# legal_provisions

document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s134
chapter: PART 3C - NOMINATION OF BENEFICIARIES
section: 134
title: Register of nominees
content:
134. —(1) Every licensed insurer must maintain, in such manner as may be prescribed by the Authority and in accordance with such directions as may be issued by the Authority, a register of every person — ( a ) who has been nominated under section 132(2) or 133(2) by the policy owner of a relevant policy issued by the licensed insurer; and ( b ) in respect of whom the licensed insurer has received written notice of the nomination in such manner as may be prescribed by the Authority for the purposes of this subsection. [3/2009; 11/2013] (2) Where — ( a ) any person nominated under section 132(2) has been registered by a licensed insurer under subsection (1); ( b ) the nomination of that person has been revoked under section 132(7); and ( c ) the licensed insurer has received written notice of the revocation of the nomination in such manner as may be prescribed by the Authority for the purposes of this subsection, the licensed insurer must record the revocation of the nomination under section 132(7) in its register maintained under subsection (1). [3/2009; 11/2013] (3) Where — ( a ) any person nominated under section 133(2) has been registered by a licensed insurer under subsection (1); ( b ) the nomination of that person has been or is deemed to be revoked; and ( c ) the licensed insurer has received written notice of the revocation of the nomination in such manner as may be prescribed by the Authority for the purposes of this subsection, the licensed insurer must record the revocation of the nomination in its register maintained under subsection (1). [49N [3/2009; 11/2013]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s135
chapter: PART 3C - NOMINATION OF BENEFICIARIES
section: 135
title: Relevant policies issued by co-operative society
content:
135. —(1) Where the licensed insurer of any relevant policy is a co‑operative society, and the policy owner of that relevant policy — ( a ) has not, before 1 September 2009, made any nomination under section 45(1) of the Co‑operative Societies Act 1979 in relation to that relevant policy; or ( b ) has, before that date, revoked every nomination made under section 45(1) of the Co‑operative Societies Act 1979 in relation to that relevant policy, nothing in the Co‑operative Societies Act 1979, on or after that date, applies to that relevant policy or to any share or interest in any policy moneys under that relevant policy. [3/2009; 11/2013] (2) Where the licensed insurer of any relevant policy is a co‑operative society, and on or after 1 September 2009 the policy owner of that relevant policy — ( a ) revokes the last subsisting nomination made by the policy owner under section 45(1) of the Co‑operative Societies Act 1979 in relation to that relevant policy; or ( b ) makes any nomination under section 132(2) or 133(2) in relation to that relevant policy, whether or not there is any subsisting nomination made by the policy owner under section 45(1) of the Co-operative Societies Act 1979 in relation to that relevant policy, nothing in the Co-operative Societies Act 1979 applies, on or after the date the policy owner revokes the last subsisting nomination under section 45(1) of the Co-operative Societies Act 1979 or makes the nomination under section 132(2) or 133(2) (as the case may be) to the relevant policy or to any share or interest in any policy moneys under that relevant policy. [49O [3/2009; 11/2013]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s136
chapter: PART 3C - NOMINATION OF BENEFICIARIES
section: 136
title: Regulations for purposes of this Part
content:
136. —(1) The Authority may make regulations for the purposes of this Part. [3/2009] (2) Without limiting subsection (1), such regulations may — ( a ) prescribe anything which may be prescribed by the Authority under this Part; and ( b ) make provision for the exercise of the court’s powers under section 20 of the Mental Capacity Act 2008 in relation to — (i) the making, on a person’s behalf, of any nomination under section 132(2) or 133(2); and (ii) where any nomination under section 132(2) or 133(2) has been made by a person or by the court on behalf of a person, the revoking, on the person’s behalf, of that nomination under section 132(7) or 133(4), as the case may be. [49P [3/2009]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s137
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 137
title: Appointment of assistants
content:
137. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), the Authority may appoint any person to exercise any of its powers or perform any of its functions or duties under this Act, either generally or in any particular case, except the power to make subsidiary legislation. [23/2003] (2) The Authority may appoint one or more of its officers to exercise the power to grant an exemption to any person (not being an exemption granted to a class of persons) under a provision of this Act specified in the Second Schedule, or to revoke any such exemption. [23/2003] [Act 5 of 2025 wef 09/03/2025] (2A) An appointment under subsection (2) must be published in the Gazette . [Act 5 of 2025 wef 09/03/2025] (3) Any person appointed by the Authority under subsection (1) is deemed to be a public servant for the purposes of the Penal Code 1871. [50


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s138
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 138
title: Exemption
content:
138. —(1) The Authority may, by regulations, exempt any person or class of persons from all or any of the provisions of this Act, subject to such terms or conditions as may be prescribed. [11/2013] (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Authority may make regulations to exempt any person or class of persons from section 4 or 75 and, in making these regulations, the Authority may make such provisions as it thinks fit to regulate the person or class of persons, whether by modification of provisions of this Act or by imposing such other requirements or restrictions as may be prescribed. [23/2003] (3) The Authority may, on the application of any person, exempt the person from all or any of the provisions of this Act or any direction by written notice if the Authority considers it appropriate to do so in the circumstances of the case. [23/2003] (4) An exemption under subsection (3) — ( a ) may be granted subject to such terms or conditions as the Authority may specify by written notice; and ( b ) need not be published in the Gazette . (5) The Authority may at any time — ( a ) revoke any exemption granted under this section; or ( b ) add to, vary or revoke any term or condition prescribed under subsection (1), or imposed under subsection (4) by written notice, or prescribe or impose a term or condition where none had been prescribed or imposed earlier. [52 [11/2013]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s139
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 139
title: Statistics
content:
139. —(1) Without limiting section 154(1), regulations may provide — ( a ) for the collection by or on behalf of the Authority, at such intervals or on such occasions as may be prescribed, of statistical information as to such matters relevant to insurance as may be prescribed; and ( b ) for the collection and use of statistical information for any purpose, whether or not connected with insurance. (2) Without limiting section 154(1) and (4), the Authority may prescribe or specify in directions the form or manner in which statistical information is to be provided by Singapore insurers or insurance intermediaries to the Authority. [23/2003] (3) No use may be made of any information obtained by or on behalf of the Authority by virtue only of this section except in a form which does not disclose the affairs of any particular person. [53


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s140
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 140
title: Service of notice, etc.
content:
140. —(1) Unless otherwise expressly provided in this Act, any notice, order or document required or authorised by this Act to be given to or served on any person may be given to or served on the person — ( a ) by delivering it to the person or to some adult member or employee of his or her family or household at his or her last known place of residence; ( b ) by leaving it at his or her usual or last known place of residence or business in an envelope addressed to him or her; ( c ) by sending it by registered post addressed to the person at his or her usual or last known place of residence or business; or ( d ) in the case of a body corporate, a partnership or a body of persons — (i) by delivering it to the secretary or other like officer of the body corporate, partnership or body of persons at its registered office or principal place of business; or (ii) by sending it by registered post addressed to the body corporate, partnership or body of persons at its registered office or principal place of business. (2) Any notice, order or document sent by registered post to any person in accordance with subsection (1) is deemed to be duly served on the person to whom the letter is addressed at the time when the letter would, in the ordinary course of post, be delivered. (3) When proving service of the notice, order or document, it is sufficient to prove that the envelope containing the notice, order or document was properly addressed, stamped and posted by registered post. [54


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s141
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 141
title: Electronic service
content:
141. —(1) The Authority may provide an electronic service for the service of any document that is required or authorised by this Act to be given to or served on any person. [11/2013] (2) For the purposes of the electronic service, the Authority may assign to any person — ( a ) an authentication code; and ( b ) an account with the electronic service. [11/2013] (3) Despite section 140, where any person has given consent for any document to be served on the person through the electronic service, the Authority may serve the document on that person by transmitting an electronic record of the document to that person’s account with the electronic service. [11/2013] (4) Where a person has given consent for a document to be served on the person through the electronic service, the document is deemed to have been served at the time when an electronic record of the document enters the person’s account with the electronic service. [11/2013] (5) Despite any other written law, in any proceedings under this Act — ( a ) an electronic record of any document that was served through the electronic service; or ( b ) any copy or print-out of that electronic record, is admissible as evidence of the facts stated or contained therein if that electronic record, copy or print-out — ( c ) is certified by the Authority to contain all or any information served through the electronic service in accordance with this section; and ( d ) is duly authenticated in the manner specified in subsection (7). [11/2013] (6) To avoid doubt — ( a ) an electronic record of any document that was served through the electronic service; or ( b ) any copy or print-out of that electronic record, is not inadmissible in evidence merely because the document was served without the delivery of any equivalent document or counterpart in paper form. [11/2013] (7) For the purposes of this section, a certificate — ( a ) giving the particulars of — (i) any person whose authentication code was used to serve the document; and (ii) any person or device involved in the production or transmission of the electronic record of the document, or the copy or print-out thereof; ( b ) identifying the nature of the electronic record or copy or print-out thereof; and ( c ) purporting to be signed by the Authority or by a person occupying a responsible position in relation to the operation of the electronic service at the relevant time, is sufficient evidence that the electronic record, copy or print-out has been duly authenticated, unless the court, in its discretion, calls for further evidence on this issue. [11/2013] (8) Where the electronic record of any document, or a copy or print‑out of that electronic record, is admissible under subsection (5), it is presumed, until the contrary is proved, that the electronic record, copy or print-out accurately reproduces the contents of that document. [11/2013] (9) The Authority may make regulations which are necessary or expedient for carrying out the purposes of this section, including regulations prescribing the procedure for the use of the electronic service and the procedure in circumstances where there is a breakdown or interruption of the electronic service. [11/2013] (10) In this section, unless the context otherwise requires — “account with the electronic service”, in relation to any person, means a computer account within the electronic service which is assigned by the Authority to that person for the storage and retrieval of electronic records relating to that person; “authentication code”, in relation to any person, means an identification or identifying code, a password or any other authentication method or procedure which is assigned to that person for the purposes of identifying and authenticating the access to and use of the electronic service by that person; “document” includes notice and order; “electronic record” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Electronic Transactions Act 2010. [54A [11/2013]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s142
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 142
title: General provisions as to offences
content:
142. —(1) Any person who — ( a ) signs any document lodged with the Authority under section 94, 95 or 119(1)( a ); or ( b ) provides the Authority with any information under or for the purposes of any other provision of this Act, must use due care to secure that the document or information is not false in any material particular; and if the person does not use due care in this behalf and the document or information is false in a material particular, the person shall be guilty of an offence. [16/2011; 11/2013] (2) Any person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $125,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both; or ( b ) in any other case, to a fine not exceeding $250,000. [11/2013] (3) Any person who is guilty of any breach of a duty imposed on the person by this Act or any direction issued by the Authority under section 154(4) shall be guilty of an offence and, where no penalty is expressly provided, shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $5,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; or ( b ) in any other case, to a fine not exceeding $100,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $10,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. [11/2013] (4) Where an offence under this Act is committed by any corporation, any person who, at the time of the commission of the offence, is a director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of that corporation, or is purporting to act in that capacity, shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly unless the person proves that he or she exercised all such diligence to prevent the commission of the offence as he or she ought to have exercised, having regard to the nature of his or her functions in that capacity and to all the circumstances. [23/2003] (5) Where an offence under this Act is committed by a corporation, being an offence consisting in the breach of a duty imposed only on corporations, any individual guilty of the offence (whether under subsection (4) or otherwise) shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years in addition to or in substitution for any fine. [23/2003; 11/2013] (6) For the purpose of any proceedings under subsection (1)( a ), a document purporting to be signed by any person is presumed to have been signed by the person, unless the contrary is proved. (7) The Authority may compound any offence under this Act which is prescribed as a compoundable offence by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum of money not exceeding one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for that offence. [11/2013] (8) The Authority may compound any offence under this Act (including an offence under a provision that has been repealed) which — ( a ) was compoundable at the time the offence was committed; but ( b ) has ceased to be so compoundable, by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum of money not exceeding one half of the amount of the maximum fine prescribed for that offence at the time it was committed. [11/2013] (9) On payment of the sum of money referred to in subsection (7) or (8), no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. [11/2013] (10) All sums collected by the Authority under subsection (7) or (8) must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [55 [11/2013]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s143
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 143
title: Penalties for corporations
content:
143. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), where a corporation is convicted of an offence under this Act, the penalty that the court may impose is a fine not exceeding 2 times the maximum amount that the court could, but for this subsection, impose as a fine for that offence. [23/2003] (2) Subsection (1) does not apply to any offence under this Act — ( a ) in respect of the breach of a duty imposed only on corporations; or ( b ) for which different penalties are prescribed in this Act (other than section 142(5)) for individuals and for other persons found guilty of the offence. [11/2013] (3) Where an individual is convicted of an offence under this Act by virtue of section 142(4), the individual shall be liable to the fine or imprisonment or both as prescribed for that offence and subsection (1) does not apply. [55A


