioned in that subsection shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day during which the non-compliance continues after the date of conviction for that firstmentioned offence.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s53
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 53
title: Forgery of certificates, false entries and false declarations
content:
53. If any person — ( a ) forges or counterfeits any certificate required by, under, or for the purposes of, this Act; ( b ) gives or signs any certificate required by, under, or for the purposes of, this Act knowing it to be false in any material particular; ( c ) knowingly utters or makes use of any certificate required by, under, or for the purposes of, this Act that is forged, counterfeited or false; ( d ) knowingly utters or makes use of, as applying to any person, any certificate required by, under, or for the purposes of, this Act which does not so apply; ( e ) personates any person named in any certificate required by, under, or for the purposes of, this Act; ( f ) falsely pretends to be an inspector; ( g ) wilfully connives at any of the matters referred to in paragraphs ( a ) to ( f ); ( h ) wilfully makes a false entry in any record, certificate, notice or document required by, under, or for the purposes of, this Act to be kept, served or sent; ( i ) wilfully makes or signs a declaration required by, under, or for the purposes of, this Act which is false; or ( j ) knowingly makes use of any false entry or declaration mentioned in paragraph ( h ) or ( i ), that person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s55
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 55
title: When Magistrate may try offence
content:
55. For the purpose of section 151 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, on receiving the complaint in writing and signed by an inspector, the Magistrate must proceed to issue a summons or warrant in accordance with section 153 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010. [15/2010]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s56
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 56
title: Composition of offences
content:
56. —(1) The Commissioner may compound any offence under this Act that is prescribed as a compoundable offence by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence or a sum of $5,000, whichever is the lower. (2) On payment of the sum of money, no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. (3) All sums collected under this section must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s57
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 57
title: Power to modify agreements
content:
57. —(1) If, by reason of an agreement between the owner and the occupier of the workplace, the whole or any part of which has been let as a workplace, the owner or the occupier of the workplace is prevented from carrying out any structural or other alterations in the premises which are necessary to enable the owner or occupier to comply with the provisions of this Act or in order to conform with any standard or requirement imposed by or under this Act, the owner or the occupier of the workplace may apply to the General Division of the High Court for the terms of the agreement to be set aside or modified. [40/2019] (2) The General Division of the High Court may, after hearing the parties and any witness whom they may desire to call, make such an order setting aside or modifying the terms of the agreement as the General Division of the High Court considers just and equitable in the circumstances of the case. [40/2019]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s58
chapter: PART 10 - OFFENCES, PENALTIES
section: 58
title: Power to apportion expenses
content:
58. —(1) Where in any premises the whole or any part of which has been let as a workplace any structural or other alterations are required in order to comply with the provisions of this Act or to conform with any standard or requirement imposed by or under this Act, and the owner or occupier of the workplace (as the case may be) alleges that the whole or part of the expenses of the alterations ought to be borne by the owner or occupier of the workplace, the owner or occupier of the workplace may apply to the General Division of the High Court for the expenses of the alterations to be apportioned between them. [40/2019] (2) The General Division of the High Court may, after hearing the parties and any witness whom they may desire to call, make such an order concerning the apportionment of their expenses as the General Division of the High Court considers just and equitable in the circumstances of the case, regard being had to the terms of any contract between the parties, or in the alternative, the General Division of the High Court may, at the request of the owner or occupier of the workplace, determine the lease. [40/2019]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s59
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL
section: 59
title: Relation to other laws
content:
59. Nothing in this Act or in any approved code of practice derogates from the effect of any other written law for the time being in force.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s60
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL
section: 60
title: Civil liability
content:
60. —(1) Nothing in this Act is to be construed — ( a ) as conferring a right of action in any civil proceedings in respect of any contravention, whether by act or omission, of any provision of this Act; or ( b ) as conferring a defence to an action in any civil proceedings or as otherwise affecting a right of action in any civil proceedings. (2) Subsection (1) does not affect the extent (if any) to which a breach of duty imposed under any written law is actionable.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s61
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL
section: 61
title: Protection from personal liability
content:
61. —(1) No liability shall lie personally against — ( a ) the Commissioner; ( b ) a Deputy Commissioner; ( c ) an inspector; or ( d ) an authorised officer appointed by the Commissioner under section 7(3), who, acting in good faith and with reasonable care, does or omits to do anything in the execution or purported execution of this Act. [44/2017] (2) No liability shall lie personally against an authorised examiner who, acting in good faith and with reasonable care in the course of carrying out any prescribed examination or test, damages any one or more of the following items: ( a ) a hoist or lift; ( b ) a lifting gear; ( c ) a lifting appliance or lifting machine; ( d ) a steam boiler; ( e ) a steam receiver; ( f ) an air receiver; ( g ) a refrigerating plant pressure receiver; ( h ) a pressure vessel; ( i ) any other machinery required by this Act to be examined or tested by an authorised examiner. [44/2017]


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s62
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL
section: 62
title: Exempt workers, workplaces and equipment, etc.
content:
62. —(1) The provisions of this Act do not apply to the persons at work specified in the Sixth Schedule, even though their work is carried out or performed in a workplace. [18/2011] (2) The Minister may, by order in the Gazette and with or without conditions, exempt — ( a ) any class or description of workplaces from all or any of the provisions of this Act; ( b ) any class or description of persons from compliance with all or any of the provisions of this Act; or ( c ) any class or description of machinery, equipment, plant, installation or articles from all or any of the provisions of this Act. (3) The Commissioner may, subject to any general or special directions of the Minister, by a certificate in writing, with or without conditions, exempt — ( a ) any machinery, equipment, plant, installation or article that is identified specifically in the certificate from all or any of the provisions of this Act; or ( b ) any person identified specifically in the certificate from compliance with all or any of the provisions of this Act. (4) If an exemption is granted under this section with conditions, the exemption operates only if the conditions are complied with.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s63
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL
section: 63
title: Service of documents, etc.
content:
63. —(1) Any document (including any summons or order) required or authorised to be served under this Act may be served — ( a ) on any person by delivering it to the person, or by leaving it at, or sending it by registered post to, his or her residence; ( b ) on any firm by delivering it to any partner of the firm, or by leaving it at, or sending it by registered post to, an office of the firm; or ( c ) on the owner of any premises, the owner of any equipment or occupier of the workplace (including any such owner or occupier of the workplace being a company registered under the Companies Act 1967, a variable capital company incorporated under the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018, or a co‑operative society registered under the Co‑operative Societies Act 1979) in any such manner as aforesaid or by delivering it, or a true copy thereof, to the manager, foreman or other responsible person at the workplace. [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022] (2) Any such document may be addressed, for the purpose of the service thereof on the occupier of a workplace, to “the occupier of the workplace” at the proper postal address of the workplace, without further name or description. (3) Subsections (1) and (2) apply, with the necessary modifications, to documents required or authorised under this Act to be sent to any person, firm, owner or occupier of the workplace, and to the sending, addressing and delivering of such documents.


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s64
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL
section: 64
title: Amendment of Schedules
content:
64. —(1) Subject to this section, the Minister may, by order in the Gazette , amend any of the Schedules. [18/2011] (2) The Minister may prescribe in the order under subsection (1) such transitional, incidental and consequential provisions as may be necessary or expedient. (3) Every order made under subsection (1) must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette .


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s65
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL
section: 65
title: Regulations
content:
65. —(1) The Minister may make regulations for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Minister may make regulations for or with respect to all or any of the following matters: ( a ) any matter relating to the registration of a factory, including — (i) the class or description of factories which require registration; (ii) the form and manner of application for the registration; (iii) the conditions of registration; (iv) the circumstances under which an application for registration may be granted or refused; (v) the issuance of a certificate of registration of a factory; (vi) the duration of a certificate of registration of a factory; (vii) the form, custody and maintenance of any register to be kept by the Commissioner of any premises registered as a factory or in respect of which a certificate of registration of a factory is issued; (viii) the circumstances under which a certificate of registration of a factory may be renewed, extended or revoked; (ix) the imposition of any duty on the occupier of a factory to provide such information to the Commissioner with respect to any change in any matter in relation to the factory; (x) the bringing of appeals to the Minister in respect of the registration of factories or the issue of certificates of registration of factories; ( b ) the lighting, ventilation, temperature, humidity, radiant heat, noise, drainage and hygiene in workplaces, and the fixing of standards therefor; ( c ) the provision of first-aid resources and the appointment of first-aiders in workplaces; ( d ) the procedures and resources required in case of fire at any workplace; ( e ) the means (if any) required for removing impurities from the air in workplaces and for reducing excessive heat and noise in workplaces; ( f ) the permissible exposure levels, control and disposal of any toxic or noxious materials, whether solid, liquid, gaseous or vaporous; ( g ) the handling, storage and disposal of any harmful organisms and biohazardous material; ( h ) the use and control of, and the safeguards and safety measures when using, any dangerous machinery or equipment; ( i ) the types of clothing and appliances to be provided for use at work; ( j ) in relation to any hoist or lift, lifting gear, lifting appliance and lifting machine, steam boiler, steam receiver, air receiver, refrigerating plant pressure receiver, or any other machine — (i) the conditions under which it may be used and any safety requirement in relation to its use; (ii) its construction, use or maintenance; (iii) the issue of certificates of competency to persons who may operate, or take charge of and control over it; (iv) any examination or test which is required to be conducted on it; (v) the person who may examine or test it to ensure its safe working condition; (vi) the manner in which any examination or test is to be carried out; (vii) the frequency of such examination or test; (viii) the form, custody and inspection of any certificate or report of such examination or test; (ix) the duty of any approved person who conducts such examination or test; and (x) the imposition of any duty on any person in order to ensure its safe operation or the safety of persons at work; ( k ) the fees to be paid in respect of any matter or thing done or document issued under this Act; ( l ) the issue of certificates of competency to persons taking charge of or operating internal combustion engines; ( m ) the nature of the examination for certificates of competency to be issued to persons taking charge of or operating steam boilers or internal combustion engines, the constitution of a board of examiners, the form of the certificates of competency, and the fees to be paid for such examination and certificates; ( n ) the accreditation of accredited training providers to conduct safety and health training courses for persons who are required to attend such courses under this Act, the establishment of a scheme to accredit training providers, and the fees to be paid by the accredited training providers under that scheme; ( o ) the nature of any gas plant that may be used; ( p ) the type of fittings and pipes that may be used in all or any types of gas plant; ( q ) the inspection of gas plants; ( r ) the prevention or minimisation of risk of bodily injury or injury to health where any manufacture, machinery, equipment, installation, plant, article or process used or work carried out in any workplace involves such risk; ( s ) the procedures for preparing and publishing a learning report; ( t ) the arrangements to be made for the medical supervision and medical examination (not including medical treatment of a preventive character), and for the removal from exposure of risk of any person or any class of persons at work; ( u ) the health, safety and welfare in respect of the following types of work: (i) building operations undertaken by way of trade or business, or for the purpose of any industrial or commercial undertaking; (ii) work of engineering construction undertaken by way of trade or business, or for the purpose of any industrial or commercial undertaking; (iii) design and management of building operations or work of engineering construction; (iv) work involving the use of or exposure to pesticides; (v) maintenance and repair of roads; (vi) building renovation work; (vii) lift maintenance and repair; (viii) work in confined spaces; (ix) work involving the use of visual display units; (x) work involving a steam boiler, a steam receiver or an air receiver; and (xi) any other process, work or operation — (A) which is of such a nature as to cause any risk of bodily injury to any person at work; or (B) which poses any health hazard to persons at work; ( v ) the conduct of any risk assessment or safety and health arrangement and the duties of any occupier, employer, platform operator or any other person in relation to the conduct of the risk assessment or the safety and health arrangement; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] ( w ) the implementation of any safety and health management system and the duties of any occupier, employer, platform operator or any other person in relation to the implementation of the safety and health management system; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] ( x ) in relation to the Council, the payment of allowances to a member of the Council who is not a public servant; ( y ) the prescribing of anything that is required or permitted to be prescribed under this Act. [18/2011; 44/2017] (3) The regulations made under this section may provide that any contravention of any provision of the regulations shall be an offence punishable — ( a ) in the case of an offence that may cause, or result in, any death or serious bodily injury to an individual or any dangerous occurrence in a workplace, with a fine not exceeding $50,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or with both; and ( b ) in the case of any other offence, with a fine not exceeding $20,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or with both. [44/2017] (4) The regulations may impose duties on any person who has control or influence over any aspect of workplace safety or health, including but not limited to any occupier, owner, employer, platform operator, manufacturer, designer or employed person. [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] (5) Regulations made under subsection (2)( r ) may, among other things — ( a ) prohibit the employment of, or modify or limit the hours of employment of, any person at work in connection with any manufacture, machinery, plant, process or description of work; ( b ) prohibit, limit or control the use of any material or process; ( c ) prescribe maximum weights which may be lifted, carried or moved by any person at work; ( d ) prescribe the qualifications and minimum age of, and the training to be received by, persons who are at work using any machinery or plant; and ( e ) prescribe the procedures to be undertaken before the work can be carried out. (6) Regulations made under subsection (2)( t ) may — ( a ) require the medical supervision and medical examination under the regulations to be carried out by persons registered with the Commissioner; and ( b ) prescribe the qualifications and other conditions to be satisfied for such registration. (7) Regulations made under subsection (2)( u ) may — ( a ) apply any of the provisions of this Act to the classes of premises, processes or operations mentioned in that subsection; ( b ) impose duties on persons involved in the type of work mentioned in that subsection, including any developer, contractor, architect or engineer; and ( c ) prescribe the qualifications and training to be received by persons involved in the type of work mentioned in that subsection. (8) All regulations made under this section must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette .


document_id: wsha-2006
provision_ref: s66
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL
section: 66
title: Saving and transitional provisions
content:
66. —(1) Any subsidiary legislation made under the repealed Act and in force immediately before 1 March 2006, so far as it is not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, continues in force in factories as if made under this Act until it is revoked or repealed. (2) Any written law or document referring to the repealed Act or any provision thereof is, as far as may be necessary for preserving its effect, to be construed as referring to or as including a reference to this Act or the corresponding provision in this Act, as the case may be.


# definitions

document_id: aa-1928
term: dividends
source_provision: s2
definition:
“dividends” includes (besides dividends strictly so called) all payments made by the name of dividend, bonus or otherwise out of the revenue of trading or other public companies, divisible between all or any of the members of the respective companies, whether the payments are usually made or declared at any fixed times or otherwise; and all that divisible revenue shall, for the purposes of this Act, be deemed to have accrued by equal daily increment during and within the period for or in respect of which the payment of the same revenue is declared or expressed to be made, but does not include payments in the nature of a return or reimbursement of capital;


document_id: aa-1966
term: public authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public authority” means the President, the Government, any statutory authority exercising powers vested in it by any written law, any tribunal other than the Supreme Court and the subordinate courts, or any officer or authority appointed by or acting on behalf of any of the aforesaid;


document_id: aa-1966
term: public funds
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public funds” means any moneys, bonds, debentures or securities, received from individuals, corporations or bodies by way of loans, trusts or any other voluntary payments, which are intended to be disbursed or are in fact disbursed for the benefit of the citizens of Singapore or any part of them, and includes any public moneys.


document_id: aa-1991
term: architectural services
source_provision: s2
definition:
“architectural services” includes selling or supplying for gain or reward any architectural plan, drawing, tracing or the like for use in the construction, enlargement or alteration of any building or part thereof;


document_id: aa-1991
term: builder
source_provision: s2
definition:
“builder” , “building” and “building works” have the meanings given by the Building Control Act 1989;


document_id: aa-1991
term: building authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“building authority” means any person empowered under the provisions of the Building Control Act 1989 to approve plans of building works;


document_id: aa-1991
term: Commissioner of Building Control
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Commissioner of Building Control” means any person empowered under the provisions of the Building Control Act 1989 to approve plans of building works;


document_id: aa-1991
term: foreign architect
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foreign architect” means any person who is authorised to practise as an architect in a country or territory outside Singapore under the law of that country or territory;


document_id: aa-1991
term: foreign registration authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foreign registration authority” , for any country or territory outside Singapore, means the person in that country or territory having the function conferred by the laws of that country or territory of registering persons in connection with the persons carrying on the practice of architecture in that country or territory;


document_id: aa-1991
term: licensed
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licensed” , in relation to a corporation, partnership or limited liability partnership, means a corporation, partnership or limited liability partnership which has in force a licence;


document_id: aa-1991
term: limited liability partnership
source_provision: s2
definition:
“limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: aa-1991
term: limited partnership
source_provision: s2
definition:
“limited partnership” means a limited partnership registered under the Limited Partnerships Act 2008;


document_id: aa-1991
term: nominee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“nominee” , in relation to any person, means a person who is accustomed or under an obligation (whether formal or informal) to act in accordance with the directions, instructions or wishes of another person, except that a person is not to be regarded as a nominee of another person by reason only that the person acts on advice given by that other person in a professional capacity;


document_id: aa-1991
term: participating jurisdiction
source_provision: s2
definition:
“participating jurisdiction” means any country or territory outside Singapore in relation to which an arrangement under section 6A(2) is in force;


document_id: aa-1991
term: register of architects
source_provision: s2
definition:
“register of architects” means the register of architects kept and maintained by the Board under section 8(1)( a );


document_id: aa-1991
term: register of licensees
source_provision: s2
definition:
“register of licensees” means the annual register of licensed corporations, partnerships and limited liability partnerships kept by the Board under section 8(1)( e );


document_id: aa-1991
term: register of practitioners
source_provision: s2
definition:
“register of practitioners” means the annual register of practitioners kept by the Board under section 8(1)( d );


document_id: aa-1991
term: unlimited corporation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“unlimited corporation” means a corporation formed on the principle of having no limit placed on the liability of its members. [18/2003; 28/2005; 20/2017; 5/2018]


document_id: aa-1991
term: corporation
source_provision: s35
definition:
“corporation” includes a limited liability partnership within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: aa-1991
term: officer
source_provision: s35A
definition:
“officer” , in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary, or any member of the committee of the unincorporated association, and includes — ( a )


document_id: aa-2001
term: appellate court
source_provision: s2
definition:
“appellate court” means the court to which an appeal from a decision of the Court is to be made under section 29C of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1969;


document_id: aa-2001
term: arbitral tribunal
source_provision: s2
definition:
“arbitral tribunal” means a sole arbitrator or a panel of arbitrators or an arbitral institution, and includes an emergency arbitrator appointed pursuant to the rules of arbitration agreed to or adopted by the parties including the rules of arbitration of an institution or organisation;


document_id: aa-2001
term: award
source_provision: s2
definition:
“award” means a decision of the arbitral tribunal on the substance of the dispute and includes any interim, interlocutory or partial award but excludes any order or direction made under section 28;


document_id: aa-2001
term: court
source_provision: s2
definition:
“court” , in sections 6, 7, 8, 11(1), 55, 56 and 57, means the Court, a District Court, a Magistrate’s Court or any other court in which the proceedings mentioned in those sections are instituted or heard;


document_id: aa-2001
term: party
source_provision: s2
definition:
“party” means a party to an arbitration agreement or, in any case where an arbitration does not involve all of the parties to the arbitration agreement, means a party to the arbitration;


document_id: aa-2001
term: data message
source_provision: s4
definition:
“data message” means information generated, sent, received or stored by electronic, magnetic, optical or similar means, including, but not limited to, electronic data interchange (EDI), electronic mail, telegram, telex or telecopy;


document_id: aa-2001
term: electronic communication
source_provision: s4
definition:
“electronic communication” means any communication that the parties make by means of data messages. [12/2012]


document_id: aa-2001
term: third‑party holder of a security interest
source_provision: s52C
definition:
“third‑party holder of a security interest” , in relation to an IPR in dispute in arbitral proceedings, means a person who — ( a )


document_id: aa-2001
term: third‑party licensee
source_provision: s52C
definition:
“third‑party licensee” , in relation to an IPR in dispute in arbitral proceedings, means a person who — ( a )


document_id: aa-2004
term: accounting limited liability partnership
source_provision: s2
definition:
“accounting limited liability partnership” or “accounting LLP” means a limited liability partnership approved as an accounting limited liability partnership under section 18A;


document_id: aa-2004
term: ACRA administered Act
source_provision: s2
definition:
“ACRA administered Act” means the Accounting and Corporate Regulatory Authority Act 2004 or any of the written laws specified in the Second Schedule to that Act; [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: aa-2004
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Accounting and Corporate Regulatory Authority established under the Accounting and Corporate Regulatory Authority Act 2004;


document_id: aa-2004
term: Complaints and Disciplinary Panel
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Complaints and Disciplinary Panel” means the Complaints and Disciplinary Panel appointed under section 39;


document_id: aa-2004
term: contact address
source_provision: s2
definition:
“contact address” , in relation to an individual, means an address that meets all of the following conditions: ( a )


document_id: aa-2004
term: electronic transaction system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“electronic transaction system” means the electronic transaction system mentioned in section 12A(1); [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: aa-2004
term: lay person
source_provision: s2
definition:
“lay person” , in relation to the Complaints and Disciplinary Panel, a Complaints Committee or a Disciplinary Committee, means an architect, a banker, an advocate and solicitor, a company director, an insurer, a professional engineer, a medical practitioner or a person who possesses such other qualifications as may be approved by the Oversight Committee;


document_id: aa-2004
term: manager
source_provision: s2
definition:
“manager” , in relation to a limited liability partnership, has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act 2005;


document_id: aa-2004
term: Oversight Committee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Oversight Committee” means the Public Accountants Oversight Committee appointed by the Authority under section 4;


document_id: aa-2004
term: professional indemnity insurance
source_provision: s2
definition:
“professional indemnity insurance” includes insurance indemnifying a public accountant, an accounting corporation, an accounting firm or an accounting LLP against liability to compensate a third party who has sustained financial loss or any other damage or injury due to a breach of professional duty or to any professional negligence on the part of such public accountant, accounting corporation, accounting firm or accounting LLP, as the case may be (including any such negligence by any director of such accounting corporation or any partner of such accounting LLP), or fraud or dishonesty;


document_id: aa-2004
term: public accountancy services
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public accountancy services” means the audit and reporting on financial statements and the doing of any other acts that are required by any written law to be done by a public accountant;


document_id: aa-2004
term: public accountant
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public accountant” means an individual who is registered or deemed to be registered in accordance with this Act as a public accountant;


document_id: aa-2004
term: Register of Public Accounting Corporations
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Register of Public Accounting Corporations” means the register kept and maintained under section 5(1)( a )(ii);


document_id: aa-2004
term: Register of Public Accounting Firms
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Register of Public Accounting Firms” means the register kept and maintained under section 5(1)( a )(iii);


document_id: aa-2004
term: Register of Public Accounting Limited Liability Partnerships
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Register of Public Accounting Limited Liability Partnerships” means the register kept and maintained under section 5(1)( a )(iv);


document_id: aa-2004
term: Registrar
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Registrar” means the Registrar of Public Accountants appointed by the Authority under section 7(1)( a ) and includes a Deputy Registrar and an Assistant Registrar appointed under section 7(1)( b );


document_id: aa-2004
term: relevant particulars
source_provision: s2
definition:
“relevant particulars” , in relation to a public accountant, an accounting corporation, an accounting firm or an accounting LLP, means such particulars of the public accountant, accounting corporation, accounting firm or accounting LLP as the Oversight Committee may determine to be relevant for inclusion in the Register of Public Accountants, the Register of Public Accounting Corporations, the Register of Public Accounting Firms or the Register of Public Accounting Limited Liability Partnerships, as the case may be;


document_id: aa-2004
term: repealed Accountants Act
source_provision: s2
definition:
“repealed Accountants Act” means the Accountants Act (Cap. 2, 2001 Revised Edition) in force immediately before 1 April 2004;


document_id: aa-2004
term: residential address
source_provision: s2
definition:
“residential address” , in relation to an individual, means the individual’s usual place of residence;


document_id: aa-2004
term: voting share
source_provision: s2
definition:
“voting share” , in relation to a company or an accounting corporation, means an issued share in the company or accounting corporation other than — ( a )


document_id: aa-2004
term: commencement date
source_provision: s8A
definition:
“commencement date” means the date of commencement of section 14 of the ACRA (Registry and Regulatory Enhancements) Act 2024;


document_id: aa-2004
term: Oversight Committee’s professional standards assessment framework
source_provision: s32
definition:
“Oversight Committee’s professional standards assessment framework” means the assessment framework of the Oversight Committee to determine the extent of a public accountant’s compliance with the professional standards; [Act 32 of 2022 wef 01/07/2023]


document_id: aa-2004
term: practice monitoring programme
source_provision: s32
definition:
“practice monitoring programme” means a programme to determine whether a public accountant has complied with the professional standards when providing public accountancy services; [Act 32 of 2022 wef 01/07/2023]


document_id: aa-2004
term: Practice Monitoring Sub-committee
source_provision: s32
definition:
“Practice Monitoring Sub-committee” means the Practice Monitoring Sub‑committee appointed under section 34;


document_id: aa-2004
term: practice review
source_provision: s32
definition:
“practice review” means a study, an appraisal, or a review carried out under a practice monitoring programme in respect of one or more aspects of the public accountancy services that are provided by a public accountant; [Act 32 of 2022 wef 01/07/2023]


document_id: aa-2004
term: practice reviewer
source_provision: s32
definition:
“practice reviewer” means any individual who is appointed by the Oversight Committee under section 35 to carry out a practice review; [Act 32 of 2022 wef 01/07/2023]