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s144
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 144
title: Jurisdiction of court
content:
144. Despite any provision to the contrary in the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, a District Court and a Magistrate’s Court have jurisdiction to try any offence under this Act and have power to impose the full penalty or punishment in respect of any offence under this Act. [56


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s145
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 145
title: Extraterritoriality of Act
content:
145. —(1) Where a person does an act partly in and partly outside Singapore which, if done wholly in Singapore, would constitute an offence against any provision of this Act, that person shall be guilty of that offence as if the act were carried out by that person wholly in Singapore, and may be dealt with as if the offence were committed wholly in Singapore. (2) Where — ( a ) a person does an act outside Singapore which has a substantial and reasonably foreseeable effect in Singapore; and ( b ) that act would, if carried out in Singapore, constitute an offence under section 4, 8, 70 or 75, that person shall be guilty of that offence as if the act were carried out by that person in Singapore, and may be dealt with as if the offence were committed in Singapore. (3) The Authority may, by regulations, specify the circumstances under which subsection (2) does not apply. [56A Division 2 &#x2014; Miscellaneous amendments of law [11/2013]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s146
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 146
title: Insurable interest required for life insurances
content:
146. —(1) A life policy insuring the life of a person which is issued by a licensed insurer is void unless — ( a ) the person effecting the insurance has an insurable interest in the life which is insured at the time the insurance is effected; ( b ) the life which is insured is that of — (i) the person effecting the insurance; (ii) his or her spouse at the time the insurance is effected; (iii) his or her child or ward under the age of 18 years at the time the insurance is effected; or (iv) any other person on whom the person effecting the insurance is, at the time the insurance is effected, wholly or partly dependant; or ( c ) the life policy is one in respect of which all of the conditions referred to in subsection (3) or (4) are satisfied. [3/2009; 11/2013] (2) Where subsection (1)( a ) applies, the policy moneys payable under the life policy must not exceed the amount of the insurable interest at the time the insurance is effected. [3/2009] (3) Section 5 of the Civil Law Act 1909 and section 151 do not apply to a life policy, and a life policy is not void, if all of the following conditions are satisfied: ( a ) the life which is insured is that of the settlor of a trust; ( b ) the person effecting the insurance is the trustee of the trust; ( c ) any beneficiary of the trust — (i) has an insurable interest in the life of the settlor at the time the insurance is effected; or (ii) is — (A) the settlor’s spouse at the time the insurance is effected; (B) the settlor’s child or ward under the age of 18 years at the time the insurance is effected; or (C) any other person on whom the settlor is, at the time the insurance is effected, wholly or partly dependant; ( d ) the settlor consents in writing to the effecting of the insurance before it is effected. [3/2009] (4) Section 5 of the Civil Law Act 1909 and section 151 do not apply to a life policy, and a life policy is not void, if all of the following conditions are satisfied: ( a ) the life which is insured is that of a beneficiary of a trust (called in this subsection the relevant beneficiary); ( b ) the person effecting the insurance is the trustee of the trust; ( c ) any beneficiary of the trust — (i) has an insurable interest in the life of the relevant beneficiary at the time the insurance is effected; or (ii) is — (A) the relevant beneficiary’s spouse at the time the insurance is effected; (B) the relevant beneficiary’s child or ward under the age of 18 years at the time the insurance is effected; or (C) any other person on whom the relevant beneficiary is, at the time the insurance is effected, wholly or partly dependant; ( d ) the relevant beneficiary consents in writing to the effecting of the insurance before it is effected. [3/2009] (5) Subsections (1), (2), (3) and (4) apply to a life policy regardless of whether the proper law of the life policy is the law of Singapore. [3/2009] (6) In this section, “insuring the life of a person” means insuring the payment of money (or the equivalent) on that person’s death or on the happening of any contingency dependent on the termination or continuance of that person’s life, and includes granting an annuity to commence on that death or at a time to be determined by reference thereto or to any such contingency. (7) Insofar as in the case of any life policy the policy moneys do not consist wholly of a cash payment due on the death in question, the limit under this section on the amount to be paid must be applied by reference to the value of the right to the policy moneys immediately after the death or the happening before the death of any event on which they become payable. (8) Subsections (1)( a ) and ( b ), (2), (6) and (7) do not affect policies issued before 1 January 1967. [3/2009] (9) Subsections (1)( c ), (3), (4) and (5) do not affect policies issued before 1 March 2009. [57 [3/2009]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s147
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 147
title: Capacity of infant to insure
content:
147. —(1) Despite any law to the contrary, a person over the age of 10 years does not, by reason only of his or her age, lack the capacity to enter into a contract of insurance; but a person under the age of 16 years does not have the capacity to enter into such a contract except with the written consent of his or her parent or guardian. [3/2009] (2) This section is deemed always to have had effect. [58


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s148
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 148
title: Life policy moneys to be paid without deduction
content:
148. —(1) Subject to section 150, any policy moneys payable under a life policy or moneys payable on the surrender of a life policy must be paid without any deduction for sums not due under the policy or under an agreement charging them on the policy, unless the deduction is made with the consent of the person entitled to those moneys; and any provision contained in a life policy or in any agreement relating thereto is void, insofar as it entitles the insurer to make any such deduction without that consent. [3/2009] (2) Subsection (1) applies to all Singapore policies, but does not apply to any other policy issued before 1 January 1967. (3) In any proceedings for the recovery of policy moneys due under the life policy or of moneys payable on the surrender of a life policy, no set‑off or counterclaim is allowed except for sums due under the policy or under an agreement charging them on the policy. [59


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s149
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 149
title: Life policies (surrenders, non-payment of premiums, paid-up policies)
content:
149. —(1) Where a life policy has been in force for 3 years or more, the policy owner may by written notice to the insurer surrender the policy, and the policy owner is then entitled to receive the surrender value thereof (if any) determined in accordance with such rules as may be prescribed (but subject to any deduction for sums due under the policy or under an agreement charging them on the policy). [11/2013] (2) Where a life policy has been in force for 3 years or more, the policy does not lapse and must not be forfeited by reason of the non‑payment of premiums, but has effect subject to such modifications as to the period for which it is to be in force or the benefits receivable thereunder or both as may be determined in accordance with any system adopted by the insurer and applicable to the policy; and — ( a ) in the case of a policy issued as a Singapore policy after 1 January 1967 or as an offshore policy issued after 1 January 1987, the system must be approved by the Authority, and must be that adopted and applicable at the time the policy is issued, and the policy must contain a statement in a form approved by the Authority of the effect of this subsection in relation to the policy; and ( b ) in any other case, unless the system is determined by the policy, the system must be that which at the time when this section becomes applicable to the policy would apply to a like policy then issued as a Singapore policy. (3) Where a life policy has been in force for 3 years or more, the policy owner may by written notice to the insurer elect to exchange the policy for a paid‑up policy, which must be a non‑participating policy for an amount determined in accordance with such rules as may be prescribed, but with no other modification not required by this Act or some other written law. (4) A policy issued in place of an earlier policy is, for the purposes of this section (including this subsection), treated as having been in force since the earlier policy began to be in force; but this does not affect the operation in relation to a policy of subsection (2)( a ) or ( b ). (5) Subsections (1) to (3) do not apply — ( a ) to a policy securing the grant of an annuity for a term dependent upon human life; or ( b ) to a policy under which no policy moneys are necessarily payable, not being a policy which provides for the payment of policy moneys on a death after a specified period. (6) As respects policies of any prescribed description, subsections (1), (2) and (3) have effect subject to such modifications as may be prescribed. (7) The rights conferred by this section are in addition to, and not in derogation of, any other rights available to the policy owner under the terms of the policy or otherwise; but this section is not to be taken to confer on a policy owner any rights except against the insurer as such. (8) This section applies to policies whenever issued; and, subject to subsection (5), extends to any Singapore policy and offshore policy. [60


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s150
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 150
title: Payment of living benefits or death benefits under life policy or accident and health policy, etc.
content:
150. —(1) In any case where — ( a ) the policy owner of any life policy or accident and health policy has made a nomination under section 132(2) in respect of the policy; ( b ) that nomination is not revoked in accordance with section 132(7); ( c ) the licensed insurer of the policy has received written notice of that nomination under section 134(1)( b ); and ( d ) any living benefits are payable under the policy, the licensed insurer may make a payment from the living benefits, and is discharged from all liability in respect of the payment, to — ( e ) in a case where any trustee of the policy moneys is a person other than the policy owner — (i) that trustee, for the benefit of every nominee under that nomination; or (ii) if there is more than one such trustee, any such trustee, for the benefit of every nominee under that nomination; or ( f ) in any other case — (i) any nominee under that nomination who has attained the age of 18 years; (ii) a parent or legal guardian, not being the policy owner, of any nominee under that nomination who is below the age of 18 years; or (iii) the personal representatives of the estate of any nominee under that nomination who is deceased, such payment not exceeding that nominee’s portion of the living benefits. [3/2009; 11/2013] (2) In any case where the policy owner of any life policy or accident and health policy dies, and death benefits are payable under the policy on his or her death — ( a ) if subsection (7), (8) or (9) applies in respect of the policy, the licensed insurer of the policy may make one or more payments in accordance with the applicable subsection from the death benefits under the policy, without the production of any probate or letters of administration; ( b ) if subsection (10) applies in respect of the policy, the licensed insurer of the policy may make one or more payments in accordance with subsections (10) and (11) from the death benefits under all such policies issued by the licensed insurer on the deceased’s life in respect of which subsection (10) applies, such payment or payments not exceeding in the aggregate the amount prescribed by the Authority for the purposes of this paragraph, without the production of any probate or letters of administration; and ( c ) the licensed insurer is discharged from all liability in respect of each such payment. [3/2009; 11/2013] (3) If, in any case referred to in subsection (2), estate duty is payable in Singapore on any death benefits referred to in that subsection, the licensed insurer may, despite section 43(2) of the Estate Duty Act 1929, make one or more payments in accordance with subsections (10) and (11) from the death benefits under all such policies issued by the licensed insurer (such payment or payments not exceeding in the aggregate the amount prescribed by the Authority for the purposes of this subsection) without the death benefits having been included in any schedule or certificate referred to in section 43(2) of that Act. [3/2009; 11/2013] (4) If, as a consequence of making any payment under subsection (3), the aggregate of all payments made under that subsection will exceed the amount prescribed by the Authority for the purposes of this subsection, the licensed insurer must, before making the firstmentioned payment, give written notice to the Commissioner of Estate Duties of such particulars as the Commissioner may require. [3/2009; 11/2013] (5) Subsection (3) applies in relation to death benefits under policies of which the deceased was not the policy owner at his or her death as it applies in relation to any death benefits referred to in subsection (2). [3/2009] (6) Where the payment or payments allowed under subsection (3) on account of any death benefits have been made, the licensed insurer may, before paying the balance of such death benefits to one or more relevant persons according to their entitlements, apply the whole or any part of the death benefits to pay any unpaid estate duty payable on the death of the insured. [3/2009; 11/2013] (7) Where — ( a ) the policy owner of a policy referred to in subsection (2) has made a nomination under section 132(2) in respect of the policy; ( b ) that nomination is not revoked in accordance with section 132(7); and ( c ) the licensed insurer of the policy has received written notice of that nomination under section 134(1)( b ), the licensed insurer may make a payment under subsection (2)( a ) to — ( d ) in a case where any trustee of the policy moneys is a person other than the policy owner — (i) that trustee, for the benefit of every nominee under that nomination; or (ii) if there is more than one such trustee, any such trustee, for the benefit of every nominee under that nomination; or ( e ) in any other case — (i) any nominee under that nomination who has attained the age of 18 years; (ii) a parent or legal guardian, not being the policy owner, of any nominee under that nomination who is below the age of 18 years; or (iii) the personal representatives of the estate of any nominee under that nomination who is deceased, such payment not exceeding that nominee’s portion of the death benefits under the policy. [3/2009; 11/2013] (8) Where — ( a ) the policy owner of a policy referred to in subsection (2) has made a nomination under section 133(2) in respect of the policy; ( b ) that nomination is not and is not deemed to be revoked; and ( c ) the licensed insurer of the policy has received written notice of that nomination under section 134(1)( b ), the licensed insurer may make a payment under subsection (2)( a ) to — ( d ) any nominee under that nomination who has attained the age of 18 years; ( e ) a parent or legal guardian, not being the policy owner, of any nominee under that nomination who is below the age of 18 years; or ( f ) the personal representatives of the estate of any nominee under that nomination who dies after the policy owner, such payment not exceeding that nominee’s portion of the death benefits under the policy. [3/2009; 11/2013] (9) Subject to subsection (7), where — ( a ) the policy owner of a policy referred to in subsection (2) has made, and has not revoked, a will in accordance with the Wills Act 1838; ( b ) the will — (i) provides for the disposition of all death benefits under the policy; and (ii) specifies such particulars of the policy as may be prescribed by the Authority under section 133(7)( b )(ii); and ( c ) the licensed insurer of the policy has received written notice, signed by the policy owner, of that will in such manner as may be prescribed by the Authority for the purposes of this subsection, the licensed insurer may make a payment under subsection (2)( a ) to any executor of that will, such payment not exceeding the amount of the death benefits under the policy. [3/2009; 11/2013] (10) Subject to subsection (11), where — ( a ) the policy owner of a policy referred to in subsection (2) or (3) has not made — (i) any nomination under section 132(2) or 133(2) in respect of the policy; or (ii) any will which — (A) provides for the disposition of all death benefits under the policy; and (B) specifies such particulars of the policy as may be prescribed by the Authority under section 133(7)( b )(ii); ( b ) the licensed insurer of a policy referred to in subsection (2) or (3) has not received — (i) any written notice referred to in section 134(1)( b ) of any nomination made under section 132(2) or 133(2) in respect of the policy; or (ii) any written notice referred to in subsection (9)( c ) of any will providing for the disposition of all death benefits under the policy; or ( c ) there exist, in respect of a policy referred to in subsection (2) or (3), such other circumstances as the Authority may prescribe, the licensed insurer of the policy may make a payment under subsection (2)( b ) or (3) to any proper claimant from the death benefits under the policy. [3/2009; 11/2013] (11) Where subsection (10) applies, and the licensed insurer referred to in that subsection receives 2 or more different claims for payment in accordance with that subsection — ( a ) each such claim must be paid in the same order of priority; and ( b ) the amount payable under subsection (2)( b ) or (3) (as the case may be) in respect of any such claim must be calculated as follows: where A is the amount which would have been payable in respect of that claim had it been paid in full; B is the total amount which would have been payable in respect of all such claims had they been paid in full; and C is the amount prescribed by the Authority for the purposes of subsection (2)( b ) or (3), as the case may be. [3/2009; 11/2013] (12) In this section, unless the context otherwise requires — “policy owner” includes a part owner of a policy; “proper claimant” means a person who — ( a ) claims to be entitled to payment under subsection (2)( b ) or (3) as executor of the deceased; or ( b ) claims to be entitled to payment under subsection (2)( b ) or (3) (whether for his or her own benefit or not) and is the widower, widow, parent, child, brother, sister, nephew or niece of the deceased; “relevant person” means the personal representative of the deceased or, where there is none, any proper claimant. [3/2009] (13) In deducing any relationship for the purposes of the definition of “proper claimant” in subsection (12), an illegitimate person is treated as the legitimate child of his or her actual parents. [3/2009] (14) For the purposes of this section, where any nomination has been or is deemed to be varied, any reference to a nominee under that nomination is to be construed as a reference to a nominee under that nomination as varied. [61 [3/2009]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s151
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 151
title:
No insurance to be made unless insurer has interest and no policy without inserting names (UK Life Assurance Act 1774)

content:
151. —(1) An insurance must not be made by any person on any event wherein the person for whose use or benefit or on whose account the policy is made has no interest, or by way of gaming or wagering; and every assurance made contrary to this subsection is void. (2) It shall not be lawful to make any policy on any event without inserting in such policy the names of the persons interested therein, or for whose use or benefit or on whose account such policy was made. (3) In all cases where there is an interest in such event, no greater sum may be recovered or received from the insurer than the amount or value of the interest. (4) Nothing in this section extends to insurance made by any person on ships or goods, or to contracts of indemnity against loss by fire or loss by other events whatsoever. [62


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s152
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 152
title: No action for accidental fire (UK Fire Prevention (Metropolis) Act 1774, s. 86)
content:
152. No action shall lie against a person in whose house or premises or on whose estate any fire accidentally began except that no contract or agreement made between landlord and tenant shall be hereby defeated or made void. [63 Division 3 &#x2014; Supplementary [11/2013]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s153
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 153
title: Amendment of Schedules
content:
153. —(1) The Minister may by order in the Gazette amend, add to or vary the First or Second Schedule. [23/2003] (2) The Minister may, in any order made under subsection (1), make such incidental, consequential or supplementary provisions as may be necessary or expedient. [23/2003] (3) Any order made under subsection (1) must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette . [63A [23/2003]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s154
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 154
title: Regulations
content:
154. —(1) The Authority may make regulations for carrying into effect the objects of this Act, and for prescribing anything which under this Act is to be prescribed. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), regulations may be made for or with respect to — ( a ) the forms for the purposes of this Act; ( b ) the fees to be paid in respect of any matter or thing required for the purposes of this Act, including the waiver, refund or remission, whether in whole or in part, of such fees; [Act 12 of 2024 wef 30/08/2024] ( c ) the corporate governance of insurers and insurance brokers; [Act 12 of 2024 wef 30/08/2024] ( d ) the risk management of insurers, including the management of financial risk, conduct risk, operational risk and underwriting risk, in relation to the conduct of insurance business in Singapore; and [Act 12 of 2024 wef 30/08/2024] ( e ) the risk management of insurance brokers, including the management of financial risk, conduct risk, operational risk and reputational risk, in relation to the conduct of insurance broking business in Singapore. [Act 12 of 2024 wef 30/08/2024] (3) Except as otherwise expressly provided in this Act, regulations made under this Act — ( a ) may be of general or specific application; ( b ) may provide that a contravention of any specified provision thereof shall be an offence; and ( c ) may provide — (i) in the case of an individual, for penalties not exceeding a fine of $50,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or both for each offence and, in the case of a continuing offence, for a further penalty not exceeding a fine of 10% of the maximum fine prescribed for that offence for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; or (ii) in any other case, for penalties not exceeding a fine of $100,000 for each offence and, in the case of a continuing offence, for a further penalty not exceeding a fine of 10% of the maximum fine prescribed for that offence for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. [23/2003; 11/2013] (4) The Authority may issue such directions as it may consider necessary for carrying into effect the objects of this Act, and may at any time vary, rescind or revoke any such directions. [11/2013] (5) Without limiting subsection (4), the Authority may issue such directions as it may consider necessary to an authorised reinsurer with respect to the manner and form of the transfer of the whole or part of its business of providing the reinsurance of liabilities under insurance policies, to persons in Singapore. [23/2003] (6) It is not necessary to publish any direction issued under this Act in the Gazette . [64 [11/2013]


document_id: ia-1966
provision_ref: s155
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL
section: 155
title: Saving provisions
content:
155. —(1) The repeal of section 34 of this Act as in force immediately before 8 January 2002 does not — ( a ) invalidate any existing Lloyd’s policy; ( b ) prevent the collection or receipt of premiums on any existing Lloyd’s policy; or ( c ) prejudice any right or claim against the Lloyd’s underwriter, or by the Lloyd’s underwriter of any right or claim against any policy owner or person, relating to any existing Lloyd’s policy. (2) The Authority must, if satisfied that insurance business is not being carried on in Singapore by any Lloyd’s underwriter under the repealed section 34, transfer any deposit referred to in the repealed section 34(4) and maintained under the repealed Second Schedule, to Lloyd’s, except such part (if any) that the Authority determines should be kept available for meeting claims against Lloyd’s underwriters in respect of any existing Lloyd’s policy. (3) For the purposes of this section — “existing Lloyd’s policy” means any insurance policy entered into by a Lloyd’s underwriter before 8 January 2002 and which was authorised under the repealed section 34; “Lloyd’s” has the meaning given by the repealed section 34; “Lloyd’s underwriter” has the meaning given by the repealed section 34. [65


document_id: ia-1970
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - LIMITATION OF INNKEEPERS’ LIABILITY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Part — “inn” means any hotel, tavern, public house, restaurant or other place of refreshment, the keeper of which is now by law responsible for the goods and property of his guests; “innkeeper” means the keeper of any such place, and includes a company or corporation; “manager” means the agent or servant of the innkeeper for the time being in charge of the inn or any person duly appointed by the innkeeper to receive the goods of his guests for safe custody.


document_id: ia-1970
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 1 - LIMITATION OF INNKEEPERS’ LIABILITY
section: 3
title: Limitation of innkeepers’ liability
content:
3. —(1) No innkeeper shall be liable to make good to his guest any loss of or injury to goods or property brought to his inn, not being a horse or other live animal, or any gear appertaining thereto or any car or carriage, to a greater amount than the sum of $500, except — ( a ) where the goods or property have been stolen, lost or injured through the wilful act, default or neglect of the innkeeper or any servant in his employ; or ( b ) where the goods or property have been deposited expressly for safe custody with the innkeeper or his manager. (2) In the case of any such deposit it shall be lawful for the innkeeper or his manager, if he thinks fit, to require, as a condition of his liability — ( a ) that the guest shall at the time of such deposit declare the value of the goods or property; and ( b ) that the goods or property shall be deposited in a box or other receptacle, fastened and sealed by the person depositing the same. (3) An innkeeper or his manager may refuse to receive for safe custody under this section goods or property of any one guest the declared value of which exceeds $5,000, and shall in no case be liable for loss of or injury to goods or property so deposited by a guest to an amount exceeding the declared value thereof.


document_id: ia-1970
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 1 - LIMITATION OF INNKEEPERS’ LIABILITY
section: 4
title: Refusal to accept property for safe custody
content:
4. If any innkeeper or his manager refuses to receive for safe custody, as before mentioned, any goods or property of his guest the declared value of which does not exceed $5,000, or if any such guest is unable, through any default of the innkeeper or manager, to deposit the goods or property as aforesaid, the innkeeper shall not be entitled to the benefit of this Part in respect of the goods or property.


document_id: ia-1970
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 1 - LIMITATION OF INNKEEPERS’ LIABILITY
section: 5
title: Copy of section 3 to be exhibited
content:
5. Every innkeeper shall cause at least one copy of section 3 printed in plain type in English to be exhibited in a conspicuous part of the hall or entrance to his inn, and he shall be entitled to the benefit of this Part in respect of the goods or property only as are brought to his inn while such copy is so exhibited.


document_id: ia-1970
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - INNKEEPERS’ RIGHT TO SELL GOODS
section: 6
title: Interpretation
content:
6. In this Part — “inn” means any hotel, tavern or public house; “innkeeper” means the keeper of any such place, and includes a company or corporation; “goods” includes any vehicle.


document_id: ia-1970
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - INNKEEPERS’ RIGHT TO SELL GOODS
section: 7
title: Power of sale of goods deposited with innkeeper
content:
7. An innkeeper shall, in addition to his ordinary lien, have the right absolutely to sell by public auction any goods which may have been deposited with him or left in the inn he keeps or in any garage, car park or other premises appurtenant thereto where the person depositing or leaving the goods is or becomes indebted to the innkeeper for any board or lodging: Provided that — ( a ) no sale shall be made until after the goods have been for the space of 6 weeks in his charge or custody or in or upon those premises without the debt having been paid or satisfied; ( b ) the innkeeper, after having out of the proceeds of that sale paid himself the amount of any such debt, together with the costs and expenses of the sale, shall on demand pay to the person depositing or leaving the goods the surplus (if any) remaining after the sale; ( c ) the debt for the payment of which a sale is made shall not be any other or greater debt than the debt for which the goods could have been retained by the innkeeper under his lien; ( d ) at least one month before any such sale the innkeeper shall cause to be inserted in a newspaper circulating in Singapore an advertisement containing notice of the intended sale, and giving shortly a description of the goods intended to be sold, together with the name of the owner or person who deposited or left them, where known.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “appointing authority”, in relation to a commission of inquiry, means the President and, in relation to a committee of inquiry, means the Minister who appointed the committee of inquiry under section 9 and includes his or her successor in office; “commission” or “commission of inquiry” means any commission of inquiry appointed by the President under section 3, and includes the members of the commission, or a quorum of the members, or the sole member, sitting for the purposes of the inquiry; “committee” or “committee of inquiry” means any committee of inquiry appointed by the Minister under section 9, and includes the members of the committee, or a quorum of the members, or the sole member, sitting for the purposes of the inquiry; “inquiry body” means a commission of inquiry or a committee of inquiry, and includes the members of such commission of inquiry or committee of inquiry, or a quorum of the members, or the sole member, sitting for the purposes of the inquiry; “member” means a member of any commission of inquiry or committee of inquiry (as the case may be) and includes the chairperson of such commission or committee; “Minister”, in relation to a committee of inquiry, means the Minister who appointed the committee of inquiry under section 9 and includes the Minister’s successor in office; “terms of reference”, in relation to an inquiry body, means the terms of reference issued to the inquiry body under section 3(2) or 9(2) (as the case may be) and includes any modification made to the terms of reference under section 3(3) or 9(3).