document_id: aa-2004
term: professional standards
source_provision: s32
definition:
“professional standards” , in relation to the provision of public accountancy services, means the standards, methods, procedures and other requirements that are prescribed by the Authority or Oversight Committee to be applied by a public accountant, an accounting corporation, an accounting firm and an accounting LLP when providing public accountancy services. [Act 32 of 2022 wef 01/07/2023]


document_id: aa-2004
term: AML/CFT requirements
source_provision: s38B
definition:
“AML/CFT requirements” or “Anti-Money Laundering and Countering the Financing of Terrorism requirements” means the prescribed requirements relating to the detection and prevention of money laundering or the financing of terrorism by public accountants and accounting entities;


document_id: aa-2004
term: AML/CFT requirements review
source_provision: s38B
definition:
“AML/CFT requirements review” means a review to determine the compliance with any AML/CFT requirements by an accounting entity and any of its individual practitioners;


document_id: aa-2004
term: entity reviewer
source_provision: s38B
definition:
“entity reviewer” means any individual who is appointed by the Oversight Committee under section 38E to carry out a quality control standards review or an AML/CFT requirements review;


document_id: aa-2004
term: Oversight Committee’s quality control standards assessment framework
source_provision: s38B
definition:
“Oversight Committee’s quality control standards assessment framework” means the assessment framework of the Oversight Committee to determine the extent of an accounting entity’s compliance with the quality control standards;


document_id: aa-2004
term: quality control standards
source_provision: s38B
definition:
“quality control standards” means the standards, methods or procedures on quality control that are prescribed by the Authority or the Oversight Committee to be applied by an accounting entity when providing public accountancy services;


document_id: aa-2004
term: quality control standards review
source_provision: s38B
definition:
“quality control standards review” means a review to determine the compliance with any quality control standards by an accounting entity. [Act 32 of 2022 wef 01/07/2023]


document_id: aa-2004
term: Institute of Certified Public Accountants of Singapore
source_provision: s68
definition:
“Institute of Certified Public Accountants of Singapore” means the former Institute of Certified Public Accountants of Singapore established under Part VI of the repealed Accountants Act;


document_id: aa-2004
term: successor company
source_provision: s68
definition:
“successor company” , in relation to the Institute of Certified Public Accountants of Singapore, means the company incorporated by the successor society of the Institute under the Companies Act 1967 and designated by the Minister, by notification in the Gazette , to be the successor company of the Institute for the purposes of subsection (1)( a ), ( b ) and ( c );


document_id: aa-2004
term: successor society
source_provision: s68
definition:
“successor society” , in relation to the Institute of Certified Public Accountants of Singapore, means the society registered under the Societies Act 1966 that is designated by the Minister, by notification in the Gazette , to be the society succeeding to the functions of the Institute as a professional accountancy body. [70


document_id: aa-2020
term: Convention
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Convention” means the Hague Convention Abolishing the Requirement of Legalisation for Foreign Public Documents, done at the Hague on 5 October 1961, the English text of which is set out in the First Schedule;


document_id: aa-2020
term: Convention State
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Convention State” means a State Party to the Convention other than Singapore, but does not include — ( a )


document_id: aa-2020
term: more rigorous formality
source_provision: s12
definition:
“more rigorous formality” means a formality that is more rigorous than placing a Convention certificate on, or attaching a Convention certificate to, a foreign public document;


document_id: aa-2020
term: specified foreign public document
source_provision: s12
definition:
“specified foreign public document” means a foreign public document falling within any of the following classes: ( a )


document_id: aba-1965
term: aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aircraft” includes any kind of craft which may be used for the conveyance of animals or birds by air;


document_id: aba-1965
term: animal
source_provision: s2
definition:
“animal” means any mammal (other than man) or fish and includes any other living creature that is prescribed as an animal for the purposes of this Act or that falls within a class of animals that is prescribed for those purposes;


document_id: aba-1965
term: authorised examiner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“authorised examiner” means any authorised officer and includes any person who has been designated as an authorised examiner by the Director‑General under section 4;


document_id: aba-1965
term: authorised officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“authorised officer” means any person appointed by the Director‑General to be an authorised officer under section 3(2);


document_id: aba-1965
term: bird
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bird” includes domestic fowls, ducks, geese, turkeys, guinea fowls and pigeons of any age or sex and the eggs thereof;


document_id: aba-1965
term: Board
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Board” means the National Parks Board established by the repealed National Parks Act (Cap. 198A, 1991 Revised Edition) as in force before 1 July 1996 and continued by section 3 of the National Parks Board Act 1996;


document_id: aba-1965
term: building
source_provision: s2
definition:
“building” includes any house, hut, shed, stable or enclosure, whether roofed or not, used for sheltering or confining any animal or bird and any pen, cage, wall, gate, pillar, post, paling, frame, boarding, fence, platform, roadway, path, steps, staging, slip, wharf, dock, piles, jetty, landing stage or bridge, or any structure connected with the foregoing;


document_id: aba-1965
term: carcase
source_provision: s2
definition:
“carcase” means the dead body of an animal or bird and includes any part thereof and the meat, bones (whether whole, broken or ground), offal, hide, skin, wool, hair, feathers, hoof, horns or other part of an animal or bird, separately or otherwise, or any portion thereof;


document_id: aba-1965
term: contact
source_provision: s2
definition:
“contact” means any animal or bird which has by contact, direct or indirect, with a diseased animal or bird been exposed to the risk of contracting a disease;


document_id: aba-1965
term: Director‑General
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Director‑General” means the Director‑General, Animal Health and Welfare appointed under section 3(1);


document_id: aba-1965
term: disease
source_provision: s2
definition:
“disease” means any disease that is infectious or contagious among animals or birds and includes any other disease which the Minister may, from time to time, by notification in the Gazette , declare to be a disease for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: aba-1965
term: examine
source_provision: s2
definition:
“examine” , in relation to any animal or bird or the carcase thereof, means to carry out in respect of such animal, bird or carcase, such manner of inspection, examination and test as may be necessary for the purposes of determining whether the animal, bird or carcase thereof is infected with any disease;


document_id: aba-1965
term: fish
source_provision: s2
definition:
“fish” includes any of the varieties of marine, brackish water or fresh water fishes, crustacea, aquatic mollusca, turtles, marine sponges, trepang and any other form of aquatic life and the young and eggs thereof;


document_id: aba-1965
term: genetically modified organism
source_provision: s2
definition:
“genetically modified organism” means any organism (other than a human being or a plant), whether living or dead, or parts of any such organism, containing genetic material or protein or both which have been derived or modified as a result of manipulation or experimentation of genetic material, or any means other than by natural process;


document_id: aba-1965
term: goods in transit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“goods in transit” means goods that are brought into Singapore solely for the purpose of taking them out of Singapore and that remain at all times on the vehicle, aircraft or ship that brought them into Singapore;


document_id: aba-1965
term: import
source_provision: s2
definition:
“import” includes the import into Singapore of goods in transit and goods which are to be transhipped;


document_id: aba-1965
term: master
source_provision: s2
definition:
“master” means the captain of any ship or aircraft and includes any person for the time being in charge of any ship (other than a pilot) or aircraft;


document_id: aba-1965
term: owner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“owner” includes any person for the time being in charge of any animal or bird and any person for the time being in occupation of any building;


document_id: aba-1965
term: public place
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public place” means any place or premises to which at the material time the public or any section of the public has access, on payment or otherwise, as of right or by virtue of express or implied permission;


document_id: aba-1965
term: quarantine station
source_provision: s2
definition:
“quarantine station” means any building or place where quarantine is carried out, and includes an examination station or hulk;


document_id: aba-1965
term: ship
source_provision: s2
definition:
“ship” includes every description of vessel or craft, however propelled, which may be used in the water;


document_id: aba-1965
term: tranship
source_provision: s2
definition:
“tranship” means to remove any goods imported into Singapore from the vehicle, aircraft or ship in which they were imported and either return them to the same vehicle, aircraft or ship or transfer them to another vehicle, aircraft or ship before being exported, whether such goods are to be transferred directly between such vehicles, aircraft or ships or whether they are to be landed in Singapore after their import and kept at any place pending export;


document_id: aba-1965
term: veterinary biologics
source_provision: s2
definition:
“veterinary biologics” means any viruses, serums, toxins, and analogous products of natural or synthetic origin, including genetically modified organisms, diagnostics, antitoxins, vaccines, live micro‑organisms, killed micro‑organisms, and the antigenic or immunising component of micro‑organisms intended for use in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of diseases of animals and birds, or for purposes of research in animals or birds;


document_id: aba-1965
term: veterinary centre
source_provision: s2
definition:
“veterinary centre” means any premises used for the purpose of providing any of the following services to members of the public: ( a )


document_id: aba-1965
term: code of animal welfare
source_provision: s41
definition:
“code of animal welfare” means any code of animal welfare issued, adopted or amended by the Director‑General and in force under section 41A;


document_id: aba-1965
term: employment
source_provision: s41
definition:
“employment” , in relation to an animal‑related business, includes the holding of the office, or purporting to act in the capacity, of a director, manager, partner, secretary or other analogous position in the animal‑related business;


document_id: aba-1965
term: person in charge
source_provision: s41
definition:
“person in charge” , in relation to an animal, means a person who has, whether permanently or on a temporary basis, the animal in the person’s possession, custody or control, or under the person’s care or supervision, and includes an individual who has the animal in such a manner in the course of the individual’s employment;


document_id: aca-2022
term: adopted child
source_provision: s2
definition:
“adopted child” means an individual (whether below 21 years of age or otherwise) in respect of whom an adoption order has been made;


document_id: aca-2022
term: adoption application
source_provision: s48
definition:
“adoption application” and “adoption order” include an application and an order, respectively, made under section 3 of the repealed Act;


document_id: aca-2022
term: adoption proceedings
source_provision: s2
definition:
“adoption proceedings” means the proceedings in court arising from an adoption application, including any appeal against any decision made by the court on the adoption application;


document_id: aca-2022
term: Adoption Suitability Assessment
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Adoption Suitability Assessment” or “ASA” means an Adoption Suitability Assessment issued by an authorised adoption agency under section 14;


document_id: aca-2022
term: adoptive parent
source_provision: s2
definition:
“adoptive parent” means an individual who adopts a child under an adoption order and, in the case of an adoption order made in favour of 2 applicants jointly, means either of the applicants;


document_id: aca-2022
term: applicant
source_provision: s2
definition:
“applicant” means an individual who makes an adoption application, whether solely or jointly, and for the purposes of Part 2, includes an individual who intends to make an adoption application; and “applicants” means both applicants in the case of a joint adoption application mentioned in section 4;


document_id: aca-2022
term: authorised adoption agency
source_provision: s2
definition:
“authorised adoption agency” means an adoption agency or a fostering agency that is authorised by the Minister under section 10;


document_id: aca-2022
term: authorised officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“authorised officer” means an individual who is appointed under section 9 to be an authorised officer for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: aca-2022
term: child in state care
source_provision: s2
definition:
“child in state care” means a child who is the subject of any of the following orders that is in force: ( a )


document_id: aca-2022
term: court
source_provision: s2
definition:
“court” means the Family Division of the High Court, a Family Court, or any court hearing an appeal against an order or a decision of the Family Division of the High Court or a Family Court, except in sections 48, 51, 66, 69, 70, 72 and 73 where “court” means a court of competent jurisdiction;


document_id: aca-2022
term: Director-General
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Director-General” means the Director‑General of Social Welfare or any public officer or other person authorised under section 3(3) of the Children and Young Persons Act 1993 to perform any of the duties or exercise any powers of the Director‑General under that Act;


document_id: aca-2022
term: fostering agency
source_provision: s2
definition:
“fostering agency” means a person who enters into an agreement with the Government to provide services in relation to the fostering of children, including overseeing one or more fostering arrangements;


document_id: aca-2022
term: Guardian-in-Adoption’s affidavit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Guardian-in-Adoption’s affidavit” means the affidavit required to be filed by the Guardian‑in‑Adoption under section 27;


document_id: aca-2022
term: protector
source_provision: s2
definition:
“protector” means any public officer appointed or other person authorised under section 3(3) of the Children and Young Persons Act 1993 to perform any of the duties or exercise any of the powers of a protector under that Act;


document_id: aca-2022
term: registered medical practitioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registered medical practitioner” means a medical practitioner registered under the Medical Registration Act 1997, and includes a dentist registered under the Dental Registration Act 1999;


document_id: aca-2022
term: relevant person
source_provision: s2
definition:
“relevant person” , in relation to a child, or a protected person mentioned in Part 5, means any person who — ( a )


document_id: aca-2022
term: emotional harm
source_provision: s36
definition:
“emotional harm” , in relation to a child, means any serious impairment to the growth, development, or behavioural, cognitive or affective functioning of the child, and includes — ( a )


document_id: aca-2022
term: messaging system
source_provision: s48
definition:
“messaging system” means any system that enables the transmission of short text messages, or of any visual communication, voice communication or email — ( a )


document_id: aca-2022
term: protected person
source_provision: s48
definition:
“protected person” means an individual in respect of whom an adoption application was or has been made;


document_id: aca-2022
term: publish
source_provision: s48
definition:
“publish” , in relation to any information or picture, means to bring the information or picture to the notice of the public or a section of the public by any means, including (to avoid doubt) through — ( a )


document_id: aca-2022
term: care-giver
source_provision: s57
definition:
“care-giver” , in relation to a child for whom an adoptive parent is being sought, has the meaning in relation to a child or young person given by section 2(1) of the Children and Young Persons Act 1993;


document_id: aca-2022
term: email address
source_provision: s70
definition:
“email address” means the last email address given by the addressee concerned as the email address for the service of documents under this Act;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: Chairperson
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chairperson” means the Chairperson of the Authority appointed under section 5(1)( a ) and includes any temporary Chairperson of the Authority;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: chartered accountant
source_provision: s2
definition:
“chartered accountant” means a person registered or deemed to be registered as a Chartered Accountant of Singapore under Part 6B; [Act 36 of 2022 wef 01/04/2023]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: Chief Executive
source_provision: s26
definition:
“Chief Executive” includes an officer of the Authority authorised by the Chief Executive to exercise a power, function or duty of the Chief Executive under this Part;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: Deputy Chairperson
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Deputy Chairperson” means any person who is appointed under section 5(3)( a ) to be the Deputy Chairperson of the Authority;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: member
source_provision: s35A
definition:
“member” , in relation to a designated entity, means a person who is admitted to such membership specified by the designated entity as being required to be held by persons registered or seeking to be registered as chartered accountants under this Part, and “membership” is to be construed accordingly.


document_id: acraa-2004
term: public accountant
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public accountant” means a person who is registered or deemed to be registered in accordance with the Accountants Act 2004 as a public accountant; [Act 36 of 2022 wef 01/04/2023]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: Public Accountants Board
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Public Accountants Board” means the Public Accountants Board established under section 3 of the Accountants Act (Cap. 2, 2001 Revised Edition) repealed by the Accountants Act 2004;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: Registry of Companies and Businesses
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Registry of Companies and Businesses” means the Government department known as the Registry of Companies and Businesses;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: securities
source_provision: s2
definition:
“securities” , in relation to a company, includes shares, debentures, bonds and other securities of the company, whether or not constituting a charge on the assets of the company;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: accounting entity
source_provision: s35A
definition:
“accounting entity” means a public accountant, an accounting corporation, an accounting firm or an accounting limited liability partnership;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: disclosure framework
source_provision: s6
definition:
“disclosure framework” and “scheduled law” have the meanings given by section 26. [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024] [5/2013]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: asset
source_provision: s25A
definition:
“asset” , in relation to the transferor, means property of any kind (whether tangible or intangible, whether arising from, accruing under, created or evidenced by or the subject of, an instrument or otherwise and whether actual or contingent) of the transferor on the eve of the transfer date and includes, without limitation, any — ( a )


document_id: acraa-2004
term: Commission
source_provision: s25A
definition:
“Commission” or “Singapore Accountancy Commission” means the Singapore Accountancy Commission established under the Singapore Accountancy Commission Act 2013;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: liability
source_provision: s25A
definition:
“liability” , in relation to the transferor, means any liability, duty or obligation (whether actual or contingent, liquidated or unliquidated, and whether owed alone or jointly, or jointly and severally, with any other person) of the transferor on the eve of the transfer date;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: records
source_provision: s25A
definition:
“records” , in relation to the transferor, means registers, papers, documents, minutes, receipts, books of account and other records, however compiled, recorded or stored, of the transferor existing on the eve of the transfer date;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: right
source_provision: s25A
definition:
“right” , in relation to the transferor, means any right, power, privilege or immunity of the transferor on the eve of the transfer date;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: transfer date
source_provision: s25A
definition:
“transfer date” means a date specified by the Minister by order in the Gazette for the purposes of this Part;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: transferring employee
source_provision: s25A
definition:
“transferring employee” means any individual who, on the eve of the transfer date, is an employee of the transferor. [Act 36 of 2022 wef 01/04/2023]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: authorised information service provider
source_provision: s26
definition:
“authorised information service provider” means any person authorised by the Registrar or the Authority to provide information services to the public using information provided by the Registrar or the Authority; [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: copy
source_provision: s26
definition:
“copy” , in relation to a document, includes a representation of the document in an electronic form;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: document
source_provision: s26
definition:
“document” includes any application, form, report, certification, notice, confirmation, declaration, return or other document (whether in electronic form or otherwise) filed or lodged with, or submitted to, the Registrar;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: electronic transaction system
source_provision: s26
definition:
“electronic transaction system” means the electronic transaction system established by the Authority under section 27(1);


document_id: acraa-2004
term: Fifth Schedule Act
source_provision: s26
definition:
“Fifth Schedule Act” means any of the written laws specified in the first column of the Fifth Schedule;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: malfunction
source_provision: s26
definition:
“malfunction” , in relation to the electronic transaction system, includes any defect or breakdown in that system or in any equipment, software or telecommunication networks used in or in connection with that system;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: prescribed entity
source_provision: s26
definition:
“prescribed entity” means any entity prescribed under section 35 for the purposes of section 30A; [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: prescribed public agency
source_provision: s26
definition:
“prescribed public agency” means any public agency prescribed under section 35 for the purposes of section 30A; [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: public agency
source_provision: s26
definition:
“public agency” means a public officer, an Organ of State or a ministry or department of the Government, or a body or authority established by or under any public Act to perform or discharge a public function, or a member, an officer or employee, or any department thereof; [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: registered corporate service provider
source_provision: s26
definition:
“registered corporate service provider” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Corporate Service Providers Act 2024; [Act 22 of 2024 wef 09/06/2025]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: contact address
source_provision: s42A
definition:
“contact address” , in relation to an individual, means an individual’s contact address kept or maintained by the Authority under this Act or by the Registrar under any scheduled Act; [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: residential address
source_provision: s30C
definition:
“residential address” , in relation to an individual, means an individual’s residential address kept or maintained by the Authority under this Act or by the Registrar under any scheduled Act. [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: acraa-2004
term: accounting corporation
source_provision: s35A
definition:
“accounting corporation” means a company approved or deemed to be approved as an accounting corporation under the Accountants Act 2004;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: accounting firm
source_provision: s35A
definition:
“accounting firm” means a firm approved or deemed to be approved as an accounting firm under the Accountants Act 2004;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: accounting limited liability partnership
source_provision: s35A
definition:
“accounting limited liability partnership” means a limited liability partnership approved as an accounting limited liability partnership under the Accountants Act 2004;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: designated entity
source_provision: s35A
definition:
“designated entity” means any company, association or body of persons, corporate or unincorporate, specified in the Third Schedule;


document_id: acraa-2004
term: last email address
source_provision: s42A
definition:
“last email address” means the last email address given by the addressee concerned to the person giving or serving the document as the email address for the service of documents under this Act;


document_id: adba-1966
term: Agreement
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Agreement” means the Agreement for the establishment and operation of the international body known as the Asian Development Bank;


document_id: aela-1993
term: English enactment
source_provision: s2
definition:
“English enactment” means an enactment of the Parliament of England, the Parliament of Great Britain or the Parliament of the United Kingdom;


document_id: aela-1993
term: local Act
source_provision: s2
definition:
“local Act” means an Act of the Parliament of Singapore and includes any Ordinance or Act of Singapore or of Malaysia having the force of law in Singapore.


document_id: agafa-2014
term: administrative decision
source_provision: s2
definition:
“administrative decision” means a decision of an administrative character which is, is proposed to be, or is required to be, made (whether or not in the exercise of a discretion and whether before, on or after 1 January 2015) under any public Act;


document_id: agafa-2014
term: instrument of legislative character
source_provision: s2
definition:
“instrument of legislative character” includes an instrument of legislative character made before 1 January 2015 under any public Act;


document_id: agafa-2014
term: statutory board
source_provision: s2
definition:
“statutory board” means a body corporate or unincorporate established by or under any public Act to perform or discharge a public function.


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: allied health professional
source_provision: s2
definition:
“allied health professional” means a person who has a professional qualification in any of the allied health professions listed in the First Schedule;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: allied health professional with conditional registration
source_provision: s2
definition:
“allied health professional with conditional registration” means a person registered as such under a provision of this Act;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: allied health professional with full registration
source_provision: s2
definition:
“allied health professional with full registration” means a person registered as such under a provision of this Act;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: allied health professional with restricted registration
source_provision: s2
definition:
“allied health professional with restricted registration” means a person registered as such under a provision of this Act;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: allied health professional with temporary registration
source_provision: s2
definition:
“allied health professional with temporary registration” means a person registered as such under a provision of this Act;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: certificate of registration
source_provision: s2
definition:
“certificate of registration” means a certificate of registration issued by the Council under section 22;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: medical practitioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“medical practitioner” means a person who is registered under the Medical Registration Act 1997 and includes a person deemed to be so registered under section 72(1) of that Act;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: prescribed allied health profession
source_provision: s2
definition:
“prescribed allied health profession” means any of the allied health professions set out in the first column of the Second Schedule;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: registered allied health professional
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registered allied health professional” means an allied health professional with full, restricted, conditional or temporary registration;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: authorised representative
source_provision: s72
definition:
“authorised representative” , in relation to a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), means any person authorised to accept service of documents on behalf of the partnership;


document_id: ahpa-2011
term: residential address
source_provision: s72
definition:
“residential address” means an individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore. [Act 19 of 2025 wef 05/12/2025]


document_id: aiiba-2015
term: Agreement
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Agreement” means the Agreement for the establishment and operation of the international body known as the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank;


document_id: aiida-1968
term: award
source_provision: s2
definition:
“award” includes any decision interpreting, reversing or annulling an award, being a decision pursuant to the Convention, and any decision as to costs which under the Convention is to form part of the award;


document_id: aiida-1968
term: Centre
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Centre” means the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes established by the Convention;


document_id: aiida-1968
term: Convention
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Convention” means the Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of other States which was opened for signature in Washington on 18 March 1965 and is set out in the Schedule.


document_id: ajpa-2016
term: Employment Claims Tribunal
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Employment Claims Tribunal” means an Employment Claims Tribunal constituted under section 4 of the State Courts Act 1970;


document_id: ajpa-2016
term: publish
source_provision: s2
definition:
“publish” means to disseminate, distribute, exhibit, provide or communicate by oral, visual, written, electronic or other means (for example, by way of newspaper, radio, television or through the use of the Internet, subscription TV or other online communications system) to the public at large or a member of the public, and includes cause to be published, and “publication” is to be construed accordingly;


document_id: ajpa-2016
term: Small Claims Tribunal
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Small Claims Tribunal” means a Small Claims Tribunal constituted under section 4 of the State Courts Act 1970;


document_id: ajpa-2016
term: State Court
source_provision: s2
definition:
“State Court” means a State Court constituted under section 4 of the State Courts Act 1970. [33/2018; 40/2019]


document_id: ajpa-2016
term: aggrieved party
source_provision: s4
definition:
“aggrieved party” means a party to the relevant proceedings for whose benefit any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court is given, made or issued, or any undertaking to a court is given, in proceedings other than a proceeding against a person in respect of any offence;


document_id: ajpa-2016
term: publisher
source_provision: s13
definition:
“publisher” means any person who publishes the matter and includes an Internet Content Provider as defined in any subsidiary legislation made under the Broadcasting Act 1994 but excludes any person or class of persons that the Minister may prescribe.


document_id: ama-2017
term: accessories
source_provision: s2
definition:
“accessories” means additional parts, or fittings, for the purpose of enhancing the comfort, appearance or performance of a personal mobility device, including sound and internet devices and navigation devices, but not including parts or fittings prescribed for the purposes of this definition;


document_id: ama-2017
term: appropriate supervisor
source_provision: s23A
definition:
“appropriate supervisor” , in relation to an under-aged rider, means an individual who has attained a minimum supervising age prescribed;


document_id: ama-2017
term: authorised officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“authorised officer” , for any provision of this Act, means an individual who is appointed under section 38 as an authorised officer for the purposes of that provision;


document_id: ama-2017
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Land Transport Authority of Singapore constituted under the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995;


document_id: ama-2017
term: code of conduct
source_provision: s2
definition:
“code of conduct” means a code of conduct issued or approved by the Minister under section 24, and includes any such code of conduct as amended from time to time under that section;


document_id: ama-2017
term: competency test certificate
source_provision: s2
definition:
“competency test certificate” , for a class or description of test‑needed‑to‑drive vehicle, means a certificate granted under section 23F certifying that an individual has passed the prescribed test of competence for that class or description of test‑needed‑to‑drive vehicle;


document_id: ama-2017
term: driver
source_provision: s2
definition:
“driver” means a driver of a vehicle and includes a rider, but does not include an individual who is walking and pushing a motorised wheelchair;


document_id: ama-2017
term: end‑of pedestrian‑only path marking
source_provision: s2
definition:
“end‑of pedestrian‑only path marking” means a marking drawn or painted on a pedestrian‑only path, consisting of the prescribed symbol or words denoting the end of the pedestrian‑only path;


document_id: ama-2017
term: end‑of pedestrian‑only path sign
source_provision: s2
definition:
“end‑of pedestrian‑only path sign” means a sign showing the prescribed symbol or words denoting the end of the pedestrian‑only path;


document_id: ama-2017
term: end‑of shared path marking
source_provision: s2
definition:
“end‑of shared path marking” means a marking drawn or painted on a shared path, consisting of the prescribed symbol or words denoting the end of the shared path;


document_id: ama-2017
term: end‑of shared path sign
source_provision: s2
definition:
“end‑of shared path sign” means a sign showing the prescribed symbol or words denoting the end of the shared path;


document_id: ama-2017
term: footpath
source_provision: s2
definition:
“footpath” means a length or area of path (whether or not contiguous with another path or a road) provided for pedestrians to use, or individuals to ride a bicycle or non‑motorised personal mobility device on, and ending at the nearest of the following: ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: holding yard
source_provision: s2
definition:
“holding yard” means a place used under section 52 for the storage of vehicles moved to, surrendered at, detained, seized or forfeited under Division 2 of Part 5;


document_id: ama-2017
term: identification card
source_provision: s2
definition:
“identification card” , in relation to an authorised officer, a public path warden or a volunteer public path warden, means an identification card issued under section 42 to the authorised officer, public path warden or volunteer public path warden, as the case may be;


document_id: ama-2017
term: install
source_provision: s2
definition:
“install” , in relation to any wayfinding signage, includes paint or mark on a surface in an indelible way;


document_id: ama-2017
term: limited liability partnership
source_provision: s2
definition:
“limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: ama-2017
term: motorised personal mobility device
source_provision: s2
definition:
“motorised personal mobility device” or “motorised PMD” means a personal mobility device other than a non‑motorised personal mobility device;


document_id: ama-2017
term: non‑compliant bicycle
source_provision: s2
definition:
“non‑compliant bicycle” means a bicycle the construction, weight or accessories of which do not comply with the requirements as to construction, weight and accessories prescribed either for all bicycles generally or for the particular type of that bicycle;


document_id: ama-2017
term: non‑compliant personal mobility device
source_provision: s2
definition:
“non‑compliant personal mobility device” means a personal mobility device the construction, weight or accessories of which do not comply with the requirements as to construction, weight and accessories prescribed either for all personal mobility devices generally or for the particular type of that personal mobility device;


document_id: ama-2017
term: non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle
source_provision: s2
definition:
“non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle” means a power‑assisted bicycle the construction, weight or accessories of which do not comply with the requirements as to construction, weight and accessories prescribed either for all power‑assisted bicycles generally or for the particular type of that power‑assisted bicycle;


document_id: ama-2017
term: non‑motorised personal mobility device
source_provision: s2
definition:
“non‑motorised personal mobility device” means a personal mobility device that is designed to be propelled by human power only;


document_id: ama-2017
term: outsourced enforcement officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“outsourced enforcement officer” , in relation to any provision of this Act or the regulations, means an individual who — ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: owner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“owner” , in relation to a bicycle, PAB, personal mobility device, motorised wheelchair or mobility scooter, means — ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: path‑connected open space
source_provision: s2
definition:
“path‑connected open space” means a courtyard, plaza, square, quadrangle, atrium, peristyle or other substantially level and unenclosed open space that — ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: pedestrian‑only path
source_provision: s2
definition:
“pedestrian‑only path” means a length or area of path (whether or not contiguous with another path or a road) — ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: premises
source_provision: s2
definition:
“premises” means a building or structure (whether permanent or temporary) or part of a building or structure;


document_id: ama-2017
term: prescribed test of competence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“prescribed test of competence” , in relation to driving or riding a vehicle on a public path, means a test of subject matter prescribed by regulations to test an individual’s knowledge of safe driving or riding practices and law on public paths, and also on roads where lawful to ride the vehicle on a road;


document_id: ama-2017
term: public authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public authority” means a body established or constituted by or under a public Act to perform or discharge a public function, and includes a Town Council;


document_id: ama-2017
term: public path warden
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public path warden” means an individual who is appointed under section 39 as a public path warden, and includes any authorised officer;


document_id: ama-2017
term: registered responsible person
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registered responsible person” , in relation to a registrable personal mobility device, means any person recorded in the registrable PMD register as the responsible person for the registrable personal mobility device;


document_id: ama-2017
term: registrable personal mobility device
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registrable personal mobility device” means a personal mobility device of the description prescribed by the Minister by order in the Gazette ;


document_id: ama-2017
term: registrable PMD register
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registrable PMD register” means the register of registrable personal mobility devices required by section 28E to be established and maintained by the Authority;


document_id: ama-2017
term: registration
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registration” , in relation to a personal mobility device, means registration of the personal mobility device in the registrable PMD register, and “registered” has a corresponding meaning;


document_id: ama-2017
term: repair
source_provision: s2
definition:
“repair” includes examine, detect faults in, adjust, carry out maintenance on, overhaul, replace, alter and paint;


document_id: ama-2017
term: residential address
source_provision: s2
definition:
“residential address” , for an individual, means the individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore;


document_id: ama-2017
term: ride
source_provision: s2
definition:
“ride” , in relation to a bicycle, PAB or personal mobility device, means to travel in or on the bicycle, PAB or personal mobility device;


document_id: ama-2017
term: rider
source_provision: s2
definition:
“rider” means an individual who is riding a bicycle, PAB or personal mobility device, but does not include an individual walking beside and pushing any of these vehicles;


document_id: ama-2017
term: shared path
source_provision: s2
definition:
“shared path” means a length or area of path provided for use by both riders and pedestrians, starting at a shared path sign or shared path marking, and ending at the nearest of the following: ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: test authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“test authority” , for a class or description of test-needed-to-drive vehicle, means an individual designated by the Minister to be a test authority for that class or description of test‑needed‑to‑drive vehicle;


document_id: ama-2017
term: test-needed-to-drive vehicle
source_provision: s2
definition:
“test-needed-to-drive vehicle” means a class or description of bicycle, personal mobility device, PAB, motorised wheelchair, mobility scooter or mechanised sweeper that is prescribed in regulations for the purposes of Division 2A of Part 3;


document_id: ama-2017
term: Town Council
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Town Council” , for a Town, means a Town Council established under the Town Councils Act 1988 for a Town within the meaning of that Act;


document_id: ama-2017
term: uncertified vehicle
source_provision: s2
definition:
“uncertified vehicle” means a bicycle, personal mobility device, motorised wheelchair or mobility scooter which does not have in force a certificate issued under section 35C where an inspection or periodic inspections of the vehicle is required under section 35A;


document_id: ama-2017
term: uncertified vehicle advertisement
source_provision: s2
definition:
“uncertified vehicle advertisement” means an advertisement that gives publicity to, or otherwise promotes or is intended to promote the purchase or use of, an uncertified vehicle or a range of uncertified vehicles;


document_id: ama-2017
term: under-aged rider
source_provision: s2
definition:
“under-aged rider” , in relation to a motorised PMD, means an individual riding the PMD who is below the prescribed minimum riding age for riding the motorised PMD on a shared path;


document_id: ama-2017
term: unregistered
source_provision: s2
definition:
“unregistered” , in relation to a registrable personal mobility device, means a registrable personal mobility device — ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: use-incompatible signage
source_provision: s2
definition:
“use-incompatible signage” , in relation to any public path, means a sign signifying or prohibiting a use of the public path which is inconsistent with the permitted use of that path under Division 1 or 2 of Part 3;


document_id: ama-2017
term: volunteer public path warden
source_provision: s2
definition:
“volunteer public path warden” means an individual who is appointed a volunteer public path warden under section 40;


document_id: ama-2017
term: wayfinding signage
source_provision: s2
definition:
“wayfinding signage” includes a directional sign for the purpose of directing vehicular or pedestrian traffic to, or advising the public of, the location of any event, amenity, facility or place;


document_id: ama-2017
term: wheelchair
source_provision: s2
definition:
“wheelchair” means a chair mounted on 2 or more wheels that is built to transport a person who is unable to walk or has difficulty in walking, but does not include a pram, stroller or trolley;


document_id: ama-2017
term: wheeled toy
source_provision: s2
definition:
“wheeled toy” means a child’s pedal car, scooter or tricycle or a similar toy, but only when it is being used only by a child who is below 12 years of age. [38/2018; 9/2020; 26/2020; 12/2021]


document_id: ama-2017
term: dedicated land
source_provision: s5
definition:
“dedicated land” means State land that is reserved or dedicated to the use of the general public as — ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: non-compliant mobility vehicle advertisement
source_provision: s29
definition:
“non-compliant mobility vehicle advertisement” means an advertisement that gives publicity to, or otherwise promotes or is intended to promote the purchase or use of a non‑compliant mobility vehicle or a range of non‑compliant mobility vehicles;


document_id: ama-2017
term: non-compliant PMD advertisement
source_provision: s29
definition:
“non-compliant PMD advertisement” means an advertisement that gives publicity to, or otherwise promotes or is intended to promote the purchase or use of a non‑compliant personal mobility device or a range of non‑compliant personal mobility devices. [38/2018]


document_id: ama-2017
term: approved policy
source_provision: s58A
definition:
“approved policy” means a policy of insurance not subject to any conditions, exclusions or exceptions prohibited by regulations;


document_id: ama-2017
term: outwork arrangement
source_provision: s58A
definition:
“outwork arrangement” means a contract, an agreement, understanding or other arrangement of any kind (whether written or unwritten) with a contractor — ( a )


document_id: ama-2017
term: partner
source_provision: s60
definition:
“partner” , in relation to a limited liability partnership, means any person who has been admitted as a partner in the limited liability partnership in accordance with the limited liability partnership agreement;


document_id: ama-2017
term: chosen means of access
source_provision: s64
definition:
“chosen means of access” , for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a document permitted or required by this Act, means an electronic means the addressee agrees with the person giving or serving the document as the means by which the addressee may access that document’s contents;


document_id: ama-2017
term: chosen means of notification
source_provision: s64
definition:
“chosen means of notification” , for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a document permitted or required by this Act, means an electronic means that the addressee nominates to the person giving or serving the document as the means by which the addressee may be notified that such a document has been served on the addressee;


document_id: ama-2017
term: email address
source_provision: s64
definition:
“email address” means the last email address given by the addressee concerned to the person giving or serving the document as the email address for the service of documents under this Act;


document_id: amda-1996
term: extraordinary life‑sustaining treatment
source_provision: s2
definition:
“extraordinary life‑sustaining treatment” means any medical procedure or measure which, when administered to a terminally ill patient, will only prolong the process of dying when death is imminent, but excludes palliative care;


document_id: amda-1996
term: medical practitioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“medical practitioner” means a person who is registered, or deemed to be registered, as a medical practitioner under the Medical Registration Act 1997;


document_id: amda-1996
term: patient
source_provision: s2
definition:
“patient” means any person (whether or not he or she is undergoing any medical treatment, care or therapy) who is not mentally disordered, who has attained 21 years of age and who has made or desires to make a directive in accordance with this Act;


document_id: amda-1996
term: recovery
source_provision: s2
definition:
“recovery” , in relation to a terminal illness, includes a remission of symptoms or effects of the illness;


document_id: amda-1996
term: Registrar
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Registrar” means the Registrar of Advance Medical Directives appointed under section 6 and includes a Deputy Registrar and an Assistant Registrar;


document_id: amda-1996
term: specialist
source_provision: s2
definition:
“specialist” means a medical practitioner who possesses such postgraduate medical qualifications as the Director‑General may recognise for the purposes of this Act; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: amda-1996
term: terminal illness
source_provision: s2
definition:
“terminal illness” means an incurable condition caused by injury or disease from which there is no reasonable prospect of a temporary or permanent recovery where — ( a )


document_id: amla-1966
term: Appeal Committee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Appeal Committee” means the Appeal Committee appointed under section 88F; [Act 4 of 2024 wef 01/10/2025]


document_id: amla-1966
term: attend
source_provision: s2
definition:
“attend” includes the appearance by any person using any electronic means of communication permitted by the Syariah Court, an Appeal Board, a Kadi or a Naib Kadi; [Act 11 of 2022 wef 17/08/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: Chief Executive
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chief Executive” means the Chief Executive of the Majlis, and includes any individual acting in that capacity;


document_id: amla-1966
term: child of the parties
source_provision: s2
definition:
“child of the parties” means any child of the parties to a marriage (including a purported marriage that is annulled), and includes any legally adopted child; [Act 11 of 2022 wef 17/08/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: daerah masjid
source_provision: s2
definition:
“daerah masjid” means the area prescribed by the Majlis in accordance with section 83 within which a mosque is situated;


document_id: amla-1966
term: dependent child of the parties
source_provision: s2
definition:
“dependent child of the parties” means a child of the parties who is below 21 years of age; [Act 11 of 2022 wef 17/08/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: emas kahwin
source_provision: s2
definition:
“emas kahwin” means the obligatory marriage-payment due under the Muslim law by the husband to the wife at the time the marriage is solemnised, whether paid in cash or in kind, or payable as a debt with or without security;


document_id: amla-1966
term: fitrah
source_provision: s2
definition:
“fitrah” means the amount of rice or its equivalent value in money payable under the Muslim law annually by a Muslim during the month of Ramadan to be used for religious or charitable purposes recognised by the Muslim law;


document_id: amla-1966
term: foreign halal certification body
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foreign halal certification body” means a person, authority or entity outside Singapore that has been granted recognition under section 88AA; [Act 4 of 2024 wef 01/10/2025]


document_id: amla-1966
term: General Endowment Fund
source_provision: s2
definition:
“General Endowment Fund” means the General Endowment Fund established under section 57; [Act 4 of 2024 wef 01/08/2024]


document_id: amla-1966
term: halal
source_provision: s2
definition:
“halal” , in relation to any product, service or activity, means the requirements of the Muslim law are complied with in the production, processing, marketing, display or carrying out, (as the case may be) of that product, service or activity;


document_id: amla-1966
term: halal certificate
source_provision: s2
definition:
“halal certificate” , in relation to any product, service or activity, means a certificate or other form of signification to the effect that the requirements of the Muslim law are complied with in the production, processing, marketing, display or carrying out (as the case may be) of that product, service or activity; [Act 11 of 2022 wef 17/08/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: iddah
source_provision: s2
definition:
“iddah” means the period within which a divorced woman or a widow is forbidden by the Muslim law to remarry;


document_id: amla-1966
term: janda
source_provision: s2
definition:
“janda” means a female who has been married and whose marriage has been terminated by divorce or the death of her husband;


document_id: amla-1966
term: jawatankuasa masjid
source_provision: s2
definition:
“jawatankuasa masjid” means a committee of a daerah masjid appointed under rules made under section 86(1); [Act 11 of 2022 wef 17/08/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: mosque
source_provision: s2
definition:
“mosque” means a building dedicated and used for the purpose of holding the Friday congregational prayers and other ceremonies connected with the Muslim religion;


document_id: amla-1966
term: Mosque Building and Mendaki Fund
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Mosque Building and Mendaki Fund” means the Mosque Building and Mendaki Fund established under section 76;


document_id: amla-1966
term: nazar
source_provision: s2
definition:
“nazar” means an expressed vow to do any act or to dedicate property for any purpose allowed by the Muslim law;


document_id: amla-1966
term: nazar am
source_provision: s2
definition:
“nazar am” means a nazar intended wholly or in part for the benefit of the Muslim community generally or part thereof, as opposed to an individual or individuals;


document_id: amla-1966
term: pegawai masjid
source_provision: s2
definition:
“pegawai masjid” means a trustee, mutawalli, Imam, Khatib, Bilal and Noja (if any) for the time being of a mosque;


document_id: amla-1966
term: Register of Divorces
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Register of Divorces” means the Register of Divorces kept by the registrar of the Syariah Court under section 100; [Act 11 of 2022 wef 30/11/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: Register of Revocation of Divorces
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Register of Revocation of Divorces” means the Register of Revocation of Divorces kept by the Registrar under section 100;


document_id: amla-1966
term: specified halal certification mark
source_provision: s2
definition:
“specified halal certification mark” means any certification mark specified under section 88A(4) or 88AA(5); [Act 4 of 2024 wef 01/10/2025]


document_id: amla-1966
term: wakaf
source_provision: s2
definition:
“wakaf” means the permanent dedication by a Muslim individual or the Majlis of any movable or immovable property for any purpose recognised by the Muslim law as pious, religious or charitable; [Act 4 of 2024 wef 01/08/2024]


document_id: amla-1966
term: wakaf ‘am
source_provision: s2
definition:
“wakaf ‘am” means a dedication in perpetuity of the capital and income of property for pious, religious or charitable purposes recognised by the Muslim law and the property so dedicated;


document_id: amla-1966
term: wakaf khas
source_provision: s2
definition:
“wakaf khas” means a dedication in perpetuity of the capital of property for pious, religious or charitable purposes recognised by the Muslim law, the income of the property being paid to persons or for purposes specified in the wakaf, and the property so dedicated;


document_id: amla-1966
term: wali
source_provision: s2
definition:
“wali” means the lawful guardian according to the Muslim law for purposes of marriage of a woman who is to be married;


document_id: amla-1966
term: Yayasan Mendaki
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Yayasan Mendaki” means the company limited by guarantee which is incorporated under the Companies Act 1967 under the name of Yayasan Mendaki;


document_id: amla-1966
term: zakat
source_provision: s2
definition:
“zakat” means the charitable contribution required to be made by a Muslim in accordance with the Muslim law. [35/2005; 5/2018]


document_id: amla-1966
term: applicable prescribed activity
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“applicable prescribed activity” , in relation to a prescribed party in a prescribed circumstance, means the particular type of prescribed activity that the prescribed party is required under subsection (1) to attend;


document_id: amla-1966
term: application for a divorce in accordance with the Muslim law
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“application for a divorce in accordance with the Muslim law” includes an application under section 102(5)( b );


document_id: amla-1966
term: cross‑application
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“cross‑application” , in relation to proceedings for a divorce in accordance with the Muslim law, includes — ( a )


document_id: amla-1966
term: excluded party
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“excluded party” means a prescribed party who is prescribed by rules made under section 145 as exempt from subsection (1);


document_id: amla-1966
term: parenting plan
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“parenting plan” means a proposal prepared by either party to a marriage, or an agreement prepared by both parties to a marriage, on the arrangements for the welfare of every dependent child of the parties; [Act 11 of 2022 wef 17/08/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: prescribed activity
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“prescribed activity” means an activity (such as counselling) that is prescribed, by rules made under section 145, for the purposes of this section;


document_id: amla-1966
term: prescribed circumstance
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“prescribed circumstance” means a circumstance, prescribed by rules made under section 145, in which a prescribed party is required under subsection (1) to attend a prescribed activity;


document_id: amla-1966
term: prescribed party
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“prescribed party” means a party to a marriage who is prescribed, by rules made under section 145, for the purposes of this section;


document_id: amla-1966
term: proceedings for a divorce in accordance with the Muslim law
source_provision: s46A
definition:
“proceedings for a divorce in accordance with the Muslim law” includes any proceedings relating to an application under section 102(5)( b ). [33/2017]


document_id: amla-1966
term: audio or visual recording
source_provision: s54A
definition:
“audio or visual recording” means an audio recording, a visual recording, or a recording that comprises both an audio recording and a visual recording, and includes — ( a )


document_id: amla-1966
term: proceedings before the Court or an Appeal Board
source_provision: s54A
definition:
“proceedings before the Court or an Appeal Board” includes proceedings before the Court or an Appeal Board, or any part of the proceedings before the Court or Appeal Board, conducted through any electronic means of communication; [Act 11 of 2022 wef 17/08/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: recording device
source_provision: s54A
definition:
“recording device” means any audio recorder, electronic device or other instrument for making an audio or visual recording. [33/2017] [Act 11 of 2022 wef 17/08/2022]


document_id: amla-1966
term: body corporate
source_provision: s88D
definition:
“body corporate” includes a limited liability partnership which has the same meaning as in section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aerodrome
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aerodrome” means any defined area of land or water in Singapore used, or intended or designed to be used, either wholly or partly, for the landing, taking off, movement, or servicing of aircraft, and includes any buildings, installations, and equipment on or adjacent to any such area used in connection with the aerodrome or its administration;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aeronautical product
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aeronautical product” means anything that comprises or is intended to comprise any part of an aircraft or that is or is intended to be installed in or fitted or supplied to an aircraft, and includes fuel and other consumable items necessary for the operation of the aircraft;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aircraft” means any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air otherwise than by the reactions of the air against the surface of the earth;


document_id: ana-1966
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore established under section 4 of the Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore Act 2009;


document_id: ana-1966
term: auxiliary police officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“auxiliary police officer” means a person appointed as such under Part 9 of the Police Force Act 2004;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation-related service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aviation-related service” means any equipment, facility, or service (including any air traffic service) operated in support of or in conjunction with the civil aviation system;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation safety instrument
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aviation safety instrument” means any licence, permit, certificate, authorisation, approval or other document issued under or by virtue of this Act to, or in respect of, any person, aircraft, aerodrome, aeronautical procedure, aeronautical product, or aviation-related service, but does not include an airport licence within the meaning of the Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore Act 2009 or a permit mentioned in section 32(5)( b )(ii) or 33(5)( b )(ii);


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation safety subsidiary legislation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aviation safety subsidiary legislation” means any order made under section 8 or any regulations made under section 9;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation security
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aviation security” means a combination of measures and human and material resources intended to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation security inspector
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aviation security inspector” means a police officer or an individual who is appointed under section 17A(8) as an aviation security inspector, and includes the NCASA;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation security regulation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aviation security regulation” means any regulation made under section 69 for the purposes of Part 2B, and includes any order made by the Minister before 1 April 2014 in relation to aviation security until revoked;


document_id: ana-1966
term: command and control link
source_provision: s2
definition:
“command and control link” means the data link between a remotely piloted aircraft and a remote pilot station for the purposes of managing the flight of the remotely piloted aircraft;


document_id: ana-1966
term: competent security officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“competent security officer” means any public officer designated as such by the Minister charged with the responsibility for homefront security;


document_id: ana-1966
term: controlled flight
source_provision: s2
definition:
“controlled flight” means any flight that is provided with or required by or under this Act to make use of an air traffic control service;


document_id: ana-1966
term: crew
source_provision: s2
definition:
“crew” , in relation to an aircraft, includes every person having duties or functions on board the aircraft during the flight of the aircraft in connection with the flying or safety of the aircraft;


document_id: ana-1966
term: designated person
source_provision: s2
definition:
“designated person” means a person designated in voluntary reporting rules for the purposes of the voluntary reporting scheme established by those rules;


document_id: ana-1966
term: Director-General of Civil Aviation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Director-General of Civil Aviation” means the Chief Executive of the Authority and includes any individual appointed by the Authority to act in the place of the Chief Executive;


document_id: ana-1966
term: foreign aviation authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foreign aviation authority” means the competent authority responsible for regulating civil aviation in a country or territory other than Singapore;


document_id: ana-1966
term: foreign registered aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foreign registered aircraft” means an aircraft registered in a country or territory other than Singapore;


document_id: ana-1966
term: foreign state aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foreign state aircraft” means aircraft used in the military, customs or police services of a country or territory other than Singapore;


document_id: ana-1966
term: Government aerodrome
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Government aerodrome” means an aerodrome under the control of the Government and a naval, military or air force aerodrome;


document_id: ana-1966
term: ICAO
source_provision: s2
definition:
“ICAO” means the International Civil Aviation Organization established under the Chicago Convention, and includes any successor to that Organization;


document_id: ana-1966
term: maintenance
source_provision: s2
definition:
“maintenance” , in relation to any aircraft or aeronautical product, means any task required to ensure, or that could affect, the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft or aeronautical product, including any one or combination of overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement of an aeronautical product, modification or defect rectification;


document_id: ana-1966
term: manoeuvring area
source_provision: s2
definition:
“manoeuvring area” means that part of an aerodrome to be used for the take‑off and landing of aircraft and for the surface movement of aircraft associated with take‑off and landing, but excludes any area set aside for loading, unloading or maintenance of aircraft;


document_id: ana-1966
term: military aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“military aircraft” means aircraft used in the military services of any country or territory, and includes aircraft of any part of the Singapore Armed Forces (including any aircraft that is being constructed for any part of the Singapore Armed Forces);


document_id: ana-1966
term: National Civil Aviation Security Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“National Civil Aviation Security Authority” or “NCASA” means the National Civil Aviation Security Authority appointed under section 64;


document_id: ana-1966
term: National Civil Aviation Security Programme
source_provision: s2
definition:
“National Civil Aviation Security Programme” or “NCASP” means the National Civil Aviation Security Programme required to be established for the purposes of Part 2B;


document_id: ana-1966
term: navigation installation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“navigation installation” means any building, facility, work, apparatus, equipment, or place, (whether or not part of an aerodrome) that is intended to assist in the control of air traffic or as an aid to air navigation, and includes any land adjacent to any such building, facility, work, apparatus, equipment, or place, and used in connection with any such building, facility, work, apparatus, equipment, or place;


document_id: ana-1966
term: operate
source_provision: s2
definition:
“operate” , in relation to an aircraft, means to fly or use the aircraft, or to cause the aircraft to fly, be used, or be in any place, whether or not a person is present with the aircraft;


document_id: ana-1966
term: operator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“operator” , for an unmanned aircraft, means a person engaged in, or offering to engage in, the operation of the unmanned aircraft, and where the unmanned aircraft is a remotely piloted aircraft, includes — ( a )


document_id: ana-1966
term: remotely piloted aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“remotely piloted aircraft” means an unmanned aircraft that is operated using a remotely piloted aircraft system;


document_id: ana-1966
term: remotely piloted aircraft system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“remotely piloted aircraft system” or “RPAS”, for a remotely piloted aircraft, means all of the following components: ( a )


document_id: ana-1966
term: safety inspector
source_provision: s2
definition:
“safety inspector” means a safety inspector appointed under section 13 and includes the Director‑General of Civil Aviation;


document_id: ana-1966
term: Singapore operator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Singapore operator” means an operator of aircraft whose principal place of business or permanent residence is in Singapore;


document_id: ana-1966
term: State of the Operator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“State of the Operator” means the State in which the operator’s principal place of business is located or, if there is no such place of business, the operator’s permanent residence;


document_id: ana-1966
term: structure
source_provision: s2
definition:
“structure” includes any house, warehouse, office, shop, school and any other building whether permanent or temporary and whether used for the purpose of human habitation or otherwise, and also any wall, fence, platform, staging, gatepost, pillar, paling, frame, hoarding, bridge, cable, wire or any other artificial obstruction raised above ground level;


document_id: ana-1966
term: unmanned aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“unmanned aircraft” means an aircraft that may be flown or used without any individual on board the aircraft to operate it;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation safety offence
source_provision: s12
definition:
“aviation safety offence” means an offence under this Act or any aviation safety subsidiary legislation;