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - COMMISSIONS OF INQUIRY
section: 3
title: Power to issue commissions
content:
3. —(1) The President may, whenever the President considers it expedient to do so, issue a commission appointing one or more commissioners and authorising such commissioners, or any quorum of them mentioned in the commission, to inquire into — ( a ) the conduct of any officer or officers in the public service of Singapore; ( b ) the conduct or management of any department of the public service or any public or local institution; or ( c ) any matter in which an inquiry would, in the opinion of the President, be for the public welfare or in the public interest. (2) The commission issued by the President must specify the subject of the inquiry and, at the discretion of the President, may — ( a ) specify any particular matters as to which the commissioners are to determine the facts; ( b ) direct whether the commissioners are to make recommendations; ( c ) direct where and when the inquiry is to be held and the report of the inquiry submitted; ( d ) prescribe how the inquiry is to be conducted, including whether the Attorney‑General is appointed to lead evidence in the inquiry; and ( e ) direct whether the inquiry or any part of the inquiry is or is not to be held in public. (3) The President may modify the terms of reference issued under subsection (2) on the recommendation of the commissioners. (4) The President may extend the time for the inquiry to be completed and for the submission of the report of the inquiry by the commission.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - COMMISSIONS OF INQUIRY
section: 4
title: Composition of commission
content:
4. —(1) A commission of inquiry must consist of one or more persons (at least one of whom must be a person who is qualified to be a Judge of the High Court). (2) Where a commission consists of more than one commissioner, the President must appoint one of the commissioners to be the chairperson. (3) Where a commission consists of one commissioner only, the commissioner is vested with the powers of the chairperson. (4) The President may, from time to time, add to the members of any such commission. (5) The President may appoint a person to replace any commissioner — ( a ) who has died or resigned; or ( b ) whom the President is satisfied — (i) is incapacitated by reason of physical or mental disability; or (ii) is unwilling, unable or unfit to discharge the functions of a commissioner. (6) When a new commissioner has been appointed under subsection (4) or (5), it is not necessary for any evidence which may have been taken before the commission prior to such appointment to be retaken. (7) A commissioner may resign from his or her office at any time by written notice to the President. (8) Every commissioner appointed under this Part is, so long as he or she is acting as such commissioner, deemed to be a public servant within the meaning of the Penal Code 1871, and every inquiry under this Part is deemed to be a judicial proceeding within the meaning of the Penal Code 1871.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - COMMISSIONS OF INQUIRY
section: 5
title: Change of President
content:
5. No commission issued and no appointment made under this Part lapses by reason of, or is otherwise affected by, the death, absence, resignation, retirement or removal of the President who issued the commission or made the appointment.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - COMMISSIONS OF INQUIRY
section: 6
title: Appointment of secretary
content:
6. The President may appoint a secretary — ( a ) to attend the sittings of the commission; ( b ) to record their proceedings; ( c ) to keep their papers; ( d ) to summon and record the evidence of witnesses; and ( e ) generally to perform such duties connected with the inquiry as the commissioners may instruct, subject to the directions (if any) of the President.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - COMMISSIONS OF INQUIRY
section: 7
title: Appointment of assessors
content:
7. —(1) One or more persons may be appointed as assessors to assist the commissioners. (2) The power to appoint assessors is exercisable — ( a ) before the appointment of the chairperson, by the President; or ( b ) by the chairperson (whether or not the President has appointed assessors). (3) The chairperson may at any time terminate the appointment of an assessor, but only with the consent of the President in the case of an assessor appointed by the President.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 2 - COMMISSIONS OF INQUIRY
section: 8
title: Role of police
content:
8. The President may direct the Commissioner of Police to detail police officers to attend upon any such commissioners, to preserve order during the proceedings, to serve summonses on witnesses and to provide such other assistance in relation to the inquiry as the commissioners may direct.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 3 - COMMITTEES OF INQUIRY
section: 9
title: Appointment of committee
content:
9. —(1) Any Minister may, whenever the Minister considers it expedient to do so, in writing appoint a committee of inquiry and direct the committee to inquire into — ( a ) any accident or occurrence resulting in or involving death, serious personal injury or serious property damage; ( b ) any occurrence that may endanger public safety or public health; ( c ) the conduct or management of a ministry, department or statutory body falling under the responsibility of that Minister; or ( d ) the conduct of any officer employed by or seconded to any such ministry, department or statutory body. (2) The Minister must issue to the committee terms of reference which must specify the subject of the inquiry and may — ( a ) specify any particular matters as to which the committee is to determine the facts; ( b ) direct whether the committee is to make recommendations; ( c ) direct where and when the inquiry is to be held and the report of the inquiry submitted; ( d ) prescribe how the inquiry is to be conducted, including whether the Attorney‑General is appointed to lead evidence in the inquiry; and ( e ) direct whether the inquiry or any part of the inquiry is or is not to be held in public. (3) The Minister may modify the terms of reference issued under subsection (2) on the recommendation of the committee. (4) The Minister may extend the time for the inquiry to be completed and for the submission of the report of the inquiry by the committee.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 3 - COMMITTEES OF INQUIRY
section: 10
title: Composition of committee
content:
10. —(1) A committee of inquiry must consist of one or more persons (at least one of whom must be a person who is qualified to be a District Judge). (2) Where a committee consists of more than one person, the Minister must appoint one of the members to be the chairperson. (3) Where a committee consists of one member only, the member is vested with the powers of the chairperson. (4) The Minister may, from time to time, add to the members of any such committee. (5) The Minister may appoint a person to replace any member — ( a ) who has died or resigned; or ( b ) whom the Minister is satisfied — (i) is incapacitated by reason of physical or mental disability; or (ii) is unwilling, unable or unfit to discharge the functions of a member. (6) When a new member has been appointed under subsection (4) or (5), it is not necessary for any evidence which may have been taken before the committee prior to such appointment to be retaken. (7) A member may resign from his or her office at any time by written notice to the Minister. (8) Every member appointed under this Part is, so long as he or she is acting as such member, deemed to be a public servant within the meaning of the Penal Code 1871, and every inquiry under this Part is deemed to be a judicial proceeding within the meaning of the Penal Code 1871.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 3 - COMMITTEES OF INQUIRY
section: 11
title: Change of Minister
content:
11. No appointment made under this Part lapses by reason of, or is otherwise affected by, the death, absence, resignation, retirement or removal of the Minister who made the appointment.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - COMMITTEES OF INQUIRY
section: 12
title: Appointment of secretary
content:
12. The Minister may appoint a secretary — ( a ) to attend the sittings of the committee; ( b ) to record their proceedings; ( c ) to keep their papers; ( d ) to summon and record the evidence of witnesses; and ( e ) generally to perform such duties connected with the inquiry as the committee may instruct, subject to the directions (if any) of the Minister.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - COMMITTEES OF INQUIRY
section: 13
title: Appointment of assessors
content:
13. —(1) One or more persons may be appointed as assessors to assist the committee. (2) The power to appoint assessors is exercisable — ( a ) before the appointment of the chairperson, by the Minister; or ( b ) by the chairperson (whether or not the Minister has appointed assessors). (3) The chairperson may at any time terminate the appointment of an assessor, but only with the consent of the Minister in the case of an assessor appointed by the Minister.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 4 - INQUIRY POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS AND RULES
section: 14
title: Inquiry powers and proceedings
content:
14. The powers of inquiry bodies and the provisions on inquiry proceedings are as set out in the Schedule.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 4 - INQUIRY POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS AND RULES
section: 15
title: Rules in relation to commissions of inquiry
content:
15. —(1) The President may make rules generally for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act in respect of commissions of inquiry. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the President may make rules for or with respect to all or any of the following matters in respect of commissions of inquiry: ( a ) matters of evidence and procedure in relation to commissions of inquiry under this Act; ( b ) the assessment and payment of sums mentioned in paragraph 1(7) of the Schedule. (3) Rules under subsection (2)( b ) may in particular — ( a ) make provision as to how and by whom the sums mentioned in paragraph 1(7) of the Schedule are to be assessed, including provision allowing the assessment to be undertaken by the commissioners or by such other person as the commissioners may nominate; and ( b ) make provision for review of an assessment at the instance of any person dissatisfied with it.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 4 - INQUIRY POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS AND RULES
section: 16
title: Rules in relation to committees of inquiry
content:
16. —(1) The Minister for Law may make rules generally for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act in respect of committees of inquiry. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Minister for Law may make rules for or with respect to all or any of the following matters in respect of committees of inquiry: ( a ) matters of evidence and procedure in relation to committees of inquiry under this Act; ( b ) the assessment and payment of sums mentioned in paragraph 1(7) of the Schedule. (3) Rules under subsection (2)( b ) may in particular — ( a ) make provision as to how and by whom the sums mentioned in paragraph 1(7) of the Schedule are to be assessed, including provision allowing the assessment to be undertaken by the committee of inquiry or by such other person as the committee of inquiry may nominate; and ( b ) make provision for review of an assessment at the instance of any person dissatisfied with it.