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation safety regulatory requirement
source_provision: s12
definition:
“aviation safety regulatory requirement” does not include any security directive or other requirement imposed by or under Part 2B. [3D


document_id: ana-1966
term: reportable safety matter
source_provision: s29
definition:
“reportable safety matter” means safety matter that is prescribed by any aviation safety subsidiary legislation to be a reportable safety matter;


document_id: ana-1966
term: proprietor
source_provision: s36
definition:
“proprietor” , in relation to an installation, means the owner or user of the installation or the owner or occupier of the premises or place where the installation is installed, kept or operated. [8


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation safety matter
source_provision: s45
definition:
“aviation safety matter” means any information about any conduct, transaction, process, practice, occurrence, circumstance or matter that affects, or might affect, aviation safety, and includes — ( a )


document_id: ana-1966
term: competent authority
source_provision: s45
definition:
“competent authority” means the person designated by the voluntary reporting rules as the competent authority for the purpose of section 48(4) in respect of each voluntary and confidential reporting scheme established by those rules;


document_id: ana-1966
term: act of unlawful interference
source_provision: s63
definition:
“act of unlawful interference” means the doing or attempting to do anything such as to jeopardise the safety of civil aviation and air transport, and includes any of the following: ( a )


document_id: ana-1966
term: aviation security incident
source_provision: s63
definition:
“aviation security incident” means a threatened act of unlawful interference or an act of unlawful interference;


document_id: ana-1966
term: security programme
source_provision: s63
definition:
“security programme” , in relation to an aviation industry participant, means a programme prepared in accordance with the aviation security regulations, and containing matters prescribed in those regulations to show that the aviation industry participant — ( a )


document_id: ana-1966
term: body corporate
source_provision: s80
definition:
“body corporate” includes a limited liability partnership which has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: aoa-1973
term: carry
source_provision: s2
definition:
“carry” , in relation to a gun, includes to have on or about an individual’s person; [Act 3 of 2021 wef 01/07/2025]


document_id: aoa-1973
term: gun
source_provision: s2
definition:
“gun” has the meaning given by section 3 of the Guns, Explosives and Weapons Control Act 2021, and excludes an imitation gun; [Act 3 of 2021 wef 01/072025]


document_id: aoa-1973
term: imitation gun
source_provision: s2
definition:
“imitation gun” means an object that, regardless of its colour, weight or composition or the presence or absence of any moveable part, substantially duplicates in appearance a gun but that is not a gun, or any such object that is produced and identified as a toy; [Act 3 of 2021 wef 01/07/2025]


document_id: aoa-1973
term: trafficking in guns
source_provision: s2
definition:
“trafficking in guns” means to import, supply or transfer 2 or more guns (whether or not of the same kind) in contravention of the Guns, Explosives and Weapons Control Act 2021, or any Act, repealed by that Act intending to — ( a )


document_id: ara-1909
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Singapore Land Authority established under the Singapore Land Authority Act 2001;


document_id: ara-1909
term: competent authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“competent authority” means the competent authority appointed under section 5 of the Planning Act 1998 in respect of the grant of subdivision permission;


document_id: ara-1909
term: lessee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“lessee” means the lessee of land held under a State lease, and includes the assignee of the entirety of the land comprised in any State lease and the legal representatives of a State lessee;


document_id: ara-1909
term: subdivided land
source_provision: s2
definition:
“subdivided land” means any land in respect of which subdivision permission to subdivide has been granted by a competent authority under the Planning Act 1998. [17/2001]


document_id: arsa-2011
term: amusement ride
source_provision: s2
definition:
“amusement ride” means any mechanised or power‑driven device or any combination of such devices, together with any machinery, equipment and plant connected thereto or used in connection therewith, which — ( a )


document_id: arsa-2011
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Building and Construction Authority established under section 3 of the Building and Construction Authority Act 1999;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: building
source_provision: s2
definition:
“building” has the meaning given by the Building Control Act 1989, and includes any part of an amusement ride which is declared to be a building under paragraph ( g ) of the definition of “building” in section 2(1) of that Act;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: certificate of compliance
source_provision: s2
definition:
“certificate of compliance” means a certificate of compliance issued by the Commissioner of Civil Defence under section 36(4)( a ) in respect of the fire and rescue management system of an amusement ride;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: Commissioner of Building Control
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Commissioner of Building Control” means the appropriate Commissioner of Building Control appointed under section 3(1) of the Building Control Act 1989;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: Commissioner of Civil Defence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Commissioner of Civil Defence” means the Commissioner of Civil Defence appointed under section 6 of the Civil Defence Act 1986 and includes any public officer or member of the Civil Defence Force designated by the Commissioner of Civil Defence to act in his or her place for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: component
source_provision: s2
definition:
“component” , in relation to an amusement ride, means any part in the entire assembly of parts that make up the amusement ride, and includes — ( a )


document_id: arsa-2011
term: conformity assessor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“conformity assessor” means any person or body of persons (whether incorporated or not, and whether local or foreign) — ( a )


document_id: arsa-2011
term: enforcement officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“enforcement officer” means any person appointed under section 3(3) to be an enforcement officer for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: existing amusement ride
source_provision: s2
definition:
“existing amusement ride” means an amusement ride which has been in operation at any time during the period of 12 months immediately before 1 July 2011, whether on a continuous or an intermittent basis;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: fire and rescue management system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“fire and rescue management system” , in relation to an amusement ride, means any installation, apparatus or equipment (whether integrated as part of the amusement ride or otherwise) and the protocols and instructions for the activation, operation and use thereof, which are designed to be used for — ( a )


document_id: arsa-2011
term: install
source_provision: s2
definition:
“install” , in relation to an amusement ride, means to construct, erect, assemble or put in place the amusement ride on any premises, but in relation to an amusement ride that is capable of being relocated, does not include to construct, erect, assemble or put in place that amusement ride on any premises arising from its relocation to those premises;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: installation method and programme
source_provision: s2
definition:
“installation method and programme” , in relation to an amusement ride, means the method and programme to be followed for the installation of the amusement ride, and includes all safety assessments and tests to be carried out during or upon the completion of the installation works;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: installation permit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“installation permit” means a permit issued by the Commissioner under section 6 authorising the installation of an amusement ride;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: installation works
source_provision: s2
definition:
“installation works” means all works relating to the installation of an amusement ride, but does not include any building works relating to the construction or modification of any building which forms part of the amusement ride or to which the amusement ride is connected;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: major amusement ride
source_provision: s2
definition:
“major amusement ride” means any type of amusement ride which, on account of its design, size, structure, speed or other characteristics, is prescribed as a major amusement ride for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: major modification
source_provision: s2
definition:
“major modification” , in relation to an amusement ride, means any manner of change to the structure or mechanism of the amusement ride which is prescribed as a major modification for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: minor modification
source_provision: s2
definition:
“minor modification” , in relation to an amusement ride, means any modification to the amusement ride (including any refurbishment thereof) which is not prescribed as a major modification for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: modification method and programme
source_provision: s2
definition:
“modification method and programme” , in relation to the major modification of an amusement ride, means the method and programme to be followed for the major modification of the amusement ride, and includes all safety assessments and tests to be carried out during or upon the completion of the modification works;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: modification permit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“modification permit” means a permit issued by the Commissioner under section 24 authorising the major modification of an amusement ride;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: modification works
source_provision: s2
definition:
“modification works” means all works relating to the major modification or minor modification (as the case may be) of an amusement ride, but does not include any building works relating to the construction or modification of any building which forms part of the amusement ride or to which the amusement ride is connected;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: operate
source_provision: s2
definition:
“operate” , in relation to an amusement ride, means to cause the amusement ride to be put to function for the purpose of making the use of the amusement ride available to members of the public, whether upon their payment of a fee or otherwise, and “operator” is to be construed accordingly;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: operating method
source_provision: s2
definition:
“operating method” , in relation to an amusement ride, means the method by which, according to its design and specifications, the amusement ride is to be put to function, and includes all safety measures to be taken in the event of any adverse incident occurring in respect of the amusement ride;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: operating permit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“operating permit” means a permit issued by the Commissioner under section 14 authorising the holder of the permit to operate an amusement ride;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: playground equipment
source_provision: s2
definition:
“playground equipment” means any apparatus designed for recreational use in a playground and includes swings, seesaws, stationary spring-mounted animal features, rider‑propelled merry‑go‑rounds, climbers, slides, trampolines and physical fitness devices;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: power-driven
source_provision: s2
definition:
“power-driven” means driven by mechanical, electrical, magnetic, pneumatic, hydraulic or any other means but does not include being driven solely by human physical effort;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: premises
source_provision: s2
definition:
“premises” means any place or building or part thereof, whether privately owned or not, to which the general public or any section of the general public is permitted to have access, whether on payment of a fee or otherwise;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: prescribed requirements
source_provision: s2
definition:
“prescribed requirements” means the requirements (if any) prescribed by any provision of this Act or by the regulations and, where appropriate, includes such codes, standards and specifications as may be adopted by those regulations pursuant to section 73;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: relocate
source_provision: s2
definition:
“relocate” , in relation to an amusement ride, means to move the amusement ride, with or without disassembly, from its present location to another location for operation at the other location;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: relocation works
source_provision: s2
definition:
“relocation works” means all works relating to the relocation of an amusement ride, including the disassembling and reassembling of the amusement ride for the purposes of such relocation;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: ride manager
source_provision: s2
definition:
“ride manager” , in relation to an amusement ride, means a person appointed under section 16 to oversee, manage and supervise the daily routine operation and maintenance of the amusement ride;


document_id: arsa-2011
term: routine operation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“routine operation” , in relation to an amusement ride, means the carrying out of any task or activity that is necessary for putting the amusement ride to function, and includes — ( a )


document_id: arsa-2011
term: structure
source_provision: s2
definition:
“structure” , in relation to an amusement ride, includes any tower, supporting frame, wheel, axle, arm, pendulum, drive system, launch mechanism, platform, flume, track or slide which forms part of the amusement ride. [28/2017]


document_id: arsa-2011
term: body corporate
source_provision: s60
definition:
“body corporate” and “partnership” exclude a limited liability partnership within the meaning of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: asa-2007
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Accounting and Corporate Regulatory Authority established under the Accounting and Corporate Regulatory Authority Act 2004; [Act 36 of 2022 wef 01/04/2023]


document_id: asa-2007
term: Chairperson
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chairperson” means the Chairperson of the Committee, and includes any temporary Chairperson of the Committee if so appointed; [Act 36 of 2022 wef 01/04/2023]


document_id: asa-2007
term: Committee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Committee” means the Accounting Standards Committee appointed under section 4(1); [Act 36 of 2022 wef 01/04/2023]


document_id: asa-2007
term: company
source_provision: s2
definition:
“company” means any company incorporated under the Companies Act 1967 or any corresponding previous written law, and includes a foreign company registered under Division 2 of Part 11 of that Act in respect of its operations in Singapore;


document_id: asa-2007
term: making or formulating
source_provision: s2
definition:
“making or formulating” , in relation to any accounting standard, includes amending and revoking the accounting standard;


document_id: asa-2007
term: member
source_provision: s2
definition:
“member” , in relation to the Committee, means a member of the Committee and includes the Chairperson of the Committee; [Act 36 of 2022 wef 01/04/2023]


document_id: astra-1990
term: chief executive officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“chief executive officer” means the chief executive of the Agency, and includes any individual acting in that capacity;


document_id: astra-1990
term: commercial application
source_provision: s2
definition:
“commercial application” , in relation to any knowledge or technology, means the application, utilisation or exploitation of such knowledge or technology in the manufacture, production, sale, distribution or provision of goods or services in the course of any trade, business, enterprise or profession, and includes any business or commercial activity that is necessary for or related to the promotion, development or growth of any such trade, business, enterprise or profession;


document_id: astra-1990
term: financial assistance
source_provision: s2
definition:
“financial assistance” includes assistance by way of grant, loan, loan guarantee, the purchase or guarantee of bonds, debentures, notes or other debt obligations or the purchase or acquisition of any stock, shares or other equity securities;


document_id: ba-1970
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Monetary Authority of Singapore established under the Monetary Authority of Singapore Act 1970;


document_id: ba-1970
term: bank incorporated outside Singapore
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bank incorporated outside Singapore” means a bank incorporated, formed or established outside Singapore;


document_id: ba-1970
term: banking business
source_provision: s2
definition:
“banking business” means the business of receiving money on current or deposit account, paying and collecting cheques drawn by or paid in by customers, the making of advances to customers, and includes such other business as the Authority may prescribe for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: ba-1970
term: book
source_provision: s2
definition:
“book” includes any record, register, document or other record of information and any account or accounting record, however compiled, recorded or stored, whether in written, printed form or on microfilm or by electronic process or otherwise;


document_id: ba-1970
term: business day
source_provision: s2
definition:
“business day” means any calendar day other than a Saturday, Sunday, public holiday or bank holiday;


document_id: ba-1970
term: chief executive
source_provision: s2
definition:
“chief executive” , in relation to a company, means any person, by whatever name described, who — ( a )


document_id: ba-1970
term: company
source_provision: s2
definition:
“company” means any company defined in any written law for the time being in force relating to companies, any company formed pursuant to any Royal Charter or Letters Patent, and any company incorporated or registered under any written law in force in Singapore and includes any body corporate or unincorporate, whether incorporated, formed or established in or outside Singapore;


document_id: ba-1970
term: director
source_provision: s2
definition:
“director” includes any person occupying the position of director of a corporation by whatever name called and includes a person in accordance with whose directions or instructions the directors of a corporation are accustomed to act and an alternate or substitute director;


document_id: ba-1970
term: executive officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“executive officer” , in relation to a company, means any person, by whatever name described, who — ( a )


document_id: ba-1970
term: financial holding company
source_provision: s2
definition:
“financial holding company” means a company designated by the Authority under section 4 of the Financial Holding Companies Act 2013; [Act 13 of 2013 wef 30/06/2022]


document_id: ba-1970
term: foreign-owned bank incorporated in Singapore
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foreign-owned bank incorporated in Singapore” means a bank incorporated in Singapore, the parent bank of which is incorporated outside Singapore;


document_id: ba-1970
term: foreign-owned merchant bank incorporated in Singapore
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foreign-owned merchant bank incorporated in Singapore” means a merchant bank incorporated in Singapore, the parent bank of which is incorporated, formed or established outside Singapore;


document_id: ba-1970
term: Guidelines on Fit and Proper Criteria
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Guidelines on Fit and Proper Criteria” means the document by that title issued by the Authority and published on its website, as revised from time to time;


document_id: ba-1970
term: licence
source_provision: s56
definition:
“licence” means a licence to carry on the business of issuing credit cards or charge cards in Singapore;


document_id: ba-1970
term: limited liability partnership
source_provision: s32
definition:
“limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005, and includes a limited liability partnership formed or established outside Singapore;


document_id: ba-1970
term: merchant bank incorporated outside Singapore
source_provision: s2
definition:
“merchant bank incorporated outside Singapore” means a merchant bank incorporated, formed or established outside Singapore;


document_id: ba-1970
term: parent bank
source_provision: s2
definition:
“parent bank” , in relation to a bank or merchant bank, means a financial institution which is able to exercise a significant influence over the direction and management of the bank or merchant bank (as the case may be) or which has a controlling interest in the bank or merchant bank (as the case may be);


document_id: ba-1970
term: partner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“partner” and “manager”, in relation to a limited liability partnership, have the respective meanings given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: ba-1970
term: place of business
source_provision: s56
definition:
“place of business” , in relation to a licensee, includes a head or main office, a branch, an agency, a mobile branch of the licensee, any office established and maintained for a limited period only, and any other place used by the licensee for the conduct of any business of the licensee. [5/2016]


document_id: ba-1970
term: published reserves
source_provision: s2
definition:
“published reserves” , in relation to a bank or merchant bank, means reserves in the accounts of the bank or merchant bank (as the case may be) that are duly audited or certified as correct by the auditor of the bank or merchant bank, as the case may be;


document_id: ba-1970
term: qualifying subsidiary
source_provision: s2
definition:
“qualifying subsidiary” means a company which is a subsidiary of a bank incorporated in Singapore where such bank meets the requirements under section 9(1);


document_id: ba-1970
term: related corporation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“related corporation” , in relation to a corporation, means a corporation that is deemed to be related to the firstmentioned corporation under section 6 of the Companies Act 1967;


document_id: ba-1970
term: representative office
source_provision: s2
definition:
“representative office” means an office established by a person to carry out liaison work, market research or feasibility studies, in relation to banking business, for use by the person;


document_id: ba-1970
term: savings account liabilities
source_provision: s2
definition:
“savings account liabilities” , in relation to a bank, means the total deposits at that bank which normally require the presentation of passbooks for the deposit or withdrawal of moneys;


document_id: ba-1970
term: share
source_provision: s2
definition:
“share” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967 and includes an interest in a share;


document_id: ba-1970
term: sight liabilities
source_provision: s2
definition:
“sight liabilities” , in relation to a bank, means the total deposits at the bank which are repayable on demand, but does not include savings account liabilities or the deposits of any other bank at the bank;


document_id: ba-1970
term: sub-fund
source_provision: s2
definition:
“sub-fund” , in relation to an umbrella VCC, has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018; [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022]


document_id: ba-1970
term: time liabilities
source_provision: s2
definition:
“time liabilities” , in relation to a bank, means the total deposits at the bank which are repayable otherwise than on demand, but does not include savings account liabilities or the deposits of any other bank at the bank;


document_id: ba-1970
term: treasury share
source_provision: s2
definition:
“treasury share” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967; [5/2016; 1/2020] [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022]


document_id: ba-1970
term: umbrella VCC
source_provision: s2
definition:
“umbrella VCC” and “VCC” have the meanings given by section 2(1) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018. [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022]


document_id: ba-1970
term: close relative
source_provision: s4B
definition:
“close relative” , in relation to a person, means the spouse or a parent, remoter lineal ancestor or step-parent or a son, daughter, remoter issue, stepson or stepdaughter or a brother or sister, of the person;


document_id: ba-1970
term: head office capital funds
source_provision: s9
definition:
“head office capital funds” , in relation to a bank incorporated outside Singapore, means the aggregate of its paid-up capital (or its equivalent recognised by the Authority as applicable to the bank under the laws of the country or territory in which the bank is incorporated, formed or established) and its published reserves (excluding such reserves as the Authority may specify in writing), deduction having been made for any loss appearing in the accounts of the bank;


document_id: ba-1970
term: stable funding ratio
source_provision: s10C
definition:
“stable funding ratio” means the ratio of the amount of funds expected to be available to the bank to fund its assets and exposures (whether or not those assets and exposures are on its balance sheet) during a given period to the amount of funds expected to be required by the bank to fund its assets and exposures (whether or not those assets and exposures are on its balance sheet) during that period;


document_id: ba-1970
term: stable funds
source_provision: s10C
definition:
“stable funds” means the amount of funds expected to be available to the bank to fund its assets and exposures (whether or not those assets and exposures are on its balance sheet) during a given period. [1/2020]


document_id: ba-1970
term: arrangement
source_provision: s15
definition:
“arrangement” includes any formal or informal scheme, arrangement or understanding, and any trust whether express or implied;


document_id: ba-1970
term: 12% controller
source_provision: s15B
definition:
“12% controller” means a person, not being a 20% controller, who alone or together with the person’s associates — ( a )


document_id: ba-1970
term: entity
source_provision: s32
definition:
“entity” means any body corporate or unincorporate, whether incorporated, formed or established in or outside Singapore;


document_id: ba-1970
term: prohibited business
source_provision: s32
definition:
“prohibited business” means any business other than the businesses mentioned in section 30(1)( a ) to ( d ). [5/2016]


document_id: ba-1970
term: liquid assets
source_provision: s38
definition:
“liquid assets” means any asset that can be easily sold or converted into cash at little or no loss in value, as specified in the notice mentioned in subsection (1);


document_id: ba-1970
term: minimum cash balances
source_provision: s39A
definition:
“minimum cash balances” , in relation to a bank, means its minimum cash balances maintained on deposit with the Authority under section 39. [5/2016]


document_id: ba-1970
term: customer
source_provision: s40A
definition:
“customer” , in relation to a bank, includes the Authority or any monetary authority or central bank of any other country or territory, but does not include any company which carries on banking business or such other financial institution as may be designated by the Authority by written notice;


document_id: ba-1970
term: funds of a customer under management
source_provision: s40A
definition:
“funds of a customer under management” means any funds or assets of a customer (whether of the bank or any financial institution) placed with that bank for the purpose of management or investment. [1/2020]


document_id: ba-1970
term: accounting standards
source_provision: s48AA
definition:
“accounting standards” means the accounting standards made or formulated by the Accounting Standards Committee under Part 3 of the Accounting Standards Act 2007; [Act 36 of 2022 wef 01/04/2023]


document_id: ba-1970
term: associate
source_provision: s55Q
definition:
“associate” , in relation to a merchant bank, has the meaning given by section 48AA(5), with each reference to the first entity replaced with a reference to the merchant bank;


document_id: ba-1970
term: designated financial holding company
source_provision: s48AA
definition:
“designated financial holding company” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Financial Holding Companies Act 2013;


document_id: ba-1970
term: FHC group
source_provision: s48AA
definition:
“FHC group” , in relation to a designated financial holding company, means a group of entities and trusts comprising the financial holding company and — ( a )


document_id: ba-1970
term: office-holder
source_provision: s48A
definition:
“office-holder” , in relation to a bank, means any person acting in relation to the bank as its liquidator, provisional liquidator, receiver, receiver and manager or an equivalent person;


document_id: ba-1970
term: regulated financial institution
source_provision: s54
definition:
“regulated financial institution” means a person who carries on a business, the conduct of which is regulated or authorised by the Authority or, if it is carried on in Singapore, would be regulated or authorised by the Authority;


document_id: ba-1970
term: regulatory authority
source_provision: s54
definition:
“regulatory authority” , in relation to a foreign country or territory, means an authority of the foreign country or territory exercising any function that corresponds to a regulatory function of the Authority under this Act, the Monetary Authority of Singapore Act 1970 or any of the written laws set out in the Schedule to that Act. [10/2013]


document_id: ba-1970
term: transferee
source_provision: s55A
definition:
“transferee” means a bank in Singapore, or a company which has applied for or will be applying for a bank licence to carry on banking business in Singapore, to which the whole or part of a transferor’s business is, or is to be, or is proposed to be, transferred under this Division;


document_id: ba-1970
term: transferor
source_provision: s55A
definition:
“transferor” means a bank in Singapore, the whole or part of the business of which is, or is to be, or is proposed to be, transferred under this Division. [40/2019; 1/2020]


document_id: ba-1970
term: deposit
source_provision: s55Q
definition:
“deposit” has the meaning given by section 4B(4) read with subsections (4A), (5), (6) and (10) of that section;


document_id: ba-1970
term: deposit-taking business
source_provision: s55Q
definition:
“deposit-taking business” has the meaning given by section 4B(7) read with subsections (8), (9) and (10) of that section;


document_id: ba-1970
term: merchant bank group
source_provision: s55Q
definition:
“merchant bank group” , in relation to a merchant bank, means a group of entities comprising the merchant bank and — ( a )


document_id: ba-1970
term: permitted business
source_provision: s55Q
definition:
“permitted business” , in relation to a merchant bank, means one or both of the following businesses: ( a )


document_id: ba-1970
term: advertisement
source_provision: s56
definition:
“advertisement” means the dissemination or conveyance of information, or an invitation or solicitation by any means or in any form, including by means of — ( a )


document_id: ba-1970
term: credit card
source_provision: s56
definition:
“credit card” or “charge card” means any article, whether in physical or electronic form, of a kind commonly known as a credit card or charge card or any similar article intended for use in purchasing goods or services on credit, whether or not the card is valid for immediate use;


document_id: ba-1970
term: licensee
source_provision: s57FC
definition:
“licensee” means a person who is granted a licence under section 57B and is incorporated in Singapore. [1/2020]


document_id: ba-1970
term: account with the electronic service
source_provision: s75B
definition:
“account with the electronic service” , in relation to any person, means a computer account within the electronic service which is assigned by the Authority to that person for the storage and retrieval of electronic records relating to that person;


document_id: ba-1970
term: authentication code
source_provision: s75B
definition:
“authentication code” , in relation to any person, means an identification or identifying code, a password or any other authentication method or procedure which is assigned to that person for the purposes of identifying and authenticating the access to and use of the electronic service by that person;


document_id: ba-1994
term: a point
source_provision: s2
definition:
“a point” includes a mobile or potentially mobile point, whether on land, underground, in the atmosphere, underwater or anywhere else; [Act 38 of 2022 wef 01/02/2023]


document_id: ba-1994
term: access
source_provision: s2
definition:
“access” , in relation to any content, means to read, view, hear or otherwise experience content, by means of a broadcasting service or an electronic service, and includes — ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Info-communications Media Development Authority established by section 3 of the Info‑communications Media Development Authority Act 2016;


document_id: ba-1994
term: broadcasting apparatus
source_provision: s2
definition:
“broadcasting apparatus” means any apparatus capable of or designed or constructed for the reception of any broadcasting service and specified in the First Schedule;


document_id: ba-1994
term: broadcasting apparatus licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“broadcasting apparatus licence” means a licence granted under section 20 in respect of broadcasting apparatus, and “broadcasting apparatus licensee” is to be construed accordingly;


document_id: ba-1994
term: broadcasting licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“broadcasting licence” means a licence granted under section 8 or 9 for the provision of a licensable broadcasting service, and “broadcasting licensee” is to be construed accordingly;


document_id: ba-1994
term: broadcasting service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“broadcasting service” means a service whereby signs or signals transmitted (whether or not encrypted) comprise — ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: Chief Executive
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chief Executive” , in relation to the Authority, means the Chief Executive of the Authority appointed under section 40(1) of the Info-communications Media Development Authority Act 2016, and includes any individual acting in that capacity;


document_id: ba-1994
term: class licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“class licence” means a licence determined under section 9 to be applicable to certain licensable broadcasting services, and “class licensee” is to be construed accordingly;


document_id: ba-1994
term: content
source_provision: s2
definition:
“content” means information or material capable of communication by means of a broadcasting service or an electronic service — ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: end-user
source_provision: s2
definition:
“end-user” , in relation to an electronic service, means an individual who, or an entity that, and whether or not in the course of business — ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: excluded electronic service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“excluded electronic service” has the meaning given by section 2A(3); [Act 38 of 2022 wef 01/02/2023]


document_id: ba-1994
term: free-to-air broadcasting service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“free-to-air broadcasting service” means a licensable broadcasting service made available for reception in at least 2 dwelling houses by broadcasting apparatus commonly available to the public without payment of a subscription fee;


document_id: ba-1994
term: free-to-air licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“free-to-air licence” means a broadcasting licence granted under this Act for the operation of a free-to-air broadcasting service, and “free-to-air licensee” is to be construed accordingly;


document_id: ba-1994
term: internet access service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“internet access service” means a telecommunication service between a point in Singapore and another point in Singapore or between 2 points, one of which is in Singapore — ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licence” means a licence granted under any provision of this Act, and “licensee” is to be construed accordingly;


document_id: ba-1994
term: licensable broadcasting service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licensable broadcasting service” means any broadcasting service specified in the Second Schedule and is not and has never been an online communication service; [Act 38 of 2022 wef 01/02/2023]


document_id: ba-1994
term: online Code of Practice
source_provision: s2
definition:
“online Code of Practice” means a Code of Practice that is issued or amended under section 45L or amended under section 59(3) on appeal; [Act 38 of 2022 wef 01/02/2023]


document_id: ba-1994
term: online communication service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“online communication service” has the meaning given by section 2A(1); [Act 38 of 2022 wef 01/02/2023]


document_id: ba-1994
term: provider
source_provision: s2
definition:
“provider” , for an online communication service, has the meaning given by section 2D; [Act 38 of 2022 wef 01/02/2023]


document_id: ba-1994
term: regulated online communication service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“regulated online communication service” means an online communication service that is designated under section 45K(1) as a regulated online communication service; [Act 38 of 2022 wef 01/02/2023]


document_id: ba-1994
term: shares
source_provision: s2
definition:
“shares” , in relation to a company, means shares in, or stock forming part of, the capital of the company;


document_id: ba-1994
term: Singapore end-user
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Singapore end-user” , in relation to an online communication service, means any of the following end-users of the service: ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: social media service
source_provision: s45T
definition:
“social media service” means an electronic service that satisfies all the following characteristics: ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: subscription broadcasting service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“subscription broadcasting service” means a licensable broadcasting service made available to the audience for whom it is intended only upon the payment of a subscription fee;


document_id: ba-1994
term: functionality
source_provision: s45T
definition:
“functionality” , in relation to an online communication service, has the meaning given by section 2A;


document_id: ba-1994
term: MMS
source_provision: s2A
definition:
“MMS” means an electronic service that enables only the transmission of multimedia messages (such as visual or voice communication) from an end-user on a mobile telephone to another mobile telephone through a telecommunication service;


document_id: ba-1994
term: MMS message
source_provision: s2A
definition:
“MMS message” means a message (whether or not accompanied by any sound or images) sent using an MMS;


document_id: ba-1994
term: one-to-one live aural communications
source_provision: s2A
definition:
“one-to-one live aural communications” , in relation to an electronic service, means content — ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: point-to-multipoint service
source_provision: s2A
definition:
“point-to-multipoint service” means an electronic service which allows an end-user to communicate content to more than one end-user simultaneously;


document_id: ba-1994
term: SMS
source_provision: s2A
definition:
“SMS” means an electronic service that only enables the transmission of short text messages from an end-user on a mobile telephone to another mobile telephone through a telecommunication service;


document_id: ba-1994
term: relevant licensable broadcasting service
source_provision: s31
definition:
“relevant licensable broadcasting service” means a licensable broadcasting service specified in the first column of the Third Schedule provided by a person specified in the second column of that Schedule opposite the licensable broadcasting service.


document_id: ba-1994
term: broadcasting company
source_provision: s32
definition:
“broadcasting company” means a company incorporated or registered under the Companies Act 1967 which holds a relevant licence, or a broadcasting holding company;


document_id: ba-1994
term: broadcasting holding company
source_provision: s32
definition:
“broadcasting holding company” means a holding company of a company incorporated or registered under the Companies Act 1967 which holds a relevant licence;


document_id: ba-1994
term: sub-fund
source_provision: s32
definition:
“sub-fund” , “umbrella VCC” and “VCC” have the meanings given by section 2(1) of the VCC Act; [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022]


document_id: ba-1994
term: chief executive officer
source_provision: s33
definition:
“chief executive officer” , in relation to a broadcasting company, means any person, by whatever name described, who is — ( a )


document_id: ba-1994
term: substantial shareholder
source_provision: s34
definition:
“substantial shareholder” has the meaning given by section 81 of the Companies Act 1967, with the reference to a company in the definition replaced with a reference to a VCC where the entity concerned is a VCC; [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022]


document_id: ba-1994
term: fund from a foreign source
source_provision: s43
definition:
“fund from a foreign source” includes any fund provided by a foreign source indirectly through any agent of the foreign source.


document_id: ba-1994
term: public health measure
source_provision: s45D
definition:
“public health measure” means the organised response by society (including Government) to prevent, mitigate or control a public health risk;


document_id: ba-1994
term: advocate
source_provision: s45T
definition:
“advocate” , in relation to any conduct, means counsel, promote, encourage or urge the engaging in that conduct;


document_id: ba-1994
term: section 45H direction
source_provision: s45T
definition:
“section 45H direction” means a direction given under section 45H to a provider of an online communication service, and includes such a direction that is varied under section 59(3) on appeal;


document_id: ba-1994
term: section 45I blocking direction
source_provision: s45T
definition:
“section 45I blocking direction” means a direction given under section 45I to a provider of an internet access service, and includes such a direction varied under section 59(3) on appeal;


document_id: ba-1994
term: decoder
source_provision: s48
definition:
“decoder” means any apparatus or device (including a computer program) or any component or part thereof which is designed or adapted to enable (whether on its own or with any other apparatus or device) an encrypted programme to be decoded;


document_id: ba-1994
term: unauthorised decoder
source_provision: s48
definition:
“unauthorised decoder” means a decoder which is designed or adapted to enable an encrypted programme to be viewed in decoded form without the authorisation of the lawful provider of a broadcasting service who had broadcast the programme.


document_id: ba-1994
term: residential address
source_provision: s64
definition:
“residential address” means an individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore. [Act 38 of 2022 wef 01/02/2023]


document_id: bata-2005
term: approval
source_provision: s2
definition:
“approval” means an approval granted by the Director‑General under this Act; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: bata-2005
term: biological agent waste
source_provision: s2
definition:
“biological agent waste” means any unwanted, unused or obsolete biological agent or any material or waste contaminated with any biological agent;


document_id: bata-2005
term: certification
source_provision: s2
definition:
“certification” , in relation to a facility, means a certification under section 51, and includes a re‑certification of the facility;


document_id: bata-2005
term: diagnosis
source_provision: s2
definition:
“diagnosis” means any activity undertaken solely with the intention of analysing any specimen from a person or an animal in which a biological agent is or is suspected of being present for the purpose of — ( a )


document_id: bata-2005
term: enforcement officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“enforcement officer” means any person appointed by the Director‑General to be an enforcement officer under section 3(2); [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: bata-2005
term: First Schedule (Part 1) biological agent
source_provision: s2
definition:
“First Schedule (Part 1) biological agent” means any biological agent specified in Part 1 of the First Schedule;


document_id: bata-2005
term: First Schedule (Part 2) biological agent
source_provision: s2
definition:
“First Schedule (Part 2) biological agent” means any biological agent specified in Part 2 of the First Schedule;


document_id: bata-2005
term: goods in transit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“goods in transit” means goods that are brought into Singapore solely for the purpose of taking them out of Singapore, whether on the same conveyance on which they were brought into Singapore or on another conveyance, without the goods being landed and kept at any place in Singapore pending their being taken out of Singapore;


document_id: bata-2005
term: import
source_provision: s2
definition:
“import” means to bring into Singapore any goods other than goods in transit or goods which are to be transhipped;


document_id: bata-2005
term: inactivated
source_provision: s2
definition:
“inactivated” , in relation to a biological agent, means that the biological agent has been rendered non-infectious and unable to replicate itself under any condition;


document_id: bata-2005
term: large-scale production
source_provision: s2
definition:
“large-scale production” , in relation to a biological agent, means the production by any person of the biological agent using equipment at a facility capable of producing in aggregate 10 or more litres of culture of the biological agent at any one time;


document_id: bata-2005
term: operator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“operator” , in relation to a facility, means the person who operates the facility or who has the management or control of the facility;


document_id: bata-2005
term: permit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“permit” means a permit granted by the Director‑General under this Act; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: bata-2005
term: protected place
source_provision: s2
definition:
“protected place” means any premises declared to be a protected place under the Infrastructure Protection Act 2017;


document_id: bata-2005
term: public transportation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public transportation” means transportation by bus, taxi, rail or any other conveyance, whether publicly or privately operated, which provides general or special service to the general public on a regular and continuing basis, and includes such other means of transportation as may be prescribed as a type of public transportation for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: bata-2005
term: Singapore Civil Defence Force
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Singapore Civil Defence Force” means the Singapore Civil Defence Force raised and maintained under the Civil Defence Act 1986;


document_id: bata-2005
term: transferee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“transferee” , in relation to any biological agent or toxin, means the person to whom the biological agent or toxin is provided;


document_id: bata-2005
term: transferor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“transferor” , in relation to any biological agent or toxin, means the person who provides the biological agent or toxin to another person;


document_id: bata-2005
term: tranship
source_provision: s2
definition:
“tranship” means to bring any goods into Singapore solely for the purpose of taking them out of Singapore, whether on the same conveyance on which they were brought into Singapore or on another conveyance, where the goods are landed and kept at any place in Singapore pending their being taken out of Singapore;


document_id: bata-2005
term: inactivated scheduled biological agent
source_provision: s63
definition:
“inactivated scheduled biological agent” means a First Schedule biological agent, a Second Schedule biological agent, a Third Schedule biological agent or a Fourth Schedule biological agent that has been inactivated;


document_id: bata-2005
term: scheduled biological agent
source_provision: s63
definition:
“scheduled biological agent” means a First Schedule biological agent, a Second Schedule biological agent, a Third Schedule biological agent or a Fourth Schedule biological agent.


document_id: bca-1989
term: accredited checker
source_provision: s2
definition:
“accredited checker” means a person who is registered as an accredited checker under section 16, whether acting on his or her own behalf or on behalf of an accredited checking organisation;


document_id: bca-1989
term: accredited checking organisation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“accredited checking organisation” means an accredited checking organisation registered as such under section 16;


document_id: bca-1989
term: amended plans
source_provision: s2
definition:
“amended plans” means plans showing any deviation from, or any amendment or addition to, any plans of building works approved or deemed approved under section 5(3) or 5AA(1); [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]


document_id: bca-1989
term: builder
source_provision: s2
definition:
“builder” means any person who undertakes, whether exclusively or in conjunction with any other business, to carry out any building works for the person’s own account or for or on behalf of another person but does not include a sub-contractor in relation to those building works; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 15/06/2024]


document_id: bca-1989
term: builder’s licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“builder’s licence” means a general builder’s licence or a specialist builder’s licence granted under Part 5A;


document_id: bca-1989
term: building
source_provision: s22G
definition:
“building” includes a building or any part of a building in respect of which building works are being carried out;


document_id: bca-1989
term: Building and Construction Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Building and Construction Authority” means the Building and Construction Authority established under section 3 of the Building and Construction Authority Act 1999;


document_id: bca-1989
term: certificate of statutory completion
source_provision: s2
definition:
“certificate of statutory completion” means a certificate of statutory completion issued under section 12;


document_id: bca-1989
term: Commissioner of Building Control
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Commissioner of Building Control” , in relation to this Act or any Part or provision of this Act, means any Commissioner of Building Control appointed under section 3(1) to be responsible for the operation of this Act or that Part or provision, as the case may be;


document_id: bca-1989
term: competent authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“competent authority” means the competent authority appointed under section 5 of the Planning Act 1998 in respect of the development of land;


document_id: bca-1989
term: developer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“developer” , in relation to any building works, means the person for whom or on whose behalf the building works are carried out;


document_id: bca-1989
term: earth retaining structure
source_provision: s2
definition:
“earth retaining structure” means any structure, structural system or other means used to maintain the shape of excavation during construction, earth filling or cutting;


document_id: bca-1989
term: exterior feature
source_provision: s2
definition:
“exterior feature” , in relation to any building, means any permanent feature of a building that — ( a )


document_id: bca-1989
term: general builder’s licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“general builder’s licence” means a licence granted under Part 5A * authorising the person granted the licence to carry on the business of a general builder, but excludes such a licence when it is not in force; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 15/06/2024]


document_id: bca-1989
term: geotechnical engineer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“geotechnical engineer” means a professional engineer who is registered under the Professional Engineers Act 1991 as a specialist professional engineer in the specialised branch of geotechnical engineering;


document_id: bca-1989
term: grant
source_provision: s2
definition:
“grant” or “granted”, in relation to a general builder’s licence or a specialist builder’s licence, includes grant or granted on renewal of the licence; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 15/06/2024]


document_id: bca-1989
term: Housing and Development Board
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Housing and Development Board” means the Housing and Development Board established under section 3 of the Housing and Development Act 1959;


document_id: bca-1989
term: immediate supervision
source_provision: s2
definition:
“immediate supervision” , in relation to any building works or part thereof, means personally and directly exercising oversight, control and inspection of the carrying out of the building works or part thereof;


document_id: bca-1989
term: key structural elements
source_provision: s2
definition:
“key structural elements” means the foundations, columns, beams, shear cores, structural walls, struts, ground anchors and any other parts of a building which are essential for its support and overall structural stability;


document_id: bca-1989
term: large building works
source_provision: s2
definition:
“large building works” means any building works that are prescribed for the purposes of section 7(1)( b );


document_id: bca-1989
term: licensed general builder
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licensed general builder” means a person to whom a general builder’s licence is granted but excludes the person when the general builder’s licence is not in force; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 09/12/2022]


document_id: bca-1989
term: licensed specialist builder
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licensed specialist builder” , for any specialist building works, means a person to whom a specialist builder’s licence is granted in respect of those specialist building works but excludes the person when that specialist builder’s licence is not in force; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 09/12/2022]


document_id: bca-1989
term: limited common property
source_provision: s2
definition:
“limited common property” has the meaning given by the Building (Strata Management) Act 2004 * ; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/10/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: limited liability partnership
source_provision: s2
definition:
“limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: bca-1989
term: lodgment
source_provision: s2
definition:
“lodgment” means a lodgment of plans with the Commissioner of Building Control for the purpose of section 5AA; [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]


document_id: bca-1989
term: lodgment works
source_provision: s2
definition:
“lodgment works” means building works which are prescribed as lodgment works in the building regulations; [Act 23 of 2023 wef 18/12/2023]


document_id: bca-1989
term: minor building works
source_provision: s2
definition:
“minor building works” means building works (not being geotechnical building works) that are prescribed in the building regulations as building works the plans of which do not require a certification from an accredited checker for the purposes of section 5 or 5A;


document_id: bca-1989
term: occupier
source_provision: s2
definition:
“occupier” , in relation to any building, means the person in occupation of the building or having the charge, management or control thereof, either on the person’s own account or as agent of another, but does not include any lodger within the building;


document_id: bca-1989
term: permanent resident of Singapore
source_provision: s2
definition:
“permanent resident of Singapore” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Immigration Act 1959; [Act 31 of 2023 wef 01/12/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: person responsible
source_provision: s22A
definition:
“person responsible” , in relation to an exterior feature that is part of the common property of any housing estate of the Housing and Development Board, includes (in addition to that defined in section 2(1)) the Board if the Board is designated by the Minister to be a person responsible with respect to that exterior feature;


document_id: bca-1989
term: repealed Act
source_provision: s2
definition:
“repealed Act” means the Building Control Act (Cap. 29, 1985 Revised Edition) in force immediately before 1 May 1989;


document_id: bca-1989
term: safety incident
source_provision: s22G
definition:
“safety incident” , in relation to an exterior feature of a building or a fixed installation, means — ( a )


document_id: bca-1989
term: short-lived materials
source_provision: s2
definition:
“short-lived materials” means any building materials which are, in the absence of special care, liable to rapid deterioration or are otherwise unsuitable for use in the construction of permanent buildings;


document_id: bca-1989
term: site supervisor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“site supervisor” means a person appointed (whether alone or as a member of a team of site supervisors) under section 10 to be a site supervisor in respect of any small‑scale or large building works;


document_id: bca-1989
term: small-scale building works
source_provision: s2
definition:
“small-scale building works” means any building works that are prescribed for the purposes of section 7(1)( c );


document_id: bca-1989
term: specialist accredited checker
source_provision: s2
definition:
“specialist accredited checker” means an accredited checker who is registered under section 16 to undertake the work of an accredited checker as regards the geotechnical aspects of any geotechnical building works;


document_id: bca-1989
term: specialist builder’s licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“specialist builder’s licence” means a licence granted under Part 5A * authorising the person granted the licence to carry on the business of a specialist builder but excludes such a licence when it is not in force; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 15/06/2024]


document_id: bca-1989
term: strata title plan
source_provision: s2
definition:
“strata title plan” has the meaning given by the Land Titles (Strata) Act 1967 * ; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 15/06/2024]


document_id: bca-1989
term: structural elements
source_provision: s2
definition:
“structural elements” means those parts or elements of a building which resist forces and moments, and includes foundations, beams, columns, shear cores, structural walls, struts, ground anchors, slabs, trusses, staircases, load‑bearing walls and all other elements designed to resist forces and moments but does not include doors, windows and non‑load bearing walls;


document_id: bca-1989
term: sub-contractor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“sub-contractor” , in relation to any general building works or specialist building works, means a person engaged (otherwise than under a contract of service) by — ( a )


document_id: bca-1989
term: subsidiary management corporation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“subsidiary management corporation” , in relation to any limited common property, means the subsidiary management corporation constituted for that limited common property under the Land Titles (Strata) Act 1967 * ; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 15/06/2024]


document_id: bca-1989
term: temporary occupation licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“temporary occupation licence” means a temporary occupation licence issued under section 8(1) of the repealed Act;


document_id: bca-1989
term: unauthorised
source_provision: s2
definition:
“unauthorised” , in relation to a building or building works, means any building erected, or any building works commenced or carried out, in contravention of any provision of this Act or the building regulations;


document_id: bca-1989
term: ventilating system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“ventilating system” means a mechanical system for introducing or exhausting air. [26/2000; 18/2003; 34/2004; 47/2004; 47/2007; 22/2012; 4/2021] [*Updated to be consistent with the 2020 Revised Edition]


document_id: bca-1989
term: person with disability
source_provision: s22D
definition:
“person with disability” means an individual who has an impairment of hearing or sight, or an impairment which limits his ability to walk, or which restricts him or her to using a wheelchair;


document_id: bca-1989
term: physical feature
source_provision: s22D
definition:
“physical feature” , in relation to a building, includes the following physical features (permanent or temporary): ( a )


document_id: bca-1989
term: relevant building works
source_provision: s22DA
definition:
“relevant building works” , in relation to a relevant building, means building works to erect any physical feature — ( a )


document_id: bca-1989
term: trigger application
source_provision: s22DA
definition:
“trigger application” means an application for approval of the plans of any building works under section 5(1) for the alteration, addition or repair of a relevant building. [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/06/2023]


document_id: bca-1989
term: approved reduction
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“approved reduction” , in relation to the energy use intensity of a building, means a reduction in the energy use intensity of the building by a percentage approved by the Commissioner of Building Control under section 22FO(3) for that building; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: as-built score
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“as-built score” , in relation to an existing building which has undergone a major energy use change, means the ES score awarded to that building upon the completion of the major energy use change; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: audit report
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“audit report” means a report of the result of an energy audit mentioned in section 22FN(1)( d ); [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: design score
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“design score” , in relation to an existing building for which a major energy use change is proposed, means the ES score projected for that building upon the completion of the major energy use change, assessed based on the design of the proposed major energy use change; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: energy auditor
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“energy auditor” means a person registered as an energy auditor under section 22FC; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: energy efficiency improvement plan
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“energy efficiency improvement plan” means an energy efficiency improvement plan prepared under section 22FN(1)( c ), and includes any energy efficiency improvement plan amended in accordance with section 22FO(4) or 22FS(1); [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: energy use intensity
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“energy use intensity” , in relation to a building, means the annual energy consumption of the building per unit of gross floor area (expressed in kilowatt hour (kWh) per square metre per year), calculated using the prescribed methodology; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: energy use intensity threshold
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“energy use intensity threshold” means the threshold level of energy use intensity prescribed for the purposes of this Part; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: energy-intensive building
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“energy-intensive building” means a Type 1 building that has an energy use intensity that exceeds the energy use intensity threshold; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: environmental sustainability score
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“environmental sustainability score” or “ES score” means a numerical score to assess the environmental sustainability of a building, calculated using the prescribed scoring methodology; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: existing building
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“existing building” means any building in respect of which a certificate of statutory completion or a temporary occupation permit is issued;


document_id: bca-1989
term: gross floor area
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“gross floor area” , in relation to a building, means the aggregate of the gross areas of all floor spaces of the building that are prescribed (whether the floor space is within or outside the building, enclosed, covered or otherwise), but excludes any prescribed excluded area; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: mandatory energy improvement audit notice
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“mandatory energy improvement audit notice” or “MEI audit notice” means a mandatory energy improvement audit notice issued under section 22FJ(1); [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: mechanical engineer
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“mechanical engineer” means a professional engineer registered under the Professional Engineers Act 1991 in the branch of mechanical engineering who has in force a practising certificate issued under that Act;


document_id: bca-1989
term: minimum environmental sustainability standard
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“minimum environmental sustainability standard” , in relation to any building, means the prescribed minimum standard of environmental sustainability applicable to that building, or to a building of that type or class, expressed in terms of a ES score and other specified requirements; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: specified reduction
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“specified reduction” , in relation to the energy use intensity of a building, means a reduction in the energy use intensity of the building by a prescribed percentage; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: Type 1 building
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“Type 1 building” means an existing building, or part of an existing building, of any class or type for the time being prescribed for the purposes of Divisions 2, 3 and 4; [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: Type 2 building
source_provision: s22FA
definition:
“Type 2 building” means an existing building, or part of an existing building, of any class or type for the time being prescribed for the purposes of Division 5. [22/2012] [Act 28 of 2024 wef 30/09/2025]


document_id: bca-1989
term: building product
source_provision: s22G
definition:
“building product” means any product, material, assembly of components, software or other thing that is, or could be, used in a building and is prescribed by building regulations to be a building product for the purposes of Division 2;


document_id: bca-1989
term: safety risk
source_provision: s22G
definition:
“safety risk” , in relation to a building product, means a feature of the design or construction of — ( a )


document_id: bca-1989
term: competent person
source_provision: s26
definition:
“competent person” , in relation to a fa&#231;ade inspection, means a qualified person who satisfies such requirements as may be prescribed for the purposes of this Part; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/01/2022]


document_id: bca-1989
term: fa&#231;ade inspection
source_provision: s26
definition:
“fa&#231;ade inspection” means an inspection mentioned in section 28(1)( b ); [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/01/2022]


document_id: bca-1989
term: inspect
source_provision: s26
definition:
“inspect” includes examine and test, with or without the aid of equipment; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/01/2022]


document_id: bca-1989
term: special building
source_provision: s26
definition:
“special building” means any building of which not less than 90% of its floor area is used solely for residential purposes, and in this definition, “floor area” means the total area of floor space within the building measured between party walls including the thickness of external walls;


document_id: bca-1989
term: structural engineer
source_provision: s26
definition:
“structural engineer” means a person who is registered under the Professional Engineers Act 1991 in the civil or structural engineering discipline and who has in force a practising certificate issued under that Act authorising him or her to engage in civil or structural engineering work; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/01/2022]


document_id: bca-1989
term: structural inspection
source_provision: s26
definition:
“structural inspection” means an inspection mentioned in section 28(1)( a ). [34/2004; 47/2004; 22/2012; 4/2021] [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/01/2022]


document_id: bca-1989
term: licensee
source_provision: s29A
definition:
“licensee” means a licensed general builder or a licensed specialist builder; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 15/06/2024]


document_id: bca-1989
term: construction foreman
source_provision: s29H
definition:
“construction foreman” means a natural person who carries out, or undertakes to carry out, for or on behalf of another person for a fixed sum, percentage, or valuable consideration, wages or other reward, the supervision and coordination of construction tradesmen or other workmen in any prescribed class of work connected with any building works, and a construction foreman is to be classified according to the class of work he or she so supervises for reward;


document_id: bca-1989
term: construction supervisor
source_provision: s29H
definition:
“construction supervisor” means a natural person, not being a builder, who oversees the execution or performance of building works for or on behalf of another person for a fixed sum, percentage, or valuable consideration, wages or other reward, but does not include a construction foreman or other person employed in a like or less responsible capacity;


document_id: bca-1989
term: construction tradesman
source_provision: s29H
definition:
“construction tradesman” means a natural person, not being a builder, who carries out, or undertakes to carry out, for or on behalf of another person, for a fixed sum, percentage, or valuable consideration, wages or other reward, any prescribed class of work connected with any building works, and a construction tradesman is to be classified according to the class of work he so carries out for reward;


document_id: bca-1989
term: registered
source_provision: s29M
definition:
“registered” or “registration” means registered or registration under this Part authorising the person registered to carry on any registrable activity or a class of registrable activity specified in the registration;


document_id: bca-1989
term: significant general building work project
source_provision: s29H
definition:
“significant general building work project” means any building works the value of which is $10 million or any other amount that the Minister may, by order in the Gazette , specify in lieu thereof, or more. [47/2007; 30/2008]


document_id: bca-1989
term: basic rate of pay
source_provision: s29M
definition:
“basic rate of pay” means the total amount of money (including wage adjustments and increments) to which an employee is entitled under the employee’s contract of service for working for one month, but does not include — ( a )


document_id: bca-1989
term: prescribed date
source_provision: s29M
definition:
“prescribed date” means a date prescribed by building regulations made in relation to all registrable activity or a class of registrable activity;


document_id: bca-1989
term: progressive wage model bonus
source_provision: s29M
definition:
“progressive wage model bonus” means a discretionary amount of money payable to an employee that is in addition to all of the following paid to the employee: ( a )