document_id: ia-2007
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 5 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 17
title: Saving and transitional provision
content:
17. In respect of any commission of inquiry appointed under section 2 of the repealed Commissions of Inquiry Act (Cap. 48, 1985 Revised Edition) (called in this section the repealed Act) before 1 November 2007, the repealed Act continues to apply to such commission of inquiry and all matters arising from it as if the repealed Act had not been repealed.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 2
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
2. —(1) In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires — “arbitral tribunal” means a sole arbitrator or a panel of arbitrators or a permanent arbitral institution, and includes an emergency arbitrator appointed pursuant to the rules of arbitration agreed to or adopted by the parties including the rules of arbitration of an institution or organisation; “appointing authority” means the authority designated under section 8(2) or (3); “arbitration agreement” means an arbitration agreement mentioned in section 2A; “award” means a decision of the arbitral tribunal on the substance of the dispute and includes any interim, interlocutory or partial award but excludes any order or direction made under section 12; “Model Law” means the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration adopted by the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law on 21 June 1985, the text in English of which is set out in the First Schedule; “party” means a party to an arbitration agreement or, in any case where an arbitration does not involve all of the parties to the arbitration agreement, means a party to the arbitration. [26/2009; 12/2012] (2) Except so far as the contrary intention appears, a word or an expression that is used both in this Part and in the Model Law (whether or not a particular meaning is given to it by the Model Law) has, in the Model Law, the meaning given by this Part.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s2A
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 2A
title: Definition and form of arbitration agreement
content:
2A. —(1) In this Act, “arbitration agreement” means an agreement by the parties to submit to arbitration all or certain disputes which have arisen or which may arise between them in respect of a defined legal relationship, whether contractual or not. [12/2012] (2) An arbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract or in the form of a separate agreement. [12/2012] (3) An arbitration agreement must be in writing. [12/2012] (4) An arbitration agreement is in writing if its content is recorded in any form, whether or not the arbitration agreement or contract has been concluded orally, by conduct or by other means. [12/2012] (5) The requirement that an arbitration agreement must be in writing is satisfied by an electronic communication if the information contained in the electronic communication is accessible so as to be useable for subsequent reference. [12/2012] (6) Where in any arbitral or legal proceedings, a party asserts the existence of an arbitration agreement in a pleading, statement of case or any other document in circumstances in which the assertion calls for a reply and the assertion is not denied, there is deemed to be an effective arbitration agreement as between the parties to the proceedings. [12/2012] (7) A reference in a contract to any document containing an arbitration clause is to constitute an arbitration agreement in writing if the reference is such as to make that clause part of the contract. [12/2012] (8) A reference in a bill of lading to a charterparty or other document containing an arbitration clause is to constitute an arbitration agreement in writing if the reference is such as to make that clause part of the bill of lading. [12/2012] (9) Article 7 of the Model Law does not apply to this section. [12/2012] (10) In this section — “data message” means information generated, sent, received or stored by electronic, magnetic, optical or similar means, including, but not limited to, electronic data interchange (EDI), electronic mail, telegram, telex or telecopy; “electronic communication” means any communication that the parties make by means of data messages. [12/2012]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 3
title: Model Law to have force of law
content:
3. —(1) Subject to this Act, the Model Law, with the exception of Chapter VIII of the Model Law, has the force of law in Singapore. (2) In the Model Law — “State” means Singapore and any country other than Singapore; “this State” means Singapore.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 4
title: Interpretation of Model Law by use of extrinsic material
content:
4. —(1) For the purposes of interpreting the Model Law, reference may be made to the documents of — ( a ) the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law; and ( b ) its working group for the preparation of the Model Law, relating to the Model Law. (2) Subsection (1) does not affect the application of section 9A of the Interpretation Act 1965 for the purposes of interpreting this Act.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 5
title: Application of this Part
content:
5. —(1) This Part and the Model Law do not apply to an arbitration which is not an international arbitration unless the parties agree in writing that this Part or the Model Law is to apply to that arbitration. (2) Despite Article 1(3) of the Model Law, an arbitration is international if — ( a ) at least one of the parties to an arbitration agreement, at the time of the conclusion of the agreement, has its place of business in any State other than Singapore; ( b ) one of the following places is situated outside the State in which the parties have their places of business: (i) the place of arbitration if determined in, or pursuant to, the arbitration agreement; (ii) any place where a substantial part of the obligations of the commercial relationship is to be performed or the place with which the subject matter of the dispute is most closely connected; or ( c ) the parties have expressly agreed that the subject matter of the arbitration agreement relates to more than one country. (3) For the purposes of subsection (2) — ( a ) if a party has more than one place of business, the place of business is that which has the closest relationship to the arbitration agreement; ( b ) if a party does not have a place of business, a reference to the party’s place of business is to be construed as a reference to the party’s habitual residence. (4) Despite any provision to the contrary in the Arbitration Act 2001, that Act does not apply to any arbitration to which this Part applies.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 6
title: Enforcement of international arbitration agreement
content:
6. —(1) Despite Article 8 of the Model Law, where any party to an arbitration agreement to which this Act applies institutes any proceedings in any court against any other party to the agreement in respect of any matter which is the subject of the agreement, any party to the agreement may, at any time after filing and serving a notice of intention to contest or not contest and before delivering any pleading (other than a pleading asserting that the court does not have jurisdiction in the proceedings) or taking any other step in the proceedings, apply to that court to stay the proceedings so far as the proceedings relate to that matter. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (2) The court to which an application has been made in accordance with subsection (1) is to make an order, upon such terms or conditions as the court thinks fit, staying the proceedings so far as the proceedings relate to the matter, unless it is satisfied that the arbitration agreement is null and void, inoperative or incapable of being performed. (3) Where a court makes an order under subsection (2), the court may, for the purpose of preserving the rights of parties, make any interim or supplementary order that the court thinks fit in relation to any property which is the subject of the dispute to which the order under that subsection relates. (4) Where no party to the proceedings has taken any further step in the proceedings for a period of at least 2 years after an order staying the proceedings has been made, the court may, on its own motion, make an order discontinuing the proceedings without prejudice to the right of any of the parties to apply for the discontinued proceedings to be reinstated. (5) For the purposes of this section and sections 7 and 11A — ( a ) a reference to a party includes a reference to any person claiming through or under such party; ( b ) “court” means the General Division of the High Court, District Court, Magistrate’s Court or any other court in which proceedings are instituted. [40/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 7
title: Court’s powers on stay of proceedings
content:
7. —(1) Where a court stays proceedings under section 6, the court may, if in those proceedings property has been arrested or bail or other security has been given to prevent or obtain release from arrest, order that — ( a ) the property arrested be retained as security for the satisfaction of any award made on the arbitration; or ( b ) the stay be conditional on the provision of equivalent security for the satisfaction of any such award. (2) Subject to the Rules of Court and to any necessary modification, the same law and practice apply in relation to property retained pursuant to an order under this section as would apply if it were held for the purposes of proceedings in the court which made the order.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 8
title: Authorities specified for purposes of Article 6 of Model Law
content:
8. —(1) The General Division of the High Court in Singapore is to be taken to have been specified in Article 6 of the Model Law as courts competent to perform the functions referred to in that Article except for Article 11(3) and (4) of the Model Law. [40/2019] (2) The president of the Court of Arbitration of the Singapore International Arbitration Centre is to be taken to have been specified as the authority competent to perform the functions under Article 11(3) and (4) of the Model Law. [16/2016] (3) The Chief Justice may, if he or she thinks fit, appoint any other person to exercise the powers of the president of the Court of Arbitration of the Singapore International Arbitration Centre under subsection (2). [16/2016] [Act 5 of 2025 wef 09/03/2025] (4) An appointment under subsection (3) must be published in the Gazette . [Act 5 of 2025 wef 09/03/2025]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s8A
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 8A
title: Application of Limitation Act 1959 and Foreign Limitation Periods Act 2012
content:
8A. —(1) The Limitation Act 1959 and the Foreign Limitation Periods Act 2012 apply to arbitral proceedings as they apply to proceedings before any court and any reference in both Acts to the commencement of proceedings is to be construed as a reference to the commencement of arbitral proceedings. [13/2012] (2) The General Division of the High Court may order that in computing the time prescribed by the Limitation Act 1959 or the Foreign Limitation Periods Act 2012 for the commencement of proceedings (including arbitral proceedings) in respect of a dispute which was the subject matter of — ( a ) an award which the General Division of the High Court orders to be set aside or declares to be of no effect; or ( b ) the affected part of an award which the General Division of the High Court orders to be set aside in part or declares to be in part of no effect, the period between the commencement of the arbitration and the date of the order referred to in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ) is to be excluded. [13/2012; 40/2019] (3) Despite any term in an arbitration agreement to the effect that no cause of action is to accrue in respect of any matter required by the agreement to be referred until an award is made under the agreement, the cause of action is deemed, for the purposes of the Limitation Act 1959 and the Foreign Limitation Periods Act 2012, to have accrued in respect of any such matter at the time when it would have accrued but for that term in the agreement. [13/2012]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 9
title: Number of arbitrators for purposes of Article 10(2) of Model Law
content:
9. Despite Article 10(2) of the Model Law, if the number of arbitrators is not determined by the parties, there is to be a single arbitrator.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s9A
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 9A
title: Default appointment of arbitrators in arbitration with 2 parties
content:
9A. —(1) Despite Article 11(3) of the Model Law, in an arbitration with 2 parties and 3 arbitrators, each party must appoint one arbitrator, and the parties must by agreement appoint the third arbitrator. [32/2020] (2) Where the parties fail to agree on the appointment of the third arbitrator within 30 days after the receipt of the first request by either party to do so, the appointment must be made, upon the request of a party, by the appointing authority. [32/2020]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s9B
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 9B
title: Default appointment of arbitrators in arbitration with 3 or more parties
content:
9B. —(1) Despite Article 11(3) of the Model Law, in an arbitration with 3 or more parties and 3 arbitrators — ( a ) the claimant, or all the claimants by agreement if there is more than one claimant, must appoint an arbitrator on or before the date of sending of the request for the dispute to be referred to arbitration and inform the respondent or respondents of the appointment on the date when the request for the dispute to be referred to arbitration is sent to the respondent or respondents; ( b ) the respondent, or all the respondents by agreement if there is more than one respondent, must appoint an arbitrator and inform the claimant or claimants of the appointment within 30 days after the date of receipt of the request for the dispute to be referred to arbitration by the respondent, or by the last respondent to receive the request if there is more than one respondent; and ( c ) the 2 arbitrators appointed under paragraphs ( a ) and ( b ) must by agreement appoint the third arbitrator, who is to be the presiding arbitrator, within 60 days after the date of receipt of the request for the dispute to be referred to arbitration by the respondent, or by the last respondent to receive the request if there is more than one respondent. [32/2020] (2) Despite subsection (1), the appointing authority must, upon the request of any party, appoint all 3 arbitrators and designate any one of the arbitrators as the presiding arbitrator if — ( a ) the claimant or claimants fail to appoint an arbitrator, or fail to inform the respondent or respondents of such appointment, by the date specified in subsection (1)( a ); or ( b ) the respondent or respondents fail to appoint an arbitrator, or fail to inform the claimant or claimants of such appointment, within the time specified in subsection (1)( b ). [32/2020] (3) In making the appointments under subsection (2), the appointing authority may, having regard to all relevant circumstances, re‑appoint or revoke the appointment of an arbitrator appointed under subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ). [32/2020] (4) Despite subsection (1)( c ), the appointing authority must, upon the request of any party and having regard to all relevant circumstances, appoint the third arbitrator if the 2 arbitrators appointed by the parties fail to agree on the appointment of the third arbitrator within the time specified in subsection (1)( c ). [32/2020]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 10
title: Appeal on ruling of jurisdiction
content:
10. —(1) This section has effect despite Article 16(3) of the Model Law. [12/2012] (2) An arbitral tribunal may rule on a plea that it has no jurisdiction at any stage of the arbitral proceedings. [12/2012] (3) If the arbitral tribunal rules — ( a ) on a plea as a preliminary question that it has jurisdiction; or ( b ) on a plea at any stage of the arbitral proceedings that it has no jurisdiction, any party may, within 30 days after having received notice of that ruling, apply to the General Division of the High Court to decide the matter. [12/2012; 40/2019] (4) An appeal from the decision of the General Division of the High Court made under Article 16(3) of the Model Law or this section may be brought only with the permission of the appellate court. [12/2012; 40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (5) There is no appeal against a refusal for grant of permission of the appellate court. [12/2012; 40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (6) Where the General Division of the High Court, or the appellate court on appeal, decides that the arbitral tribunal has jurisdiction — ( a ) the arbitral tribunal must continue the arbitral proceedings and make an award; and ( b ) where any arbitrator is unable or unwilling to continue the arbitral proceedings, the mandate of that arbitrator terminates and a substitute arbitrator must be appointed in accordance with Article 15 of the Model Law. [12/2012; 40/2019] (7) In making a ruling or decision under this section that the arbitral tribunal has no jurisdiction, the arbitral tribunal, the General Division of the High Court or the appellate court (as the case may be) may make an award or order of costs of the proceedings, including the arbitral proceedings (as the case may be), against any party. [12/2012; 40/2019] (8) Where an award of costs is made by the arbitral tribunal under subsection (7), section 21 applies with the necessary modifications. [12/2012] (9) Where an application is made pursuant to Article 16(3) of the Model Law or this section — ( a ) such application does not operate as a stay of the arbitral proceedings or of enforcement of any award or order made in the arbitral proceedings unless the General Division of the High Court orders otherwise; and ( b ) no intermediate act or proceeding is invalidated except so far as the General Division of the High Court may direct. [12/2012; 40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (10) Where there is an appeal from the decision of the General Division of the High Court pursuant to subsection (4) — ( a ) such appeal does not operate as a stay of the arbitral proceedings or of enforcement of any award or order made in the arbitral proceedings unless the General Division of the High Court or the appellate court orders otherwise; and ( b ) no intermediate act or proceeding is invalidated except so far as the appellate court may direct. [12/2012; 40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (11) In this section, “appellate court” means the court to which an appeal under Article 16(3) of the Model Law or this section is to be made under section 29C of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1969. [40/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 11
title: Public policy and arbitrability
content:
11. —(1) Any dispute which the parties have agreed to submit to arbitration under an arbitration agreement may be determined by arbitration unless it is contrary to public policy to do so. (2) The fact that any written law confers jurisdiction in respect of any matter on any court of law but does not refer to the determination of that matter by arbitration does not, of itself, indicate that a dispute about that matter is not capable of determination by arbitration.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s11A