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: Board
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Board” means the Construction Industry Development Board established under section 3 of the repealed Construction Industry Development Board Act (Cap. 51, 1985 Revised Edition);


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: Chairperson
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chairperson” means the Chairperson of the Authority and includes any acting Chairperson of the Authority;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: Chief Executive
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chief Executive” means the Chief Executive of the Authority, and includes any individual acting in that capacity;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: construction industry
source_provision: s2
definition:
“construction industry” means the industry concerning the carrying out of construction works and services;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: construction works and services
source_provision: s2
definition:
“construction works and services” includes all aspects of architectural, engineering, development and construction works and services including such other related production, design and consultancy works and services which result in the construction, maintenance, retrofitting, repair or removal of all types of buildings and infrastructure;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: assisting officer
source_provision: s27
definition:
“assisting officer” means a public officer or an employee of a public authority who is not a police officer, an officer of customs or an immigration officer, but who has been authorised by the Authority by name to assist an enforcement officer;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: authorised analyst
source_provision: s27
definition:
“authorised analyst” means any person (who is not an employee of the Authority) or body of persons designated by the Authority under section 39 as authorised to carry out any inspection, examination and certification of any essential construction material under this Part and includes any enforcement officer;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: consignment
source_provision: s27
definition:
“consignment” , in relation to any essential construction material, means essential construction material of a particular kind that comprises a single lot imported by the same owner at the same time;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: essential construction material
source_provision: s27
definition:
“essential construction material” means any of the following materials which are suitable for use in any building works, street works or railway works in Singapore and the domestic supply of which is short: ( a )


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: import
source_provision: s27
definition:
“import” means to bring or cause to be brought into Singapore by land, water or air from any place which is outside Singapore, but does not include the bringing into Singapore of essential construction material which is to be taken out of Singapore on the same conveyance on which it was brought into Singapore without any landing or transhipment within Singapore;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: import permit
source_provision: s27
definition:
“import permit” means an import permit granted under section 34 to import a particular consignment of essential construction material;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: isolation order
source_provision: s27
definition:
“isolation order” means an order issued or deemed to be issued under section 36 in respect of a consignment of essential construction material;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: licence
source_provision: s27
definition:
“licence” means a licence granted under section 31 to carry on the business of importing essential construction material specified in the licence;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: procure
source_provision: s27
definition:
“procure” means to acquire (by purchase or exchange) and to import essential construction materials;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: railway works
source_provision: s27
definition:
“railway works” means any works for the construction, reconstruction or realignment, or the permanent improvement of a railway;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: sand
source_provision: s27
definition:
“sand” means any sand or gravel that is suitable for use as fine aggregate in any building works, street works or railway works in Singapore, but excludes any unwashed or unprocessed marine-dredged sand or gravel;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: site
source_provision: s27
definition:
“site” , in relation to any essential construction material, means any land or land underwater outside Singapore — ( a )


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: storage permit
source_provision: s27
definition:
“storage permit” means any storage permit granted under section 35 in respect of such premises as may be specified in the storage permit;


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: supply
source_provision: s27
definition:
“supply” , in relation to any essential construction material, means to transfer possession of the essential construction material by any means whether or not for reward, and includes –– ( a )


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: vehicle
source_provision: s27
definition:
“vehicle” means a conveyance that is designed to be propelled or drawn by any means (whether or not capable of being so propelled or drawn) and includes — ( a )


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: vessel
source_provision: s27
definition:
“vessel” means any kind of craft used in navigation by sea or water, however propelled or moved, and includes — ( a )


document_id: bcaa-1999
term: body corporate
source_provision: s51
definition:
“body corporate” includes a limited liability partnership (which has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005);


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: adjudicated amount
source_provision: s2
definition:
“adjudicated amount” means the amount of a progress payment that is determined to be payable under section 17 or 19, as the case may be;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: adjudication
source_provision: s2
definition:
“adjudication” means the adjudication of a payment claim dispute in accordance with Part 4, and includes an adjudication review under that Part;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: adjudication determination
source_provision: s2
definition:
“adjudication determination” , in relation to an adjudication, means the determination of the adjudicator;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: adjudication response
source_provision: s2
definition:
“adjudication response” means a response to an adjudication application lodged by a respondent under section 15(1);


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: adjudicator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“adjudicator” means a person appointed under this Act to determine a payment claim dispute that has been referred for adjudication, and includes — ( a )


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: claimed amount
source_provision: s2
definition:
“claimed amount” means the whole or part of any progress payment claimed by a claimant in a payment claim, and includes any interest payable under section 8(5);


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: contract
source_provision: s2
definition:
“contract” means a construction contract or a supply contract, and includes a construction contract or a supply contract that has been terminated;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: due date
source_provision: s2
definition:
“due date” , in relation to a progress payment, means the date on which the progress payment becomes due and payable under section 8;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: patent error
source_provision: s2
definition:
“patent error” , in relation to a payment claim, means an error that is obvious, manifest or otherwise easily recognisable on the face of the claim;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: payment response
source_provision: s2
definition:
“payment response” , in relation to a construction contract, means a response to a payment claim made by a respondent under section 11(1) or 12(4);


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: principal
source_provision: s2
definition:
“principal” , in relation to a respondent named in a payment claim served by a claimant under section 10, means a person who is liable to make payment to the respondent for or in relation to the whole or part of the construction work that is, or the whole or part of the goods or services that are, the subject of the contract between the respondent and the claimant;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: progress payment
source_provision: s2
definition:
“progress payment” means a payment to which a person is entitled for the carrying out of construction work, or the supply of goods or services, under a contract, and includes — ( a )


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: respondent
source_provision: s2
definition:
“respondent” means a person who is or may be liable to make a progress payment under a contract to a claimant;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: money owing
source_provision: s9
definition:
“money owing” , in relation to a contract, means money owing for construction work carried out, or for goods or services supplied, under the contract;


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: pay when paid provision
source_provision: s9
definition:
“pay when paid provision” , in relation to a contract, means a provision of the contract by whatever name called — ( a )


document_id: bcispa-2004
term: trust account
source_provision: s28A
definition:
“trust account” means a current or deposit account maintained in the name of the authorised nominating body at a bank, in the title of which the words “BCISOPA ANB — Adjudicated Amount Client Account” appear. [47/2018]


document_id: bea-1949
term: bank holiday
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bank holiday” and “public holiday” respectively include any day declared to be such under any written law for the time being in force and includes any day (other than a Sunday) observed as a weekly holiday;


document_id: bea-1949
term: banker
source_provision: s2
definition:
“banker” includes a body of persons, whether incorporated or not, who carry on the business of banking;


document_id: bea-1949
term: bankrupt
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bankrupt” includes any person whose estate is vested in a trustee or assignee under the law for the time being in force relating to bankruptcy;


document_id: bea-1949
term: holder
source_provision: s2
definition:
“holder” means the payee or indorsee of a bill or note who is in possession of it, or the bearer thereof;


document_id: bea-1949
term: issue
source_provision: s2
definition:
“issue” means the first delivery of a bill or note, complete in form, to a person who takes it as a holder;


document_id: bla-1992
term: bill of lading
source_provision: s5
definition:
“bill of lading” , “sea waybill” and “ship’s delivery order” shall be construed in accordance with section 1;


document_id: bla-1992
term: holder
source_provision: s5
definition:
“holder” , in relation to a bill of lading, shall be construed in accordance with subsection (2). [43/99; 5/2021]


document_id: bnra-2014
term: business
source_provision: s2
definition:
“business” includes every form of trade, commerce and profession, and any other activity, that is carried on for the purposes of gain, but does not include any office, employment or occupation;


document_id: bnra-2014
term: corporation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“corporation” means any body corporate formed, incorporated or existing in Singapore or outside Singapore and includes — ( a )


document_id: bnra-2014
term: electronic transaction system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“electronic transaction system” means the electronic transaction system mentioned in section 29(1); [Act 21 of 2024 wef 09/12/2024]


document_id: bnra-2014
term: inspector
source_provision: s2
definition:
“inspector” means a person authorised in writing by the Registrar under section 32(1) to be an inspector for the purposes of this Act;


document_id: bnra-2014
term: registered business name
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registered business name” means the business name in respect of which a person is registered under section 8;


document_id: bnra-2014
term: Registrar
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Registrar” means the Registrar of Business Names appointed under section 3(2) and includes any Deputy Registrar or Assistant Registrar of Business Names appointed under that section;


document_id: bnra-2014
term: residential address
source_provision: s2
definition:
“residential address” , in relation to an individual, means the individual’s usual place of residence.


document_id: bnra-2014
term: registered corporate service provider
source_provision: s6
definition:
“registered corporate service provider” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Corporate Service Providers Act 2024. [Act 22 of 2024 wef 09/06/2025]


document_id: bsa-1886
term: bill of sale
source_provision: s3
definition:
“bill of sale” also includes as regards any personal chattels which may be seized or taken thereunder every attornment, instrument or agreement whereby a power of distress is given or agreed to be given by any person to any other person by way of security for any debt or advance, and whereby any rent is reserved or made payable as a mode of providing for the payment of interest on such debt or advance or otherwise for the purpose of such security only, but does not include or extend to any mortgage of any estate or interest in any land, tenement or hereditament which the mortgagee being in possession demises to the mortgagor as his tenant at a fair and reasonable rent;


document_id: bsa-1886
term: factory or workshop
source_provision: s3
definition:
“factory or workshop” means any premises on which any manual labour is exercised by way of trade, or for purposes of gain in or incidental to the following purposes or any of them: ( a )


document_id: bsa-1886
term: personal chattels
source_provision: s3
definition:
“personal chattels” means goods, furniture and other articles capable of complete transfer by delivery, and trade machinery as hereinafter defined, and, when separately assigned or charged, fixtures and growing crops; but does not include chattel interests in real estate nor fixtures, except trade machinery as hereinafter defined, when assigned together with a freehold or leasehold interest in any land or building to which they are affixed, nor growing crops when assigned together with any interest in the land on which they grow, nor shares or interests in the stocks, funds or securities of any government or in the capital or property of incorporated or joint-stock companies nor choses in action;


document_id: bsa-1886
term: trade machinery
source_provision: s3
definition:
“trade machinery” means the machinery used in or attached to any factory or workshop, exclusive of — ( a )


document_id: bsaa-1926
term: Association
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Association” means the Boy Scouts Association incorporated under the Royal Charter granted on 4 January 1912;


document_id: bsaa-1926
term: boy scout
source_provision: s2
definition:
“boy scout” means a boy scout recognised as such under the constitution, by-laws or rules of the Association, and includes also all officers of the Association.


document_id: bsia-2015
term: authorised officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“authorised officer” , for any provision of this Act, means an employee of the LTA who is appointed as an authorised officer under section 43 for the purposes of that provision;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus depot
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus depot” means any premises with purpose-built facilities for the parking, maintenance or refuelling of buses by bus operators holding Class 1 bus service licences;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus depot licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus depot licence” means a bus depot licence granted (or deemed granted) under Part 4 to operate a bus depot specified in the licence;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus interchange
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus interchange” means a terminal or station with purpose‑built facilities for the commencement or termination of one or more bus services and for the boarding or alighting of bus passengers;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus interchange licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus interchange licence” means a bus interchange licence granted (or deemed granted) under Part 4 to operate a bus interchange specified in the licence;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus interchange site
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus interchange site” means the premises in Singapore on which a bus interchange is or is to be situated;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus operator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus operator” , in relation to a bus service, means the person who operates the bus service, but does not include — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus service” means a service consisting of the carriage of passengers, for a fare, by buses operated — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus service licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus service licence” means a bus service licence granted (or deemed granted) under Part 3 to operate a bus service, or the bus services, specified in the licence;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: bus stopping point
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bus stopping point” means a location designated for a bus to stop for the purposes of passengers boarding and disembarking the bus;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: business trust
source_provision: s2
definition:
“business trust” and “trustee-manager” have the meanings given by section 2 of the Business Trusts Act 2004; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: bsia-2015
term: chief executive officer
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“chief executive officer” , in relation to a designated entity or the trustee-manager of a designated entity, means an individual (by whatever name called) who — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: Class 1 bus service licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Class 1 bus service licence” means a bus service licence authorising the operation of 10 or more regular route services specified in the licence;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: Class 2 bus service licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Class 2 bus service licence” means a bus service licence authorising the operation of a single bus service specified in the licence;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: code of practice
source_provision: s2
definition:
“code of practice” means a code of practice issued or approved by the LTA under section 37, and includes any such code of practice as amended from time to time under that section;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: corporation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“corporation” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: bsia-2015
term: designated entity
source_provision: s2
definition:
“designated entity” means a designated equity interest holder or a designated operating entity; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: bsia-2015
term: designated equity interest holder
source_provision: s2
definition:
“designated equity interest holder” means an entity that has been designated as a designated equity interest holder under section 28E; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: bsia-2015
term: designated operating entity
source_provision: s2
definition:
“designated operating entity” means an entity that has been designated as a designated operating entity under section 28E; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: bsia-2015
term: effective designation date
source_provision: s2
definition:
“effective designation date” , in relation to a designated entity, means the date specified under section 28E(3) as the date on which the designation of that entity as a designated operating entity or designated equity interest holder (as the case may be) takes effect; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: bsia-2015
term: entity
source_provision: s2
definition:
“entity” means any sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation or other body of persons, whether corporate or unincorporate, and includes a business trust; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: bsia-2015
term: fare
source_provision: s2
definition:
“fare” means the price payable by an individual passenger for any bus service, and includes the provision of, or arrangement for, a discount, concession, allowance, rebate or credit applying in relation to the price payable for use of that service;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: licensed
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licensed” means licensed (or deemed licensed) under this Act for the time being, but does not include any period when a licence is suspended;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: licensee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licensee” means a licensed bus operator, a licensed bus depot operator or a licensed bus interchange operator;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: LTA
source_provision: s2
definition:
“LTA” means the Land Transport Authority of Singapore constituted under the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: modification
source_provision: s2
definition:
“modification” and “modify”, in relation to the conditions of a licence, include deleting or varying and substituting a condition, and adding a condition;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: partner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“partner” , in relation to a limited liability partnership, has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: penalty provision
source_provision: s2
definition:
“penalty provision” , for a public bus services contract, means a provision in the public bus services contract that provides for the payment of an amount of penalty — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: premises
source_provision: s2
definition:
“premises” means a building or structure (whether permanent or temporary) or part of the building or structure, and includes any immediately adjoining space or land necessary for access to, or for the enjoyment of occupants of, the building or structure;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: public bus operator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public bus operator” means a bus operator who is party to a public bus services contract for the provision of bus services specified in the contract;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: public bus services contract
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public bus services contract” means a contract entered into by the LTA under Part 2 for the provision of bus services specified in the contract;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: public bus system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public bus system” means all the components which make up the system for the movement of individuals on bus services including — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: Public Transport Council
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Public Transport Council” or “PTC” means the Public Transport Council established under the Public Transport Council Act 1987;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: regular route service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“regular route service” means a bus service that is conducted according to predetermined routes and timetables with 2 or more bus stopping points within Singapore, but does not include — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: regulatory action
source_provision: s2
definition:
“regulatory action” means any action in section 39(1) or (2) that may be taken by the LTA against a licensee;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: 5% controller
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“5% controller” , in relation to a designated entity, means a person who, alone or together with that person’s associates — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: 25% controller
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“25% controller” , in relation to a designated entity, means a person who, alone or together with that person’s associates — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: 50% controller
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“50% controller” , in relation to a designated entity, means a person who, alone or together with that person’s associates — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: 75% controller
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“75% controller” , in relation to a designated entity, means a person who, alone or together with that person’s associates — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: control
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“control” includes control as a result of, or by means of, any trust, agreement, arrangement, understanding or practice, whether or not having legal or equitable force and whether or not based on legal or equitable rights;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: increase
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“increase” , in relation to the holding of equity interests, includes an increase from a starting point of nil;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: indirect controller
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“indirect controller” , in relation to a designated entity, means any person, whether acting alone or together with any other person, and whether with or without holding equity interests or controlling the voting power in the designated entity — ( a )


document_id: bsia-2015
term: officer
source_provision: s28D
definition:
“officer” , in relation to a corporation, means a director or secretary of, or any person employed in an executive capacity by, the corporation.


document_id: bsia-2015
term: Official Receiver
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“Official Receiver” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: related corporation
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“related corporation” , in relation to a corporation, means another corporation that is deemed under section 28D(2) to be related to that corporation;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: share
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“share” , in relation to a corporation, means a share in the share capital of the corporation and includes stock into which all or any of the share capital of the corporation has been converted;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: unregistered company
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“unregistered company” has the meaning given by section 245(1) of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: voting share
source_provision: s28B
definition:
“voting share” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967 but does not include a treasury share.


document_id: bsia-2015
term: chosen means of access
source_provision: s45
definition:
“chosen means of access” , for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a document permitted or required by this Act, means an electronic means that the addressee agrees with the person giving or serving the document as the means by which the addressee may access that document’s contents;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: chosen means of notification
source_provision: s45
definition:
“chosen means of notification” , for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a document permitted or required by this Act, means an electronic means that the addressee nominates to the person giving or serving the document as the means by which the addressee may be notified that the document has been served on the addressee;


document_id: bsia-2015
term: residential address
source_provision: s45
definition:
“residential address” means an individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore. [38/2018]


document_id: bsma-1998
term: approved coordinates
source_provision: s2
definition:
“approved coordinates” means coordinates approved by the Chief Surveyor, or approved under section 7( c ), which are capable of describing and ascertaining the boundaries of any land in relation to survey control marks;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: assurance plan
source_provision: s2
definition:
“assurance plan” means any plan showing approximate boundaries or dimensions and areas for the purpose of identifying land which has not been surveyed to the Chief Surveyor’s satisfaction but is required to be surveyed under the provisions of any written law;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: authorised surveyor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“authorised surveyor” means a land surveyor who is employed by the Authority, whether or not registered under section 12 of the Land Surveyors Act 1991; [Act 25 of 2024 wef 01/10/2025]


document_id: bsma-1998
term: bench mark
source_provision: s2
definition:
“bench mark” means any survey control mark in Singapore that is used as vertical control to determine the vertical distance between the Singapore Height Datum and a survey point above or below;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: boundary mark
source_provision: s2
definition:
“boundary mark” includes any survey stone, iron pipe, spike, or other survey mark authorised by law for the purpose of marking boundaries;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: cadastral survey
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cadastral survey” means any survey relating to the recording of land boundaries, subdivision lines, buildings and related details;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: certified plan
source_provision: s2
definition:
“certified plan” means a survey plan which has been approved by, and filed in the office of, the Chief Surveyor under section 4(1)( e );


document_id: bsma-1998
term: Chief Surveyor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chief Surveyor” means the Chief Surveyor appointed under section 3(1), and includes an acting Chief Surveyor appointed under section 3(2);


document_id: bsma-1998
term: licence
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licence” means a licence to supply survey services in Singapore granted under section 17 of the Land Surveyors Act 1991;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: limited liability partnership
source_provision: s2
definition:
“limited liability partnership” has the meaning given to it by section 4(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: owner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“owner” , in relation to any parcel of land, means the person for the time being receiving the rent of the land, whether on the person’s own account or as agent or trustee or who would receive the rent if the land were let to a tenant;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: practising certificate
source_provision: s2
definition:
“practising certificate” means an annual practising certificate issued under section 15 of the Land Surveyors Act 1991 authorising the holder of the certificate to engage in survey work in Singapore;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: registered surveyor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registered surveyor” means a registered surveyor within the meaning given by the Land Surveyors Act 1991; [Act 25 of 2024 wef 01/10/2025]


document_id: bsma-1998
term: repealed Act
source_provision: s2
definition:
“repealed Act” means the Boundaries and Survey Maps Act (Cap. 25, 1985 Revised Edition) in force immediately before 16 October 1998;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: Singapore Height Datum
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Singapore Height Datum” means the fixed datum surface set at 0.000 metres of Singapore’s historical mean sea level;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: survey control mark
source_provision: s2
definition:
“survey control mark” means any survey mark placed under the supervision of the Chief Surveyor the horizontal position or vertical distance from the Singapore Height Datum which is determined, and includes a bench mark;


document_id: bsma-1998
term: survey officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“survey officer” means any person authorised by the Chief Surveyor to carry out a cadastral survey for any parcel of land;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: Chief Surveyor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chief Surveyor” means the Chief Surveyor appointed under section 3 of the Boundaries and Survey Maps Act 1998;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: Commissioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Buildings appointed under section 3(1), and includes any other officer appointed under section 3(3) to exercise the powers or perform the duties imposed on the Commissioner;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: competent authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“competent authority” means the competent authority appointed under section 5 of the Planning Act 1998 in respect of the development or subdivision of land;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: council
source_provision: s2
definition:
“council” , in relation to a management corporation, means the council of that management corporation;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: escalator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“escalator” means a power‑driven stairway with continuously moving steps and handrails, designed for carrying people between different floors of a building, and includes a passenger conveyor but excludes any escalator prescribed;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: executive committee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“executive committee” , in relation to a subsidiary management corporation, means the executive committee of that subsidiary management corporation;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: fixed EV charger
source_provision: s2
definition:
“fixed EV charger” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Electric Vehicles Charging Act 2022; [Act 43 of 2022 wef 08/12/2023]


document_id: bsma-2004
term: immediate family member
source_provision: s2
definition:
“immediate family member” , in relation to any person, means a spouse, child, adopted child, stepchild, sibling or parent of that person;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: initial period
source_provision: s2
definition:
“initial period” , in relation to a management corporation or subsidiary management corporation, means a period starting from the day on which the management corporation or subsidiary management corporation (as the case may be) is constituted (except pursuant to a comprehensive resolution under section 78(2)( b )) and ending — ( a )


document_id: bsma-2004
term: maintenance fund
source_provision: s2
definition:
“maintenance fund” , in relation to a development, means any maintenance fund established under section 16(2) or (3) by the owner developer of the development for the common property or limited common property (as the case may be) of that development;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: management corporation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“management corporation” , in relation to any parcel comprised in a strata title plan, means the management corporation constituted in respect of that strata title plan under the Land Titles (Strata) Act 1967;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: mediation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“mediation” means a structured negotiation process in which the mediator, as a neutral and independent party, assists the parties to a dispute to achieve their own resolution of the dispute;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: non‑lot acquisition
source_provision: s2
definition:
“non‑lot acquisition” means any acquisition under the Land Acquisition Act 1966 of any common property (and no other land) comprised in a strata title plan;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: non‑lot acquisition related expenses
source_provision: s2
definition:
“non‑lot acquisition related expenses” , in relation to any management corporation for a strata title plan, means — ( a )


document_id: bsma-2004
term: owner developer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“owner developer” means any person who, immediately before the constitution of a management corporation for any parcel comprised in a strata title plan, is registered as the proprietor of the parcel shown in the strata title plan, and includes any administrator, executor, mortgagee in possession, liquidator, successor in title or assign of such person;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: parcel
source_provision: s2
definition:
“parcel” means the whole of any land, building and common property comprised or to be comprised in a strata title plan;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: proposed lot
source_provision: s2
definition:
“proposed lot” means any stratum in a development on a parcel to be comprised in a strata title plan and which — ( a )


document_id: bsma-2004
term: purchaser
source_provision: s2
definition:
“purchaser” means a person, other than an owner developer, who enters into an agreement to purchase a lot or proposed lot but to whom the lot or proposed lot has not been conveyed or assigned;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: relevant authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“relevant authority” means any one or more Government or statutory authorities empowered under any written law to approve plans for development or subdivision of any land or plans relating to the construction of any building, and includes the competent authority;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: repealed Act
source_provision: s2
definition:
“repealed Act” means the Buildings and Common Property (Maintenance and Management) Act (Cap. 30, 2000 Revised Edition) repealed by this Act;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: schedule of strata units
source_provision: s2
definition:
“schedule of strata units” , in relation to any parcel, means the schedule of strata units showing the share values for each lot or proposed lot in that parcel, and includes any amended schedule of strata units;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: share value
source_provision: s2
definition:
“share value” , in respect of a lot or proposed lot, means the share value of that lot or proposed lot as shown in the schedule of strata units;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: strata roll
source_provision: s2
definition:
“strata roll” , in relation to any subdivided building shown on a strata title plan, means the roll mentioned in section 46 which relates to that plan;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: strata subdivision
source_provision: s2
definition:
“strata subdivision” includes a subdivision of land to comprise one or more lots, whether or not any lot is on the same level as any other lot;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: stratum
source_provision: s2
definition:
“stratum” means any part of land which consists of a space of any shape below, on or above the surface of the land, or partly below and partly above the surface of the land, the dimensions of which are delineated;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: structural element
source_provision: s2
definition:
“structural element” , for a building, means an internal or external load‑bearing component of the building that is essential to the stability of the building or part of the building, but does not include any door or window; Examples


document_id: bsma-2004
term: subdivided building
source_provision: s2
definition:
“subdivided building” means any one or more buildings comprised in a strata subdivision plan approved by the relevant authority;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: subsidiary management corporation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“subsidiary management corporation” , in relation to any limited common property comprised in a strata title plan, means the subsidiary management corporation constituted for that limited common property under the Land Titles (Strata) Act 1967;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: temporary occupation permit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“temporary occupation permit” means a temporary occupation permit granted by the Commissioner of Building Control under the Building Control Act 1989;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: window
source_provision: s2
definition:
“window” includes a roof skylight, glass panel, glass brick, louvre, glazed sash, glazed door, translucent sheeting and any other building material which transmits natural light directly from outside a building into a room of or an interior of the building;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: accredited
source_provision: s26
definition:
“accredited” , in relation to a fabrication facility or a fabrication method, means that the fabrication facility or the fabrication method is accredited by a body specified in the Code of Practice on Buildability issued by the Building and Construction Authority;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: prefabricated bathroom unit
source_provision: s26
definition:
“prefabricated bathroom unit” means a bathroom unit (complete with finishes for walls and floors) which is — ( a )


document_id: bsma-2004
term: agent
source_provision: s61
definition:
“agent” includes a banker, a solicitor or an auditor of a management corporation and any person who at any time has been a banker, a solicitor or an auditor of the management corporation;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: for the purposes of any candidate’s election
source_provision: s68
definition:
“for the purposes of any candidate’s election” means with a view to, or otherwise in connection with, promoting or procuring the candidate’s election at an election of members of the council of a management corporation or the executive committee of a subsidiary management corporation (as the case may be), and includes prejudicing the electoral prospects of another candidate at that election;


document_id: bsma-2004
term: damage policy
source_provision: s69
definition:
“damage policy” , in relation to a subdivided building, means a contract of insurance providing, in the event of the subdivided building being destroyed or damaged by fire, lightning, explosion or any other occurrence specified in the policy — ( a )


document_id: bta-2004
term: accounting entity
source_provision: s2
definition:
“accounting entity” means a public accountant, an accounting corporation, an accounting firm or an accounting limited liability partnership; [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: accounting limited liability partnership
source_provision: s2
definition:
“accounting limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Accountants Act 2004; [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: accounting records
source_provision: s2
definition:
“accounting records” , in relation to a registered business trust, includes such working papers and other documents as are necessary to explain the methods and calculations by which accounts of the registered business trust are made up;


document_id: bta-2004
term: accounts
source_provision: s2
definition:
“accounts” means profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and cash flow statements, and includes notes (other than auditors’ reports or directors’ reports) attached to or intended to be read with any of those profit and loss accounts, balance sheets or cash flow statements;


document_id: bta-2004
term: advocate and solicitor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“advocate and solicitor” means an advocate and solicitor of the Supreme Court or a foreign lawyer as defined in section 2(1) of the Legal Profession Act 1966;


document_id: bta-2004
term: audit committee
source_provision: s2
definition:
“audit committee” , in relation to a registered business trust, means the audit committee of the trustee‑manager of a registered business trust established in accordance with section 15;


document_id: bta-2004
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Monetary Authority of Singapore established under section 3 of the Monetary Authority of Singapore Act 1970;


document_id: bta-2004
term: business
source_provision: s2
definition:
“business” , in relation to a registered business trust, means the business relating to the trust property of the registered business trust and managed and operated by the trustee‑manager of the registered business trust in its capacity as trustee‑manager of the registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: chief executive officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“chief executive officer” , in relation to the trustee-manager of a registered business trust, means any one or more persons, by whatever name described, who — ( a )


document_id: bta-2004
term: creditor
source_provision: s2
definition:
“creditor” , in relation to a registered business trust, means a creditor of the trustee‑manager of the registered business trust where the liability owing to the creditor was incurred by the trustee‑manager on behalf of the registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: debenture
source_provision: s2
definition:
“debenture” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Securities and Futures Act 2001 and, in relation to a registered business trust, means a debenture issued by the trustee‑manager of the registered business trust in its capacity as trustee‑manager of the registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: deed
source_provision: s2
definition:
“deed” means any deed which creates a trust or provides for the governance of the affairs of the trust and the conduct of its business and includes any instrument amending or affecting the deed;


document_id: bta-2004
term: derivative
source_provision: s2
definition:
“derivative” , in relation to a unit in a business trust, means any right or interest, whether legal or equitable, in the unit in the business trust, by whatever name called, and includes any option to acquire any such right or interest in the unit in the business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: financial year
source_provision: s2
definition:
“financial year” , in relation to a registered business trust, means the period in respect of which any profit and loss account of the registered business trust laid before unitholders of the registered business trust in general meeting is made up, whether that period is a year or not;


document_id: bta-2004
term: liabilities
source_provision: s2
definition:
“liabilities” , in relation to a registered business trust, means the liabilities incurred by the trustee‑manager of the registered business trust on behalf of the registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: licensed insolvency practitioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licensed insolvency practitioner” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018;


document_id: bta-2004
term: limited liability partnership
source_provision: s2
definition:
“limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: liquidator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“liquidator” , in relation to a registered business trust, means the person appointed under section 48(1) to take responsibility for winding up the registered business trust or the Official Receiver when acting as liquidator of the registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: listed
source_provision: s2
definition:
“listed” , in relation to a registered business trust, means a registered business trust that has been admitted to the official list of an approved exchange in Singapore and has not been removed from that official list; [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: profit or loss
source_provision: s2
definition:
“profit or loss” , in relation to a registered business trust, means the profit or loss resulting from operations of that registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: public accountant
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public accountant” means a person who is registered or deemed to be registered under the Accountants Act 2004 as a public accountant;


document_id: bta-2004
term: registered business trust
source_provision: s2
definition:
“registered business trust” means a business trust that is registered by the Authority under section 4(1);


document_id: bta-2004
term: replacement trustee‑manager
source_provision: s2
definition:
“replacement trustee‑manager” means a company that has consented in writing to its election by the unitholders of a registered business trust to replace the resigning trustee‑manager or temporary trustee‑manager (as the case may be) of the registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: resigning trustee‑manager
source_provision: s2
definition:
“resigning trustee‑manager” means the trustee‑manager of a registered business trust that, in accordance with this Act, proposes to resign, is removed or has resigned from the position of trustee‑manager of the registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: substantial shareholder
source_provision: s2
definition:
“substantial shareholder” means a person who has a substantial shareholding in a company in accordance with section 81 of the Companies Act 1967;


document_id: bta-2004
term: temporary trustee‑manager
source_provision: s2
definition:
“temporary trustee‑manager” means a company that has been appointed as the temporary trustee‑manager of a registered business trust under section 21;


document_id: bta-2004
term: trust property
source_provision: s2
definition:
“trust property” , in relation to a business trust, means all property and rights of any kind whatsoever which are held on trust for the unitholders of the business trust, in accordance with the terms of the trust deed, including — ( a )


document_id: bta-2004
term: trustee‑manager
source_provision: s2
definition:
“trustee‑manager” , in relation to a registered business trust, includes a replacement trustee‑manager and temporary trustee‑manager;


document_id: bta-2004
term: unit
source_provision: s2
definition:
“unit” , in relation to a business trust, means a share in the beneficial ownership in the trust property of the business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: unitholder
source_provision: s2
definition:
“unitholder” means a person who holds units in a business trust; [2/2009; 10/2013; 4/2017; 40/2018] [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: unlisted registered business trust
source_provision: s2
definition:
“unlisted registered business trust” , for the purposes of sections 63A to 63G, means a registered business trust the units of which are not listed for quotation or quoted on an approved exchange in Singapore or any securities exchange outside Singapore; [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: VCC
source_provision: s2
definition:
“VCC” or variable capital company has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018. [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: agent
source_provision: s11
definition:
“agent” includes a banker, a solicitor or an auditor of the trustee‑manager and any person who at any time has been a banker, a solicitor or an auditor of the trustee‑manager;


document_id: bta-2004
term: dissenting unitholder
source_provision: s40A
definition:
“dissenting unitholder” includes a unitholder who has not assented to the arrangement or contract and any unitholder who has failed or refused to transfer the units of the unitholder to the transferee in accordance with the arrangement or contract;


document_id: bta-2004
term: real estate investment trust
source_provision: s40A
definition:
“real estate investment trust” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Securities and Futures Act 2001; [2/2009; 4/2017] [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: register of unitholders
source_provision: s40A
definition:
“register of unitholders” includes any records kept by the trustee-manager of the subject trust, or with respect to the subject trust, of the names and addresses of holders of derivatives of units in a registered business trust. [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: wholly owned subsidiary
source_provision: s60
definition:
“wholly owned subsidiary” has the meaning given by section 5B of the Companies Act 1967. [Act 30 of 2022 wef 12/03/2024]


document_id: bta-2004
term: control
source_provision: s86
definition:
“control” , in relation to a corporation, means the capacity to determine the outcome of decisions on the financial and operating policies of the corporation, having regard to the following considerations: ( a )


document_id: bta-2004
term: controlling unitholder
source_provision: s86
definition:
“controlling unitholder” , in relation to a registered business trust, means a person who has an interest or interests in units representing 30% or more of the total voting rights of all the unitholders of the registered business trust;


document_id: bta-2004
term: immediate family
source_provision: s86
definition:
“immediate family” , in relation to an individual, means the individual’s spouse, son, adopted son, stepson, daughter, adopted daughter, stepdaughter, father, stepfather, mother, stepmother, brother, stepbrother, sister or stepsister;


document_id: bta-2004
term: interested person transaction
source_provision: s86
definition:
“interested person transaction” means a transaction between the trustee‑manager of a registered business trust on behalf of the registered business trust and an interested person of the registered business trust.


document_id: bwaa-1966
term: Fund Agreement
source_provision: s3
definition:
“Fund Agreement” means the Articles of Agreement of the International Monetary Fund as originally adopted and as subsequently amended — ( a )


document_id: bwaa-1966
term: Monetary Authority of Singapore
source_provision: s3
definition:
“Monetary Authority of Singapore” means the Monetary Authority of Singapore established under section 3 of the Monetary Authority of Singapore Act 1970. [18/2016]


document_id: ca-1960
term: aircraft
source_provision: s3
definition:
“aircraft” includes any kind of craft which may be used for the conveyance of passengers or goods by air;


document_id: ca-1960
term: authentication code
source_provision: s3
definition:
“authentication code” means any identification or identifying code, password or any other authentication method or procedure which has been assigned to a registered user of the computer service mentioned in section 86 for the purposes of identifying and authenticating the access to and use of the computer service by the registered user;


document_id: ca-1960
term: auxiliary police officer
source_provision: s3
definition:
“auxiliary police officer” means an auxiliary police officer appointed under the Police Force Act 2004; [Act 6 of 2025 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: ca-1960
term: bottling
source_provision: s3
definition:
“bottling” , in the case of intoxicating liquors, includes blending, compounding and varying any intoxicating liquor with intent that the blend, compound or varied intoxicating liquor so formed be sold for human consumption, but does not include any such blend, compound or varied intoxicating liquor prepared at the order of a purchaser, and for immediate consumption;


document_id: ca-1960
term: bottling warehouse
source_provision: s3
definition:
“bottling warehouse” means a warehouse licensed by the Director‑General for the bottling, blending, compounding or varying of intoxicating liquor under section 66(1) or 83(4);


document_id: ca-1960
term: complete month
source_provision: s3
definition:
“complete month” means the period from the first day of a month to the last day of the month, both days inclusive;


document_id: ca-1960
term: customs territory
source_provision: s3
definition:
“customs territory” means Singapore and the territorial waters thereof but excluding any free trade zone;


document_id: ca-1960
term: database report
source_provision: s3
definition:
“database report” means any automatic log, journal or other report which is automatically generated by the computer service mentioned in section 86 for the purposes of recording the details of a transaction relating to an electronic notice including the authentication code, date and time of receipt, storage location and any alteration or deletion relating to the notice;


document_id: ca-1960
term: dutiable goods
source_provision: s3
definition:
“dutiable goods” means any goods subject to the payment of customs duty or excise duty on entry into customs territory or manufactured in Singapore (including any free trade zone) and on which customs duty or excise duty has not been paid and includes goods manufactured in a free trade zone from materials of a class dutiable on entry into customs territory for consumption within the customs territory;


document_id: ca-1960
term: export
source_provision: s3
definition:
“export” means to take or cause to be taken out of the customs territory by any means or to place goods in any form of conveyance for the purpose of taking the goods out of the customs territory by any means to any place including a free trade zone; except that goods bona fide in transit, including goods which have been transhipped, are not deemed to be exported unless they are or become uncustomed goods;


document_id: ca-1960
term: free trade zone
source_provision: s3
definition:
“free trade zone” means any area in Singapore which has been declared to be a free trade zone under the Free Trade Zones Act 1966;


document_id: ca-1960
term: Government warehouse
source_provision: s3
definition:
“Government warehouse” means a warehouse established by the Director‑General under section 49 for the deposit of dutiable goods;


document_id: ca-1960
term: Green Channel
source_provision: s3
definition:
“Green Channel” means any passage or area in a customs airport or customs station clearly indicated with a sign in the shape of a regular octagon and marked in green with the words “Customs” and “Nothing To Declare”;


document_id: ca-1960
term: heavy oil or diesel oil
source_provision: s3
definition:
“heavy oil or diesel oil” includes any liquid, other than petroleum, which is or may be used as a fuel in the engine of a traction engine or motor vehicle;


document_id: ca-1960
term: import
source_provision: s3
definition:
“import” means to bring or cause to be brought into the customs territory by any means from any place including a free trade zone; except that goods bona fide in transit, including goods which have been taken into any free trade zone from outside the customs territory or transhipped, are not, for the purpose of the levy of customs duties or excise duties, deemed to be imported unless they are or become uncustomed goods;


document_id: ca-1960
term: importer
source_provision: s3
definition:
“importer” includes and applies to any owner or other person for the time being possessed of or beneficially interested in any goods at and from the time of importation thereof until the goods are duly removed from customs control;


document_id: ca-1960
term: in transit
source_provision: s3
definition:
“in transit” means taken out or sent from any country and brought into Singapore by land, sea or air (whether or not landed or transhipped in Singapore) for the sole purpose of being carried to another country either by the same or another conveyance;


document_id: ca-1960
term: licensed FTZ operator
source_provision: s3
definition:
“licensed FTZ operator” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Free Trade Zones Act 1966; [Act 33 of 2023 wef 01/03/2024]


document_id: ca-1960
term: licensed warehouse
source_provision: s3
definition:
“licensed warehouse” means a warehouse or other place licensed or deemed to be licensed under section 51(1), 63(1), or 83(4) (if the licence granted under section 83(3) covers an activity for which a licence under section 51(1), 63(1) or 66(1) is required);


document_id: ca-1960
term: local craft
source_provision: s3
definition:
“local craft” means any junk, tongkang, prahu, or other similar type of vessel, and any steam or motor vessel under 75 net registered tons and includes any type of motor vessel whether fitted with inboard engine or outboard motor;


document_id: ca-1960
term: master
source_provision: s3
definition:
“master” means any person (except a pilot or harbour master) having for the time being control or charge of a vessel;


document_id: ca-1960
term: motor spirit
source_provision: s3
definition:
“motor spirit” includes gasoline, petrol or any inflammable hydrocarbon liquid fuel for spark ignited engines;


document_id: ca-1960
term: motor vehicle
source_provision: s3
definition:
“motor vehicle” means a mechanically-propelled vehicle primarily intended or adapted for use in the conveyance of goods or in the carriage of passengers (including any person driving the vehicle) on roads maintained at the public expense, and includes any vehicle constructed to tow any other vehicle along such roads, but does not include such vehicles as excavators, crawlers, bulldozers, tractors and any similar vehicles which are not primarily intended for use on such roads;


document_id: ca-1960
term: per cent alcohol by mass
source_provision: s3
definition:
“per cent alcohol by mass” means the measure of alcoholic strength of a mixture of alcohol and some other substances shown by the ratio, expressed as a percentage, of the mass of alcohol present in the mixture to the total mass of the mixture;


document_id: ca-1960
term: per cent alcohol by volume
source_provision: s3
definition:
“per cent alcohol by volume” means the measure of alcoholic strength of a mixture of alcohol and water shown by the ratio, expressed as a percentage, of the volume of alcohol present in the mixture at a temperature of 20 degrees Celsius to the total volume of the mixture;


document_id: ca-1960
term: petroleum
source_provision: s3
definition:
“petroleum” includes the liquids commonly known by the names of rock oil, Rangoon oil, Burma oil, kerosene and kerosene substitutes, paraffin oil, petrol, gasoline, benzol, benzoline, benzine, naphtha and any other similar inflammable liquid, whether a natural product or one that is made from petroleum, coal, schist, shale or any other bituminous substance, or from any products thereof;


document_id: ca-1960
term: preventive vessel
source_provision: s3
definition:
“preventive vessel” means any vessel employed for the prevention of smuggling or for any other purpose relating to this Act;


document_id: ca-1960
term: prohibited goods
source_provision: s3
definition:
“prohibited goods” means goods the import or export of which is prohibited, either conditionally or absolutely, by notification made under section 38;


document_id: ca-1960
term: proper officer of customs
source_provision: s3
definition:
“proper officer of customs” means any officer of customs acting in the fulfilment of his or her duties under this Act, whether such duties are assigned to him or her specially or generally or expressly or by implication;


document_id: ca-1960
term: Red Channel
source_provision: s3
definition:
“Red Channel” means any passage or area in a customs airport or customs station clearly indicated with a sign in the shape of a square marked in red with the words “Customs” and “Goods To Declare”;


document_id: ca-1960
term: registered user
source_provision: s3
definition:
“registered user” means a person who has been registered with and authorised by the Director‑General to gain access to and use the computer service mentioned in section 86;


document_id: ca-1960
term: Registrar
source_provision: s3
definition:
“Registrar” means the Registrar of Vehicles or a Deputy Registrar of Vehicles or an Assistant Registrar of Vehicles appointed under the Road Traffic Act 1961;


document_id: ca-1960
term: tourist
source_provision: s3
definition:
“tourist” means any person whose entry into Singapore is dependent upon the presentation of a passport or other travel document and whose stay in Singapore does not exceed 6 months, and includes persons in transit and such other class of persons as the Director‑General may, by notification in the Gazette , specify;


document_id: ca-1960
term: uncustomed goods
source_provision: s3
definition:
“uncustomed goods” means goods in respect of which a breach of the provisions of this Act has been committed. [3/2008; 25/2011; 29/2018; S 270/71] [Act 6 of 2025 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: ca-1960
term: Comptroller
source_provision: s83
definition:
“Comptroller” means the Comptroller of Goods and Services Tax and includes any person authorised by the Comptroller to grant a composite licence;


document_id: ca-1960
term: public agency
source_provision: s89
definition:
“public agency” means a public officer, an organ of state or a ministry or department of the Government, or a public authority established by or under any public Act for a public purpose or a member, an officer or an employee, or any department, thereof. [25/2011; 3/2014]


document_id: ca-1960
term: relevant tobacco products
source_provision: s128L
definition:
“relevant tobacco products” means any cigarette, cigar, cheroot or cigarillo or any other form of tobacco including — ( a )


document_id: ca-1960
term: specified offence
source_provision: s128L
definition:
“specified offence” means an offence under section 128D, 128E, 128F, 128G, 128H, 128I, 128J or 128K. [3/2008]


document_id: ca-1967
term: intelligent banknote neutralisation system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“intelligent banknote neutralisation system” or “IBNS” means a security system which is designed to deter unauthorised access to currency notes by mutilating, destroying or permanently damaging the currency notes, such as by the application of a staining or degradation agent to the currency notes or otherwise;


document_id: ca-1967
term: licensed security service provider
source_provision: s23
definition:
“licensed security service provider” means a holder of a security service provider’s licence under the Private Security Industry Act 2007 — ( a )


document_id: ca-1967
term: licensing officer
source_provision: s23
definition:
“licensing officer” means a licensing officer as defined in section 2 of the Private Security Industry Act 2007;


document_id: ca-1967
term: security service provider’s licence
source_provision: s23
definition:
“security service provider’s licence” means a security service provider’s licence granted under the Private Security Industry Act 2007. [6/2019]


document_id: ca-1973
term: competent authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“competent authority” means any public officer or any statutory body established by or under any written law or any officer of the statutory body, being under any obligation imposed by any written law to observe secrecy in respect of any particulars or information obtained by the public officer or the statutory body or officer of the statutory body in the administration of that written law;


document_id: ca-1973
term: dwelling house
source_provision: s2
definition:
“dwelling house” means a building, erection or tenement, whether permanent or temporary, which is wholly or partly used for the purpose of human habitation and includes any ship or vessel in Singapore;


document_id: ca-1973
term: schedule
source_provision: s2
definition:
“schedule” means a schedule in the prescribed form in which are, or are to be, entered the prescribed particulars required for the purposes of a census;


document_id: ca-1973
term: responsible officer
source_provision: s18
definition:
“responsible officer” , in relation to a public authority, means an officer designated by the Minister by notification in the Gazette as a responsible officer of the public authority for the purposes of this section.