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 11A
title: Reference of interpleader issue to arbitration
content:
11A. Where in proceedings before any court relief by way of interpleader is granted and any issue between the claimants is one in respect of which there is an arbitration agreement between them, the court granting the relief may direct the issue between the claimants to be determined in accordance with the agreement.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 12
title: Powers of arbitral tribunal
content:
12. —(1) Without prejudice to the powers set out in any other provision of this Act and in the Model Law, an arbitral tribunal has powers to make orders or give directions to any party for — ( a ) security for costs; ( b ) discovery of documents and discovery of facts; [Act 31 of 2022 wef 01/11/2022] ( c ) giving of evidence by affidavit; ( d ) the preservation, interim custody or sale of any property which is or forms part of the subject matter of the dispute; ( e ) samples to be taken from, or any observation to be made of or experiment conducted upon, any property which is or forms part of the subject matter of the dispute; ( f ) the preservation and interim custody of any evidence for the purposes of the proceedings; ( g ) securing the amount in dispute; ( h ) ensuring that any award which may be made in the arbitral proceedings is not rendered ineffectual by the dissipation of assets by a party; ( i ) an interim injunction or any other interim measure; and ( j ) enforcing any obligation of confidentiality — (i) that the parties to an arbitration agreement have agreed to in writing, whether in the arbitration agreement or in any other document; (ii) under any written law or rule of law; or (iii) under the rules of arbitration (including the rules of arbitration of an institution or organisation) agreed to or adopted by the parties. [32/2020] (2) Unless the parties to an arbitration agreement have (whether in the arbitration agreement or in any other document in writing) agreed to the contrary, an arbitral tribunal has power to administer oaths to or take affirmations of the parties and witnesses. (3) Unless the parties to an arbitration agreement have (whether in the arbitration agreement or in any other document in writing) agreed to the contrary, an arbitral tribunal has power to adopt, if the arbitral tribunal thinks fit, inquisitorial processes. (4) The power of the arbitral tribunal to order a claimant to provide security for costs as mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) must not be exercised by reason only that the claimant is — ( a ) an individual ordinarily resident outside Singapore; or ( b ) a corporation or an association incorporated or formed under the law of a country outside Singapore, or whose central management and control is exercised outside Singapore. (5) Without prejudice to the application of Article 28 of the Model Law, an arbitral tribunal, in deciding the dispute that is the subject of the arbitral proceedings — ( a ) may award any remedy or relief that could have been ordered by the General Division of the High Court if the dispute had been the subject of civil proceedings in the General Division of the High Court; ( b ) may award simple or compound interest on the whole or any part of any sum in accordance with section 20(1). [12/2012; 40/2019] (6) All orders or directions made or given by an arbitral tribunal in the course of an arbitration are, by permission of the General Division of the High Court, enforceable in the same manner as if they were orders made by a court and, where permission is so given, judgment may be entered in terms of the order or direction. [40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s12A
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 12A
title: Court-ordered interim measures
content:
12A. —(1) This section is to apply in relation to an arbitration — ( a ) to which this Part applies; and ( b ) irrespective of whether the place of arbitration is in the territory of Singapore. [26/2009] (2) Subject to subsections (3) to (6), for the purpose of and in relation to an arbitration referred to in subsection (1), the General Division of the High Court has the same power of making an order in respect of any of the matters set out in section 12(1)( c ) to ( j ) as it has for the purpose of and in relation to an action or a matter in the court. [26/2009; 40/2019; 32/2020] (3) The General Division of the High Court may refuse to make an order under subsection (2) if, in the opinion of the General Division of the High Court, the fact that the place of arbitration is outside Singapore or likely to be outside Singapore when it is designated or determined makes it inappropriate to make the order. [26/2009; 40/2019] (4) If the case is one of urgency, the General Division of the High Court may, on the application of a party or proposed party to the arbitral proceedings, make such orders under subsection (2) as the General Division of the High Court thinks necessary for the purpose of preserving evidence or assets. [26/2009; 40/2019] (5) If the case is not one of urgency, the General Division of the High Court is to make an order under subsection (2) only on the application of a party to the arbitral proceedings (upon notice to the other parties and to the arbitral tribunal) made with the permission of the arbitral tribunal or the agreement in writing of the other parties. [26/2009; 40/2019] (6) In every case, the General Division of the High Court is to make an order under subsection (2) only if or to the extent that the arbitral tribunal, and any arbitral or other institution or person vested by the parties with power in that regard, has no power or is unable for the time being to act effectively. [26/2009; 40/2019] (7) An order made by the General Division of the High Court under subsection (2) ceases to have effect in whole or in part (as the case may be) if the arbitral tribunal, or any such arbitral or other institution or person having power to act in relation to the subject matter of the order, makes an order which expressly relates to the whole or part of the order under subsection (2). [26/2009; 40/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 13
title: Order to attend and order to produce documents
content:
13. —(1) Any party to an arbitration agreement may request for the issue of an order to attend or an order to produce documents. [42/2005] [Act 31 of 2022 wef 01/11/2022] (2) If a witness is in Singapore, the General Division of the High Court may order that — ( a ) an order to attend be issued to compel the witness to attend before an arbitral tribunal and give evidence; or ( b ) an order to produce documents be issued to compel the witness to attend before an arbitral tribunal and produce specified documents. [Act 31 of 2022 wef 01/11/2022] (3) The General Division of the High Court may also issue an order under section 38 of the Prisons Act 1933 to bring up a prisoner for examination before an arbitral tribunal. [12/2012; 40/2019] (4) A person must not be compelled under an order mentioned in subsection (1) or (2)( a ) or ( b ) to produce any document which the person could not be compelled to produce on the trial of an action. [42/2005] [Act 31 of 2022 wef 01/11/2022] [Act 31 of 2022 wef 01/11/2022] 14. [ Repealed by Act 12 of 2012 ]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 15
title: Law of arbitration other than Model Law
content:
15. —(1) If the parties to an arbitration agreement (whether made before or after 1 November 2001) have expressly agreed either — ( a ) that the Model Law or this Part is not to apply to the arbitration; or ( b ) that the Arbitration Act 2001 or the repealed Arbitration Act (Cap. 10, 1985 Revised Edition) is to apply to the arbitration, then, both the Model Law and this Part do not apply to that arbitration but the Arbitration Act 2001 or the repealed Arbitration Act (Cap. 10, 1985 Revised Edition) (if applicable) applies to that arbitration. (2) To avoid doubt, a provision in an arbitration agreement referring to or adopting any rules of arbitration is not of itself sufficient to exclude the application of the Model Law or this Part to the arbitration concerned. [28/2002]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s15A
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 15A
title: Application of rules of arbitration
content:
15A. —(1) To avoid doubt, it is declared that a provision of rules of arbitration agreed to or adopted by the parties, whether before or after the commencement of the arbitration, applies and is given effect to the extent that the provision is not inconsistent with a provision of the Model Law or this Part from which the parties cannot derogate. [28/2002] (2) Without prejudice to subsection (1), subsections (3) to (6) apply for the purposes of determining whether a provision of rules of arbitration is inconsistent with the Model Law or this Part. [28/2002] (3) A provision of rules of arbitration is not inconsistent with the Model Law or this Part merely because it provides for a matter on which the Model Law and this Part is silent. [28/2002] (4) Rules of arbitration are not inconsistent with the Model Law or this Part merely because the rules are silent on a matter covered by any provision of the Model Law or this Part. [28/2002] (5) A provision of rules of arbitration is not inconsistent with the Model Law or this Part merely because it provides for a matter which is covered by a provision of the Model Law or this Part which allows the parties to make their own arrangements by agreement but which applies in the absence of such agreement. [28/2002] (6) The parties may make the arrangements referred to in subsection (5) by agreeing to the application or adoption of rules of arbitration or by providing any other means by which a matter may be decided. [28/2002] (7) In this section and section 15, “rules of arbitration” means the rules of arbitration agreed to or adopted by the parties including the rules of arbitration of an institution or organisation. [28/2002]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 16
title: Appointment of conciliator
content:
16. —(1) Where an agreement provides for the appointment of a conciliator by a person who is not one of the parties and that person refuses to make the appointment or does not make it within the time specified in the agreement or, if no time is so specified, within a reasonable time of being requested by any party to the agreement to make the appointment, the president of the Court of Arbitration of the Singapore International Arbitration Centre may, on the application of any party to the agreement, appoint a conciliator who is to have the like powers to act in the conciliation proceedings as if he or she had been appointed in accordance with the terms of the agreement. [16/2016] (2) The Chief Justice may, if he or she thinks fit, appoint any other person to exercise the powers of the president of the Court of Arbitration of the Singapore International Arbitration Centre under subsection (1). [16/2016] [Act 5 of 2025 wef 09/03/2025] (2A) An appointment under subsection (2) must be published in the Gazette . [Act 5 of 2025 wef 09/03/2025] (3) Where an arbitration agreement provides for the appointment of a conciliator and further provides that the person so appointed is to act as an arbitrator in the event of the conciliation proceedings failing to produce a settlement acceptable to the parties — ( a ) no objection is to be taken to the appointment of that person as an arbitrator, or to that person’s conduct of the arbitral proceedings, solely on the ground that that person had acted previously as a conciliator in connection with some or all of the matters referred to arbitration; and ( b ) if that person declines to act as an arbitrator, any other person appointed as an arbitrator is not required first to act as a conciliator unless a contrary intention appears in the arbitration agreement. (4) Unless a contrary intention appears therein, an agreement which provides for the appointment of a conciliator is deemed to contain a provision that in the event of the conciliation proceedings failing to produce a settlement acceptable to the parties within 4 months, or any longer period that the parties may agree to, of the date of the appointment of the conciliator or, where the conciliator is appointed by name in the agreement, of the date of receipt by the conciliator of written notification of the existence of a dispute, the conciliation proceedings are to thereupon terminate. (5) For the purposes of this section and section 17 — ( a ) any reference to “conciliator” includes a reference to any person who acts as a mediator; ( b ) any reference to “conciliation proceedings” includes a reference to mediation proceedings.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 17
title: Power of arbitrator to act as conciliator
content:
17. —(1) If all parties to any arbitral proceedings consent in writing and for so long as no party has withdrawn the party’s written consent, an arbitrator or umpire may act as a conciliator. (2) An arbitrator or umpire acting as conciliator — ( a ) may communicate with the parties to the arbitral proceedings collectively or separately; and ( b ) must treat information obtained by him or her from a party to the arbitral proceedings as confidential, unless that party otherwise agrees or unless subsection (3) applies. (3) Where confidential information is obtained by an arbitrator or umpire from a party to the arbitral proceedings during conciliation proceedings and those proceedings terminate without the parties reaching agreement in settlement of their dispute, the arbitrator or umpire must before resuming the arbitral proceedings disclose to all other parties to the arbitral proceedings as much of that information as he or she considers material to the arbitral proceedings. (4) No objection is to be taken to the conduct of arbitral proceedings by a person solely on the ground that that person had acted previously as a conciliator in accordance with this section.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 18
title: Award by consent
content:
18. If the parties to an arbitration agreement reach agreement in settlement of their dispute and the arbitral tribunal has recorded the terms of settlement in the form of an arbitral award on agreed terms in accordance with Article 30 of the Model Law, the award — ( a ) is to be treated as an award on an arbitration agreement; and ( b ) may, by permission of the General Division of the High Court, be enforced in the same manner as a judgment or an order to the same effect, and where permission is so given, judgment may be entered in terms of the award. [40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 19
title: Enforcement of awards
content:
19. An award on an arbitration agreement may, by permission of the General Division of the High Court, be enforced in the same manner as a judgment or an order to the same effect and, where permission is so given, judgment may be entered in terms of the award. [40/2019] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s19A
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 19A
title: Awards made on different issues
content:
19A. —(1) Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the arbitral tribunal may make more than one award at different points in time during the arbitral proceedings on different aspects of the matters to be determined. [12/2012] (2) The arbitral tribunal may, in particular, make an award relating to — ( a ) an issue affecting the whole claim; or ( b ) a part only of the claim, counterclaim or cross‑claim, which is submitted to it for decision. (3) If the arbitral tribunal makes an award under this section, it must specify in its award, the issue, or claim or part of a claim, which is the subject matter of the award.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s19B
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 19B
title: Effect of award
content:
19B. —(1) An award made by the arbitral tribunal pursuant to an arbitration agreement is final and binding on the parties and on any persons claiming through or under them and may be relied upon by any of the parties by way of defence, set‑off or otherwise in any proceedings in any court of competent jurisdiction. (2) Except as provided in Articles 33 and 34(4) of the Model Law, upon an award being made, including an award made in accordance with section 19A, the arbitral tribunal must not vary, amend, correct, review, add to or revoke the award. (3) For the purposes of subsection (2), an award is made when it has been signed and delivered in accordance with Article 31 of the Model Law. (4) This section does not affect the right of a person to challenge the award by any available arbitral process of appeal or review or in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the Model Law.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s19C
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 19C
title: Authentication of awards and arbitration agreements
content:
19C. —(1) For the purposes of the enforcement of an award in any Convention country, the Minister may by order appoint such persons holding office in such arbitral institution or other organisation as the Minister may specify in the order, to authenticate any award or arbitration agreement or to certify copies thereof. [26/2009] (2) Any person appointed under subsection (1) — ( a ) must comply with any condition imposed by the Minister; and ( b ) must not, without the written consent of the parties, directly or indirectly disclose any matter, including the identity of any party to the award or arbitration agreement, to any third party. [26/2009] (3) An award or arbitration agreement or a copy thereof duly authenticated or certified by a person appointed under subsection (1) is deemed to have been authenticated or certified by a competent authority in Singapore for the purposes of enforcement in any Convention country. [26/2009] (4) To avoid doubt, nothing in this section — ( a ) prevents any person from authenticating any award or arbitration agreement or certifying copies thereof in any other manner or method or by any other person, institution or organisation; or ( b ) affects the right of a person to challenge or appeal against any award by any available arbitral process of appeal or review, or in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the Model Law. [26/2009] (5) In this section, “Convention country” has the meaning given by section 27(1). [26/2009]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 20
title: Interest on awards
content:
20. —(1) Subject to subsection (3), unless otherwise agreed by the parties, an arbitral tribunal may, in the arbitral proceedings before it, award simple or compound interest from such date, at such rate and with such rest as the arbitral tribunal considers appropriate, for any period ending not later than the date of payment on the whole or any part of — ( a ) any sum which is awarded by the arbitral tribunal in the arbitral proceedings; ( b ) any sum which is in issue in the arbitral proceedings but is paid before the date of the award; or ( c ) costs awarded or ordered by the arbitral tribunal in the arbitral proceedings. [12/2012] (2) Nothing in subsection (1) affects any other power of an arbitral tribunal to award interest. [12/2012] (3) Where an award directs a sum to be paid, that sum, unless the award otherwise directs, carries interest as from the date of the award and at the same rate as a judgment debt. [12/2012]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 21
title: Assessment of costs
content:
21. —(1) Any costs directed by an award to be paid are, unless the award otherwise directs, assessable by the Registrar of the Singapore International Arbitration Centre (called in this section the Registrar). [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (2) Unless the fees of the arbitral tribunal have been fixed by a written agreement or such agreement has provided for determination of the fees by a person or an institution agreed to by the parties, any party to the arbitration may require that the fees be assessed by the Registrar. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (3) A certificate signed by the Registrar on the amount of costs or fees assessed forms part of the award of the arbitral tribunal. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (4) The Chief Justice may, if he or she thinks fit, appoint any other person to exercise the powers of the Registrar under this section. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] [Act 5 of 2025 wef 09/03/2025] (5) An appointment under subsection (4) must be published in the Gazette . [Act 5 of 2025 wef 09/03/2025]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 22
title: Proceedings to be heard in private
content:
22. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), proceedings under this Act in any court are to be heard in private. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (2) Proceedings under this Act in any court are to be heard in open court if the court, on its own motion or upon the application of any person (including a person who is not a party to the proceedings), so orders. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 23
title: Restrictions on reporting of proceedings heard in private
content:
23. —(1) This section applies to proceedings under this Act in any court heard in private. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (2) A court hearing any proceedings to which this section applies is, on the application of any party to the proceedings, to give directions as to whether any and, if so, what information relating to the proceedings may be published. (3) A court is not to give a direction under subsection (2) permitting information to be published unless — ( a ) all parties to the proceedings agree that the information may be published; or ( b ) the court is satisfied that the information, if published in accordance with such directions as it may give, would not reveal any matter, including the identity of any party to the proceedings, that any party to the proceedings reasonably wishes to remain confidential. (4) Despite subsection (3), where a court gives grounds of decision for a judgment in respect of proceedings to which this section applies and considers that judgment to be of major legal interest, the court is to direct that reports of the judgment may be published in law reports and professional publications but, if any party to the proceedings reasonably wishes to conceal any matter, including the fact that the party was such a party, the court is to — ( a ) give directions as to the action that is to be taken to conceal that matter in those reports; and ( b ) if it considers that a report published in accordance with directions given under paragraph ( a ) would be likely to reveal that matter, direct that no report may be published until after the end of any period, not exceeding 10 years, that it considers appropriate. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 24
title: Court may set aside award
content:
24. Despite Article 34(1) of the Model Law, the General Division of the High Court may, in addition to the grounds set out in Article 34(2) of the Model Law, set aside the award of the arbitral tribunal if — ( a ) the making of the award was induced or affected by fraud or corruption; or ( b ) a breach of the rules of natural justice occurred in connection with the making of the award by which the rights of any party have been prejudiced. [40/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s25
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 25
title: Liability of arbitrator
content:
25. An arbitrator shall not be liable for — ( a ) negligence in respect of anything done or omitted to be done in the capacity of arbitrator; and ( b ) any mistake in law, fact or procedure made in the course of arbitral proceedings or in the making of an arbitral award.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s25A
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 25A
title: Immunity of appointing authority and arbitral institutions, etc.
content:
25A. —(1) The appointing authority, or an arbitral or other institution or person designated or requested by the parties to appoint or nominate an arbitrator, shall not be liable for anything done or omitted in the discharge or purported discharge of that function unless the act or omission is shown to have been in bad faith. (2) The appointing authority, or an arbitral or other institution or person by whom an arbitrator is appointed or nominated, shall not be liable, by reason only of having appointed or nominated the arbitrator, for anything done or omitted by the arbitrator, the arbitrator’s employees or agents in the discharge or purported discharge of the arbitrator’s functions as arbitrator. (3) This section applies to an employee or agent of the appointing authority or of an arbitral or other institution or person as it applies to the appointing authority, institution or person.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s26
chapter: PART 2 - INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL ARBITRATION
section: 26
title: Transitional provisions
content:
26. —(1) This Part does not apply in relation to an international arbitration between parties to an arbitration agreement that was commenced before 27 January 1995 unless the parties have (whether in the agreement or in any other document in writing) otherwise agreed. (2) Subject to subsection (1), where the arbitral proceedings were commenced before 27 January 1995, the law governing the arbitration agreement and the arbitration is the law which would have applied if this Act had not been enacted. (3) In any written law, agreement in writing or other document, a reference to arbitration under the Arbitration Act is, so far as relevant and unless the contrary intention appears, to be construed to include a reference to arbitration under this Act. (4) For the purposes of this section, arbitral proceedings are to be taken as having commenced on the date of the receipt by the respondent of a request for the dispute to be referred to arbitration, or, where the parties have agreed in writing that any other date is to be taken as the date of commencement of the arbitral proceedings, then on that date.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s26A
chapter: PART 2A - ARBITRATIONS RELATING TO
section: 26A
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
26A. —(1) In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires, “intellectual property right” or “IPR” means — ( a ) a patent; ( b ) a trade mark; ( c ) a geographical indication; ( d ) a registered design; ( e ) a copyright; ( f ) a right in a protected layout-design of an integrated circuit; ( g ) a grant of protection in respect of a plant variety; ( h ) a right in confidential information, trade secret or know‑how; ( i ) a right to protect goodwill by way of passing off or similar action against unfair competition; or ( j ) any other intellectual property right of whatever nature. [23/2019] (2) In this Part, a reference to an IPR is a reference to such an IPR whether or not the IPR is registered, or subsists, in Singapore. [23/2019] (3) In this Part, a reference to an IPR includes an application for the registration of an IPR if the IPR is protectable by registration. [23/2019] (4) In this Part, “IPR dispute” includes — ( a ) a dispute over the enforceability, infringement, subsistence, validity, ownership, scope, duration or any other aspect of an IPR; ( b ) a dispute over a transaction in respect of an IPR; and ( c ) a dispute over any compensation payable for an IPR. [23/2019] (5) In this section, “registration”, in relation to an IPR, includes the grant of the IPR. [23/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s26B
chapter: PART 2A - ARBITRATIONS RELATING TO
section: 26B
title: IPR disputes may be arbitrated
content:
26B. —(1) The subject matter of an IPR dispute is capable of settlement by arbitration as between the parties to the IPR dispute. [23/2019] (2) Subsection (1) applies whether the IPR dispute is the main issue or an incidental issue in the arbitration. [23/2019] (3) An IPR dispute is not incapable of settlement by arbitration only because a law of Singapore or elsewhere — ( a ) gives jurisdiction to decide the IPR dispute to a specified entity; and ( b ) does not mention possible settlement of the IPR dispute by arbitration. [23/2019] (4) In subsection (3), “specified entity” means any of the following entities under the law of Singapore or elsewhere: ( a ) a court; ( b ) a tribunal; ( c ) a person holding an administrative or executive office; ( d ) any other entity. [23/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s26C
chapter: PART 2A - ARBITRATIONS RELATING TO
section: 26C
title: Effect of award involving IPR
content:
26C. —(1) This section applies if an award deciding an IPR dispute is made in arbitral proceedings. [23/2019] (2) The fact that a person is a third-party licensee or third‑party holder of a security interest in respect of the IPR does not of itself make the person a person claiming through or under a party to the arbitral proceedings for the purposes of section 19B(1). [23/2019] (3) However, subsection (2) does not affect any right or liability between a third‑party licensee or third‑party holder of a security interest and a party to the arbitral proceedings whether — ( a ) arising in contract; or ( b ) arising by operation of law. [23/2019] (4) In this section — “third-party holder of a security interest”, in relation to an IPR in dispute in arbitral proceedings, means a person who — ( a ) is a holder of a security interest in respect of the IPR granted by a party to the arbitral proceedings; but ( b ) is not a party to the arbitral proceedings; “third-party licensee”, in relation to an IPR in dispute in arbitral proceedings, means a person who — ( a ) is a licensee (whether or not an exclusive licensee) of the IPR under a licence granted by a party to the arbitral proceedings; but ( b ) is not a party to the arbitral proceedings. [23/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s26D
chapter: PART 2A - ARBITRATIONS RELATING TO
section: 26D
title: Recourse against award involving IPR
content:
26D. —(1) For the purposes of Article 34(2)( b )(i) of the Model Law, the subject matter of a dispute is not incapable of settlement by arbitration under the law of Singapore only because the subject matter relates to an IPR dispute. [23/2019] (2) For the purposes of Article 34(2)( b )(ii) of the Model Law, an award is not in conflict with the public policy of Singapore only because the subject matter in respect of which the award is made relates to an IPR dispute. [23/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s26E
chapter: PART 2A - ARBITRATIONS RELATING TO
section: 26E
title: Recognition and enforcement of award involving IPR
content:
26E. —(1) For the purposes of section 31(4)( a ), the subject matter of the difference between the parties to a foreign award is not incapable of settlement by arbitration under the law of Singapore only because the subject matter relates to an IPR dispute. [23/2019] (2) For the purposes of section 31(4)( b ), it is not contrary to the public policy of Singapore to enforce an award only because the award is in respect of a subject matter that relates to an IPR dispute. [23/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s26F
chapter: PART 2A - ARBITRATIONS RELATING TO
section: 26F
title: Judgments entered in terms of award involving IPR
content:
26F. —(1) This section applies if — ( a ) an award (whether made in or outside Singapore) deciding an IPR dispute is made in arbitral proceedings; and ( b ) a judgment in terms of the award is entered under section 19 or 29. [23/2019] (2) Sections 19B(1) and 29(2) apply in relation to the judgment as if — ( a ) the reference in section 19B(1) to an award made by an arbitral tribunal pursuant to an arbitration agreement were a reference to the judgment; and ( b ) the reference in section 29(2) to a foreign award were a reference to the judgment. [23/2019] (3) In this section, “award” includes a declaratory award. [23/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s26G
chapter: PART 2A - ARBITRATIONS RELATING TO
section: 26G
title: Validity of patent may be put in issue in arbitral proceedings
content:
26G. Section 82(2) of the Patents Act 1994 does not prevent a party from putting the validity of a patent in issue in arbitral proceedings. [23/2019]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s27
chapter: PART 3 - FOREIGN AWARDS
section: 27
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
27. —(1) In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires — “agreement in writing” includes an agreement contained in an exchange of letters, telegrams, telefacsimile or in a communication by teleprinter; “arbitral award” has the meaning given by the Convention, but also includes an order or a direction made or given by an arbitral tribunal in the course of an arbitration in respect of any of the matters set out in section 12(1)( c ) to ( j ); “arbitration agreement” means an agreement in writing of the kind referred to in paragraph 1 of Article II of the Convention; “Convention” means the Convention on the Recognition and Enforcement of Foreign Arbitral Awards adopted in 1958 by the United Nations Conference on International Commercial Arbitration at its twenty‑fourth meeting, the English text of which is set out in the Second Schedule; “Convention country” means a country (other than Singapore) that is a Contracting State within the meaning of the Convention; “court” means the General Division of the High Court in Singapore; “foreign award” means an arbitral award made pursuant to an arbitration agreement in the territory of a Convention country other than Singapore. [12/2012; 40/2019; 32/2020] (2) In this Part, where the context so admits, “enforcement”, in relation to a foreign award, includes the recognition of the award as binding for any purpose, and “enforce” and “enforced” have corresponding meanings. (3) For the purposes of this Part, a body corporate is taken to be habitually resident in a country if it is incorporated or has its principal place of business in that country.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s28
chapter: PART 3 - FOREIGN AWARDS
section: 28
title: Application of this Part
content:
28. —(1) This Part applies to arbitration agreements made before 27 January 1995 as it applies to arbitration agreements made on or after that date. (2) This Part does not apply to foreign awards made before 19 November 1986.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s29
chapter: PART 3 - FOREIGN AWARDS
section: 29
title: Recognition and enforcement of foreign awards
content:
29. —(1) Subject to this Part, a foreign award may be enforced in a court either by action or in the same manner as an award of an arbitrator made in Singapore is enforceable under section 19. (2) Any foreign award which is enforceable under subsection (1) must be recognised as binding for all purposes upon the persons between whom it was made and may accordingly be relied upon by any of those parties by way of defence, set‑off or otherwise in any legal proceedings in Singapore.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s30
chapter: PART 3 - FOREIGN AWARDS
section: 30
title: Evidence
content:
30. —(1) In any proceedings in which a person seeks to enforce a foreign award by virtue of this Part, the person must produce to the court — ( a ) the duly authenticated original award or a duly certified copy thereof; ( b ) the original arbitration agreement under which the award purports to have been made, or a duly certified copy thereof; and ( c ) where the award or agreement is in a foreign language, a translation of it in the English language, duly certified in English as a correct translation by a sworn translator or by an official or by a diplomatic or consular agent of the country in which the award was made. (2) A document produced to a court in accordance with this section is, upon mere production, to be received by the court as prima facie evidence of the matters to which it relates.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s31
chapter: PART 3 - FOREIGN AWARDS
section: 31
title: Refusal of enforcement
content:
31. —(1) In any proceedings in which the enforcement of a foreign award is sought by virtue of this Part, the party against whom the enforcement is sought may request that the enforcement be refused, and the enforcement in any of the cases mentioned in subsections (2) and (4) may be refused but not otherwise. (2) A court so requested may refuse enforcement of a foreign award if the person against whom enforcement is sought proves to the satisfaction of the court that — ( a ) a party to the arbitration agreement pursuant to which the award was made was, under the law applicable to the party, under some incapacity at the time when the agreement was made; ( b ) the arbitration agreement is not valid under the law to which the parties have subjected it or, in the absence of any indication in that respect, under the law of the country where the award was made; ( c ) the party was not given proper notice of the appointment of the arbitrator or of the arbitration proceedings or was otherwise unable to present the party’s case in the arbitration proceedings; ( d ) subject to subsection (3), the award deals with a difference not contemplated by, or not falling within the terms of, the submission to arbitration or contains a decision on the matter beyond the scope of the submission to arbitration; ( e ) the composition of the arbitral authority or the arbitral procedure was not in accordance with the agreement of the parties or, failing such agreement, was not in accordance with the law of the country where the arbitration took place; or ( f ) the award has not yet become binding on the parties to the arbitral award or has been set aside or suspended by a competent authority of the country in which, or under the law of which, the award was made. (3) When a foreign award referred to in subsection (2)( d ) contains decisions on matters not submitted to arbitration but those decisions can be separated from decisions on matters submitted to arbitration, the award may be enforced to the extent that it contains decisions on matters so submitted. (4) In any proceedings in which the enforcement of a foreign award is sought by virtue of this Part, the court may refuse to enforce the award if it finds that — ( a ) the subject matter of the difference between the parties to the award is not capable of settlement by arbitration under the law of Singapore; or ( b ) enforcement of the award would be contrary to the public policy of Singapore. (5) Where, in any proceedings in which the enforcement of a foreign award is sought by virtue of this Part, the court is satisfied that an application for the setting aside or for the suspension of the award has been made to a competent authority of the country in which, or under the law of which, the award was made, the court may — ( a ) if the court considers it proper to do so, adjourn the proceedings or (as the case may be) so much of the proceedings as relates to the award; and ( b ) on the application of the party seeking to enforce the award, order the other party to give suitable security. 32. [ Repealed by Act 26 of 2009 ]