document_id: ca-1994
term: charitable purposes
source_provision: s2
definition:
“charitable purposes” means purposes which are exclusively charitable according to the law of Singapore;


document_id: ca-1994
term: charity
source_provision: s2
definition:
“charity” means any institution, corporate or not, which is established for charitable purposes and is subject to the control of the General Division of the High Court in exercise of the jurisdiction of the General Division of the High Court with respect to charities;


document_id: ca-1994
term: company
source_provision: s2
definition:
“company” means a company incorporated or registered under any law in force in Singapore or elsewhere;


document_id: ca-1994
term: document
source_provision: s2
definition:
“document” includes information recorded in any form, and, in relation to information recorded otherwise than in legible form — ( a )


document_id: ca-1994
term: governing board members
source_provision: s2
definition:
“governing board members” means members of the governing body of a charity or trustees for a charity having the general control and management of the administration of the charity;


document_id: ca-1994
term: governing instruments
source_provision: s2
definition:
“governing instruments” , in relation to a charity, means the provisions establishing it as a charity and regulating its purposes and administration, whether or not those provisions take effect by way of trust or are set out in any document, and in relation to other institutions has a corresponding meaning;


document_id: ca-1994
term: charitable contributions
source_provision: s35
definition:
“charitable contributions” , in relation to any representation made by any commercial participator or other person, means — ( a )


document_id: ca-1994
term: charitable institution
source_provision: s35
definition:
“charitable institution” means a charity or an institution (other than a charity) which is established for charitable, benevolent or philanthropic purposes;


document_id: ca-1994
term: collector
source_provision: s35
definition:
“collector” , in relation to a fund-raising appeal, means any person by whom that appeal is made (whether made by the person alone or with others and whether made by the person for remuneration or otherwise);


document_id: ca-1994
term: commercial fund-raiser
source_provision: s35
definition:
“commercial fund-raiser” means any person who for reward solicits or otherwise procures money or other property for, or purportedly for, the benefit of a charity or any charitable, benevolent or philanthropic purpose;


document_id: ca-1994
term: commercial participator
source_provision: s35
definition:
“commercial participator” , in relation to any charitable institution, means any person who carries on for gain a business other than a fund‑raising business, but in the course of that business, engages in any promotional venture in the course of which it is represented that charitable contributions are to be given to or applied for the benefit of the institution;


document_id: ca-1994
term: fund-raising business
source_provision: s35
definition:
“fund-raising business” means any business carried on for gain and wholly or primarily engaged in soliciting or otherwise procuring money or other property for charitable, benevolent or philanthropic purposes;


document_id: ca-1994
term: proceeds
source_provision: s35
definition:
“proceeds” , in relation to a fund-raising appeal, means all money or other property given (whether for consideration or otherwise) in response to the fund‑raising appeal in question;


document_id: ca-1994
term: promotional venture
source_provision: s35
definition:
“promotional venture” means any advertising or sales campaign or any other venture undertaken for promotional purposes;


document_id: ca-1994
term: represent
source_provision: s35
definition:
“represent” and “solicit” mean, respectively, represent and solicit in any manner, whether expressly or impliedly and whether done — ( a )


document_id: ca-1994
term: institution of a public character
source_provision: s40
definition:
“institution of a public character” means a registered charity or an exempt charity in Singapore — ( a )


document_id: ca-1994
term: sector
source_provision: s40
definition:
“sector” , in relation to a Sector Administrator, means the class or classes of charities or institutions of a public character that the Minister has by notice in the Gazette designated as under the supervision of that Sector Administrator;


document_id: ca-1994
term: Sector Administrator
source_provision: s40
definition:
“Sector Administrator” means any person or organisation appointed to be a Sector Administrator under section 41. [40A [2/2018]


document_id: ca-1994
term: electronic transactions service
source_provision: s48
definition:
“electronic transactions service” means any electronic transactions service provided for in regulations made under section 57;


document_id: ca-1994
term: residential address
source_provision: s48
definition:
“residential address” means an individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore. [43 [2/2018]


document_id: ca-2004
term: anticipated merger
source_provision: s2
definition:
“anticipated merger” means an arrangement that is in progress or contemplation and that, if carried into effect, will result in the occurrence of a merger referred to in section 54(2);


document_id: ca-2004
term: Chairperson
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chairperson” means the Chairperson of the Commission and includes any temporary Chairperson of the Commission;


document_id: ca-2004
term: Chief Executive
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chief Executive” means the Chief Executive of the Commission, and includes any individual acting in that capacity;


document_id: ca-2004
term: consumer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“consumer” and “consumer transaction” have the meanings given by section 2(1) of the Consumer Protection (Fair Trading) Act 2003; [Act 13 of 2025 wef 01/07/2025]


document_id: ca-2004
term: consumer goods
source_provision: s2
definition:
“consumer goods” means any goods to which Part 3 of the Consumer Protection (Trade Descriptions and Safety Requirements) Act 1975 applies, whether or not supplied in the course of a consumer transaction; [Act 13 of 2025 wef 01/07/2025]


document_id: ca-2004
term: Deputy Chairperson
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Deputy Chairperson” means the Deputy Chairperson of the Commission and includes any temporary Deputy Chairperson of the Commission;


document_id: ca-2004
term: inspector
source_provision: s2
definition:
“inspector” means an inspector appointed by the Commission to conduct any investigation under section 62;


document_id: ca-2004
term: party involved in a merger
source_provision: s2
definition:
“party involved in a merger” means a person or an undertaking specified in section 54(2) and includes the merged entity;


document_id: ca-2004
term: party to an anticipated merger
source_provision: s2
definition:
“party to an anticipated merger” means a person or an undertaking which would be a person or an undertaking specified in section 54(2) if the anticipated merger were carried into effect;


document_id: ca-2004
term: public interest consideration
source_provision: s2
definition:
“public interest consideration” means national or public security, defence and any other considerations that the Minister may, by order in the Gazette , prescribe;


document_id: ca-2004
term: undertaking
source_provision: s2
definition:
“undertaking” means any person, being an individual, a body corporate, an unincorporated body of persons or any other entity, capable of carrying on commercial or economic activities relating to goods or services. [23/2007; 5/2018; 10/2018]


document_id: ca-2004
term: notice period
source_provision: s38
definition:
“notice period” means such period as may be specified with a view to giving the Commission sufficient time to consider whether to oppose under subsection (2);


document_id: ca-2004
term: occupier
source_provision: s65
definition:
“occupier” , in relation to any premises, means a person whom the named officer reasonably believes is the occupier of those premises.


document_id: ca-2004
term: issue of competition between undertakings
source_provision: s87
definition:
“issue of competition between undertakings” includes an issue of competition between undertakings that arises generally in the sector of activity in relation to which the Commission or the regulatory authority may exercise powers and such an issue that falls, or could fall, to be the subject of the exercise by the Commission or the regulatory authority of powers in particular circumstances;


document_id: ca-2004
term: party
source_provision: s87
definition:
“party” means a party to a cooperation agreement and a reference to another party (whether that expression or the expression “other party” is used) is, where there are 2 or more other parties to the agreement, a reference to one or more of those other parties or each of them, as appropriate.


document_id: ca-2004
term: transfer date
source_provision: s101
definition:
“transfer date” means the date of commencement of section 7 of the Competition (Amendment) Act 2025;


document_id: ca-2004
term: transferor
source_provision: s95
definition:
“transferor” means the Standards, Productivity and Innovation Board established by the Standards, Productivity and Innovation Board Act (Cap. 303A, 2002 Revised Edition). [10/2018]


document_id: ca-2010
term: body
source_provision: s2
definition:
“body” means a dead person, and includes any part of a person (whether or not the identity of the person concerned is known when the part is discovered or is later determined) — ( a )


document_id: ca-2010
term: cause of death
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cause of death” includes not only the apparent cause of death as ascertainable by inspection or examination of the body, but also all matters necessary to enable an opinion to be formed as to the manner in which the deceased came by his or her death;


document_id: ca-2010
term: Health Sciences Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Health Sciences Authority” means the Health Sciences Authority established under section 3 of the Health Sciences Authority Act 2001;


document_id: ca-2010
term: healthcare practitioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“healthcare practitioner” means a person providing any of the services specified in the First Schedule, but does not include a medical practitioner;


document_id: ca-2010
term: hospital
source_provision: s2
definition:
“hospital” means any premises used or intended to be used for the reception, lodging, treatment and care of persons who require medical treatment or care or who suffer from any disease, injury or disability of mind or body, and includes a maternity home and a nursing home;


document_id: ca-2010
term: investigation
source_provision: s2
definition:
“investigation” means an investigation into a death conducted by a police officer, a Coroner or a forensic pathologist, and includes any post-mortem examination;


document_id: ca-2010
term: medical clinic
source_provision: s2
definition:
“medical clinic” means any premises used or intended to be used by a medical practitioner, a healthcare practitioner or any other person — ( a )


document_id: ca-2010
term: medical practitioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“medical practitioner” means a registered medical practitioner under the Medical Registration Act 1997 who has in force a practising certificate issued under that Act;


document_id: ca-2010
term: medical treatment or care
source_provision: s2
definition:
“medical treatment or care” includes any operation or any surgical, diagnostic or therapeutic procedure;


document_id: ca-2010
term: pathologist
source_provision: s2
definition:
“pathologist” means a medical practitioner who is registered as a specialist in pathology under the Medical Registration Act 1997;


document_id: ca-2010
term: place of custody
source_provision: s2
definition:
“place of custody” means any place in which any person may lawfully be held, confined, detained or committed;


document_id: ca-2010
term: Registrar-General
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Registrar-General” means the Registrar-General of Births and Deaths appointed under the Registration of Births and Deaths Act 2021; [Act 2 of 2024 wef 16/04/2024]


document_id: ca-2010
term: Singapore-registered aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Singapore-registered aircraft” means an aircraft registered in Singapore under the Air Navigation Act 1966;


document_id: ca-2010
term: Singapore-registered vessel
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Singapore-registered vessel” means a vessel registered in Singapore under the Merchant Shipping Act 1995;


document_id: ca-2010
term: diplomatic agent
source_provision: s17A
definition:
“diplomatic agent” means a person who is accredited in any State or territory as the head of a mission or a member of the diplomatic staff of a mission;


document_id: ca-2010
term: Minister’s certificate
source_provision: s17A
definition:
“Minister’s certificate” means a certificate issued under subsection (1). [Act 31 of 2021 wef 02/05/2023]


document_id: ca-2018
term: Assistant Commissioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Assistant Commissioner” means any Assistant Commissioner of Cybersecurity appointed under section 4(1)( b );


document_id: ca-2018
term: code of practice
source_provision: s2
definition:
“code of practice” means any code of practice issued or approved under section 35A(1), and includes such a code of practice as may be amended from time to time; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: computer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“computer” means an electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or other data processing device performing logical, arithmetic, or storage functions, and includes any data storage facility or communications facility directly related to or operating in conjunction with such device, but does not include such device as the Minister may, by notification in the Gazette , prescribe;


document_id: ca-2018
term: computer program
source_provision: s2
definition:
“computer program” means data representing instructions or statements that, when executed in a computer, causes the computer to perform a function;


document_id: ca-2018
term: computer system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“computer system” means an arrangement of interconnected computers that is designed to perform one or more specific functions, and includes — ( a )


document_id: ca-2018
term: cybersecurity
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cybersecurity” means the state in which a computer or computer system is protected from unauthorised access or attack, and because of that state — ( a )


document_id: ca-2018
term: cybersecurity incident
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cybersecurity incident” means an act or activity carried out without lawful authority on or through a computer or computer system that jeopardises or adversely affects its cybersecurity or the cybersecurity of another computer or computer system;


document_id: ca-2018
term: cybersecurity program
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cybersecurity program” means any computer program designed for, or purported to be designed for, ensuring or enhancing the cybersecurity of a computer or computer system;


document_id: ca-2018
term: cybersecurity service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cybersecurity service” means a service provided by a person for reward that is intended primarily for or aimed at ensuring or safeguarding the cybersecurity of a computer or computer system belonging to another person ( A ), and includes the following: ( a )


document_id: ca-2018
term: cybersecurity solution
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cybersecurity solution” means any computer, computer system, computer program or computer service designed for, or purported to be designed for, ensuring or enhancing the cybersecurity of another computer or computer system;


document_id: ca-2018
term: cybersecurity threat
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cybersecurity threat” means an act or activity (whether known or suspected) carried out on or through a computer or computer system, that may imminently jeopardise or affect adversely, without lawful authority, the cybersecurity of that or another computer or computer system;


document_id: ca-2018
term: cybersecurity vulnerability
source_provision: s2
definition:
“cybersecurity vulnerability” means any vulnerability in a computer or computer system that can be exploited by one or more cybersecurity threats;


document_id: ca-2018
term: Deputy Commissioner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Deputy Commissioner” means the Deputy Commissioner of Cybersecurity appointed under section 4(1)( b );


document_id: ca-2018
term: designated provider responsible for third‑party‑owned critical information infrastructure
source_provision: s2
definition:
“designated provider responsible for third‑party‑owned critical information infrastructure” means a provider of an essential service in respect of whom a designation under section 16A(1), as a provider of an essential service who is responsible for the cybersecurity of a third‑party‑owned critical information infrastructure, is in effect; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: digital service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“digital service” means any service normally provided for remuneration, that is delivered by one party to another party at the individual request of the other party, entirely through electronic means, and without needing the parties’ simultaneous physical presence, but does not include such services as the Minister may, by notification in the Gazette , prescribe; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: entity of special cybersecurity interest
source_provision: s2
definition:
“entity of special cybersecurity interest” means an entity in respect of whom a designation under section 18(1) is in effect; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: essential service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“essential service” means any service essential to the national security, defence, foreign relations, economy, public health, public safety or public order of Singapore, and specified in the First Schedule;


document_id: ca-2018
term: foundational digital infrastructure service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“foundational digital infrastructure service” means any service which promotes the availability, latency, throughput or security of digital services, and is specified in the Third Schedule; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: full-time national serviceman
source_provision: s2
definition:
“full-time national serviceman” means a person who is liable to render full‑time national service under section 12 of the Enlistment Act 1970;


document_id: ca-2018
term: licensable cybersecurity service
source_provision: s2
definition:
“licensable cybersecurity service” means any cybersecurity service specified as a licensable cybersecurity service in the Second Schedule;


document_id: ca-2018
term: major foundational digital infrastructure
source_provision: s2
definition:
“major foundational digital infrastructure” means the computer or computer system (or class of computers or computer systems) that is necessary for a major foundational digital infrastructure service provider’s continuous delivery of the foundational digital infrastructure service in relation to which a designation of the major foundational digital infrastructure service provider under section 18G(1) is in effect; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: major foundational digital infrastructure service provider
source_provision: s2
definition:
“major foundational digital infrastructure service provider” means a provider of a foundational digital infrastructure service in respect of whom a designation under section 18G(1) is in effect; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: owner
source_provision: s2
definition:
“owner” , in relation to a provider‑owned critical information infrastructure, third‑party‑owned critical information infrastructure or system of temporary cybersecurity concern — ( a )


document_id: ca-2018
term: provider‑owned critical information infrastructure
source_provision: s2
definition:
“provider‑owned critical information infrastructure” means a computer or a computer system in respect of which a designation under section 7(1) or (1A) is in effect; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: standard of performance
source_provision: s2
definition:
“standard of performance” means any standard of performance issued or approved under section 35A(1), and includes such a standard of performance as may be amended from time to time; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: system of special cybersecurity interest
source_provision: s2
definition:
“system of special cybersecurity interest” means the computer or computer system (or class of computers or computer systems) in relation to which a designation of an entity of special cybersecurity interest under section 18(1) is in effect; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: system of temporary cybersecurity concern
source_provision: s2
definition:
“system of temporary cybersecurity concern” means a computer or computer system in respect of which a designation under section 17(1) is in effect; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: third‑party‑owned critical information infrastructure
source_provision: s2
definition:
“third‑party‑owned critical information infrastructure” means the computer or computer system in relation to which a designation of a designated provider responsible for third‑party‑owned critical information infrastructure under section 16A(1) is in effect; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: virtual computer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“virtual computer” means a purely digital analogue of a computer, created by the simulation of software and hardware, performing logical, arithmetic or storage functions and including communications functions, but does not include the physical computing resources used for the simulation; [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: virtual computer system
source_provision: s2
definition:
“virtual computer system” means a purely digital analogue of a computer system, created by the simulation of an arrangement of interconnected computers that is designed to perform one or more specific functions, but does not include the physical computing resources used for the simulation. [Act 19 of 2024 wef 31/10/2025]


document_id: ca-2018
term: occupier
source_provision: s39
definition:
“occupier” , in relation to any premises specified in a warrant under subsection (1), means a person whom the investigation officer named in the warrant reasonably believes to be the occupier of those premises;


document_id: ca-2021
term: 1911 Act
source_provision: s7
definition:
“1911 Act” means the Copyright Act 1911 of the United Kingdom (U.K. 1911, c. 46) insofar as that Act has effect as part of the law of Singapore;


document_id: ca-2021
term: body administering an institution aiding persons with intellectual disabilities
source_provision: s7
definition:
“body administering an institution aiding persons with intellectual disabilities” has the meaning given by section 90;


document_id: ca-2021
term: body administering an institution aiding persons with print disabilities
source_provision: s7
definition:
“body administering an institution aiding persons with print disabilities” has the meaning given by section 87;


document_id: ca-2021
term: broadcasting licence
source_provision: s7
definition:
“broadcasting licence” and “broadcasting licensee” have the meanings given by section 2(1) of the Broadcasting Act 1994;


document_id: ca-2021
term: commercial rental arrangement
source_provision: s7
definition:
“commercial rental arrangement” , in relation to a computer program or a sound recording, has the meaning given by section 75;


document_id: ca-2021
term: Director of National Archives
source_provision: s7
definition:
“Director of National Archives” means the Director of National Archives appointed under section 15(1) of the National Library Board Act 1995;


document_id: ca-2021
term: electronic
source_provision: s7
definition:
“electronic” means actuated by electric, magnetic, electro‑magnetic, electro‑chemical or electro‑mechanical energy;


document_id: ca-2021
term: electronic copy
source_provision: s7
definition:
“electronic copy” , in relation to a work or a recording of a protected performance, means a copy of the work or recording in an electronic form;


document_id: ca-2021
term: engraving
source_provision: s20
definition:
“engraving” includes an etching, a lithograph, a product of photogravure, a woodcut, a print or any other similar work, but not a photograph;


document_id: ca-2021
term: IPOS
source_provision: s7
definition:
“IPOS” means the Intellectual Property Office of Singapore established by the Intellectual Property Office of Singapore Act 2001;


document_id: ca-2021
term: National Heritage Board
source_provision: s7
definition:
“National Heritage Board” means the National Heritage Board established by the National Heritage Board Act 1993;


document_id: ca-2021
term: National Library Board
source_provision: s7
definition:
“National Library Board” means the National Library Board established by the National Library Board Act 1995;


document_id: ca-2021
term: organisation
source_provision: s7
definition:
“organisation” means an organisation or association of persons (whether corporate or unincorporate);


document_id: ca-2021
term: paying audience
source_provision: s7
definition:
“paying audience” , in relation to a television broadcast or cable programme, has the meaning given by section 76(1);


document_id: ca-2021
term: perform
source_provision: s7
definition:
“perform” and “performance”, in relation to an authorial work, have the meanings given by section 67;


document_id: ca-2021
term: periodical publication
source_provision: s7
definition:
“periodical publication” means an issue of a periodical publication and “same periodical publication” has a corresponding meaning;


document_id: ca-2021
term: protection period
source_provision: s7
definition:
“protection period” , in relation to a performance, means the period for which the performance is protected under section 174;


document_id: ca-2021
term: receiving apparatus
source_provision: s7
definition:
“receiving apparatus” means any device or equipment that, if operated alone or together with any other device or equipment, enables people to see or hear a work that is communicated;


document_id: ca-2021
term: rights owner
source_provision: s329
definition:
“rights owner” , in relation to goods that are or incorporate (or are suspected to be or incorporate) a copyright work, includes any exclusive licensee of the copyright;


document_id: ca-2021
term: wireless telegraphy
source_provision: s7
definition:
“wireless telegraphy” means the emitting or receiving, otherwise than over a path that is provided by a material substance, of electro‑magnetic energy;


document_id: ca-2021
term: device
source_provision: s270
definition:
“device” means a device for projecting a non‑physical product (as defined by section 2(3) of the Registered Designs Act 2000);


document_id: ca-2021
term: infringement
source_provision: s156
definition:
“infringement” means an infringement of copyright for which the copyright owner and the exclusive licensee of the copyright have concurrent rights of action;


document_id: ca-2021
term: indirect
source_provision: s172
definition:
“indirect” , in relation to recording a performance, means recording from a communication of the performance.


document_id: ca-2021
term: administrator
source_provision: s199
definition:
“administrator” , in relation to an educational institution, means the person who is responsible for the day‑to‑day administration of the institution;


document_id: ca-2021
term: owner
source_provision: s259
definition:
“owner” , in relation to the copyright in a literary, dramatic or musical work, means, unless the contrary intention appears, the person who is entitled to authorise the making in, and the importation into, Singapore of records of the works;


document_id: ca-2021
term: corresponding design
source_provision: s270
definition:
“corresponding design” , in relation to an artistic work, has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Registered Designs Act 2000;


document_id: ca-2021
term: exclusive rights
source_provision: s270
definition:
“exclusive rights” , in relation to a design that is or could have been registered under the Registered Designs Act 2000, means all the exclusive rights that the registration of a design under that Act gives or would give to the registered owner of the design;


document_id: ca-2021
term: product
source_provision: s270
definition:
“product” means a non‑physical product as defined by section 2(1) of the Registered Designs Act 2000;


document_id: ca-2021
term: similar design
source_provision: s270
definition:
“similar design” , in relation to a corresponding design, means a design that consists of the corresponding design with modifications or variations not sufficient to alter the character or substantially to affect the identity of the corresponding design;


document_id: ca-2021
term: network service provider
source_provision: s313
definition:
“network service provider” or “NSP” means a person who provides, or operates facilities for, online services or network access; and — ( a )


document_id: ca-2021
term: primary network
source_provision: s313
definition:
“primary network” , in relation to a network service provider, refers to a network controlled or operated by or for the network service provider;


document_id: ca-2021
term: restoration notice
source_provision: s313
definition:
“restoration notice” means a restoration notice that complies with the requirements prescribed under section 323;


document_id: ca-2021
term: take‑down notice
source_provision: s313
definition:
“take‑down notice” means a take‑down notice that complies with the requirements prescribed under section 323.


document_id: ca-2021
term: Director‑General
source_provision: s329
definition:
“Director‑General” means the Director‑General of Customs appointed under section 4(1) of the Customs Act 1960;


document_id: ca-2021
term: goods in transit
source_provision: s329
definition:
“goods in transit” means imported goods (whether or not landed or transhipped within Singapore) that are to be carried to another country either by the same or another conveyance;


document_id: ca-2021
term: claim period
source_provision: s341
definition:
“claim period” means the time within which an infringement action must be brought under section 342;


document_id: ca-2021
term: aircraft
source_provision: s359
definition:
“aircraft” , “conveyance”, “master”, “pilot of an aircraft”, “vehicle” and “vessel” have the meanings given by section 2 of the Regulation of Imports and Exports Act 1995;


document_id: ca-2021
term: circumvent
source_provision: s422
definition:
“circumvent” means to avoid, bypass, remove, deactivate, descramble (where the copy is scrambled), decrypt (where the copy is encrypted) or otherwise impair;


document_id: ca-2021
term: member
source_provision: s477
definition:
“member” , in relation to a Tribunal, means the members of the Tribunal as constituted under section 486, or reconstituted under section 487, and includes the presiding member;


document_id: ca-2021
term: tariff scheme
source_provision: s459
definition:
“tariff scheme” means a scheme described in subsection (1)( d ) that is available to the public (or a segment of the public) in Singapore.


document_id: ca-2021
term: members
source_provision: s459
definition:
“members” , in relation to a CMO, means the authors, makers, publishers, performers and rights owners mentioned in subsection (1)( c )(ii), but not the CMO itself;


document_id: ca-2021
term: presiding member
source_provision: s477
definition:
“presiding member” , in relation to a Tribunal, means the presiding member of the Tribunal as constituted under section 486 or reconstituted under section 487;


document_id: ca-2021
term: body corporate
source_provision: s500
definition:
“body corporate” includes a limited liability partnership as defined by section 4(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005;


document_id: caa-1988
term: court
source_provision: s2
definition:
“court” , in an arbitration allowed by the Warsaw Convention, the Warsaw (Hague) Convention or the Warsaw (Hague) (Montreal) Convention, includes an arbitrator;


document_id: caa-1988
term: Hague Protocol
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Hague Protocol” means the Protocol to amend the Warsaw Convention opened for signature at the Hague on 28 September 1955;


document_id: caa-1988
term: Montreal Protocol No. 4
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Montreal Protocol No. 4” means Protocol No. 4 to amend the Warsaw (Hague) Convention opened for signature at Montreal on 25 September 1975;


document_id: caa-1988
term: Warsaw Convention
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Warsaw Convention” means the original Convention for the unification of certain rules relating to international carriage by air opened for signature at Warsaw on 12 October 1929, the text of which is set out in the Second Schedule;


document_id: caa-1988
term: Warsaw (Hague) Convention
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Warsaw (Hague) Convention” means the Warsaw Convention as amended by the Hague Protocol, the text of which is set out in the First Schedule;


document_id: caa-1988
term: Warsaw (Hague) (Montreal) Convention
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Warsaw (Hague) (Montreal) Convention” means the Warsaw (Hague) Convention as amended by the Montreal Protocol No. 4, the text of which is set out in the Third Schedule.


document_id: caasa-2009
term: air navigation services
source_provision: s2
definition:
“air navigation services” means services provided to air traffic during all phases of operations to ensure their safe and efficient movement, and includes — ( a )


document_id: caasa-2009
term: aircraft
source_provision: s2
definition:
“aircraft” means a machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than reactions of the air against the earth’s surface;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: airline
source_provision: s2
definition:
“airline” means a person who carries on a commercial air transport enterprise that involves offering or operating air services;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: authorised officer
source_provision: s2
definition:
“authorised officer” , in relation to any provision of this Act, means any person authorised in that behalf by the Authority under section 76 for the purposes of that provision;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: Authority
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Authority” means the Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore established under the Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore Act (Cap. 41, 1985 Revised Edition) as in force immediately before 1 July 2009 and reconstituted by this Act;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: Chairperson
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chairperson” means the Chairperson of the Authority and includes any temporary Chairperson of the Authority;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: Chief Executive
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Chief Executive” means the Chief Executive of the Authority and includes any person acting in that capacity;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: code of practice
source_provision: s2
definition:
“code of practice” or “standard of performance” means a code of practice or standard of performance issued or approved under section 44, and includes any such code of practice or standard of performance as amended from time to time under that section;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: Contracting State
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Contracting State” means any country (including Singapore) which is a party to the Convention on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on 7 December 1944;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: Deputy Chairperson
source_provision: s2
definition:
“Deputy Chairperson” means the Deputy Chairperson of the Authority and includes any temporary Deputy Chairperson of the Authority;


document_id: caasa-2009
term: exempt airport operator
source_provision: s2
definition:
“exempt airport operator” , in relation to an airport, means the person who is authorised to operate the airport by an exemption granted by the Authority under section 43;