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s33
chapter: PART 3 - FOREIGN AWARDS
section: 33
title: Enforcement of awards under other provisions of law
content:
33. —(1) Nothing in this Part affects the right of any person to enforce an arbitral award otherwise than as is provided for in this Part. (2) [ Deleted by Act 24 of 2019 wef 01/03/2023 ] (3) Despite section 7 of the Reciprocal Enforcement of Foreign Judgments Act 1959, proceedings to enforce a foreign award under this Part may be commenced where the award is both enforceable under this Part and registrable as a judgment under that Act.


document_id: iaa-1994
provision_ref: s35
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL
section: 35
title: Rules of Court
content:
35. The Rules Committee constituted under section 80 of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1969 may make Rules of Court regulating the practice and procedure of any court in respect of any matter under this Act.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. —(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “Convention” means the Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction which was signed at The Hague on 25 October 1980; “Court” means the General Division of the High Court or a Family Court; “Minister” means — ( a ) except as provided in paragraph ( b ), the Minister charged with the responsibility for child welfare and protection; and ( b ) for the purposes of Part 4, the Minister charged with the responsibility for legal aid. [27/2014; 40/2019] (2) Unless the contrary intention appears, words and expressions used in this Act have the same meanings as in the provisions of the Convention set out in the Schedule.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 3
title: Certain provisions of Convention to have force of law
content:
3. Despite any written law or rule of law but subject to the provisions of Parts 1 to 5, the provisions of the Convention as set out in the Schedule have the force of law in Singapore.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 4
title: Contracting States
content:
4. —(1) For the purposes of the Convention, the Contracting States (other than Singapore) are those for the time being specified by the Minister by an order in the Gazette . (2) An order under subsection (1) must specify the date of coming into force of the Convention as between Singapore and any Contracting State specified in the order, and, except where the order otherwise provides, the Convention applies as between Singapore and that Contracting State only in relation to — ( a ) wrongful removals or retentions of children; or ( b ) breaches of access rights to children, occurring on or after that date. (3) Where the Convention applies, or applies only, to a particular territory specified in a declaration made by a Contracting State under Article 39 or 40 of the Convention, references to that Contracting State in subsections (1) and (2) are to be construed as references to that territory.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - CENTRAL AUTHORITY OF SINGAPORE
section: 5
title: Central Authority
content:
5. Subject to the provisions of this Part, the functions of a Central Authority under the provisions of the Convention set out in the Schedule are to be discharged in Singapore by the Minister.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - CENTRAL AUTHORITY OF SINGAPORE
section: 6
title: Applications to Central Authority under Article 8 of Convention
content:
6. —(1) A person who claims that, in breach of rights of custody attributed to a person, either jointly or alone, under the law of a Contracting State, a child has been wrongfully removed to or retained in Singapore within the meaning of the Convention may apply to the Central Authority of Singapore for the Central Authority’s assistance in facilitating the voluntary return of the child or an amicable resolution of the dispute relating to the removal or retention of the child. (2) A person who claims that, in breach of rights of custody attributed to a person, either jointly or alone, under the law of Singapore, a child has been wrongfully removed to or retained in a Contracting State within the meaning of the Convention may apply to the Central Authority of Singapore to have the person’s claim sent to the Central Authority of the Contracting State. (3) An application under subsection (1) or (2) must be made in the form and manner, and must contain the information and be accompanied by the documents, that the Central Authority of Singapore specifies. (4) The Central Authority of Singapore may accept an application under subsection (1) or (2) from — ( a ) the person to whom the rights of custody (claimed to have been breached) are attributed under the law of the Contracting State or Singapore, as the case may be; or ( b ) any other person appearing to the Central Authority of Singapore to have sufficient interest in the matter. (5) The Central Authority of Singapore may refuse to accept an application under subsection (1) or (2) if it is not submitted in accordance with this section or section 21 or for any of the reasons specified in Article 27 of the Convention. (6) In this section, “person” includes an institution or other body.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - CENTRAL AUTHORITY OF SINGAPORE
section: 7
title: Applications to Central Authority under Article 21 of Convention
content:
7. —(1) A person who claims that his or her rights of access under the law of a Contracting State to a child in Singapore have been breached within the meaning of the Convention may apply to the Central Authority of Singapore for the Central Authority’s assistance in facilitating an amicable resolution of the dispute relating to the exercise of those rights. (2) A person who claims that his or her rights of access under the law of Singapore to a child in a Contracting State have been breached within the meaning of the Convention may apply to the Central Authority of Singapore to have the person’s claim sent to the Central Authority of the Contracting State. (3) An application under subsection (1) or (2) must be made in the form and manner, and must contain the information and be accompanied by the documents, that the Central Authority of Singapore specifies. (4) The Central Authority of Singapore may refuse to accept an application under subsection (1) or (2) if it is not submitted in accordance with this section or section 21 or for any of the reasons specified in Article 27 of the Convention.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 3 - APPLICATIONS TO COURT
section: 8
title: Application for return of child
content:
8. —(1) A person who claims that, in breach of rights of custody attributed to a person, either jointly or alone, under the law of a Contracting State, a child has been wrongfully removed to or retained in Singapore within the meaning of the Convention may apply to the Court for an order that the child be returned. (2) An application under subsection (1) may be made by — ( a ) the person to whom the rights of custody (claimed to have been breached) are attributed under the law of the Contracting State; or ( b ) any person appearing to the Court to have sufficient interest in the matter. (3) The applicant must notify the Central Authority of Singapore of the application by forwarding a copy of the application to the Central Authority of Singapore as soon as practicable. (4) The Court may, if it determines that the child should be returned to the Contracting State, give permission for the child to be taken out of Singapore either unconditionally or subject to the conditions or undertakings that the Court may think fit. [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (5) In this section, “person” includes an institution or other body.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 3 - APPLICATIONS TO COURT
section: 9
title: Power to allow intervention on terms
content:
9. On the application of any person who is not a party to an application under section 8, the Court may, if satisfied that it is in the interest of the child (in respect of whom the application under section 8 has been made) for that person to be made a party, allow that person to intervene in the proceedings upon the terms that the Court thinks just.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 3 - APPLICATIONS TO COURT
section: 10
title: Interim powers of Court
content:
10. —(1) Where an application has been made to the Court under section 8 for the return of a child, the Court may, at any time before it determines the application, make such interim orders or give such interim directions as it thinks fit for the purpose of securing the welfare of the child or of preventing changes in the circumstances relevant to the determination of the application. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Court may make interim orders or give interim directions for the care and control of or access to the child.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 3 - APPLICATIONS TO COURT
section: 11
title: Power of Court to restrain taking of child out of Singapore
content:
11. —(1) Without limiting section 10, where an application under section 8 for the return of a child is pending or has been dismissed by the Court, the Court may issue an injunction restraining any person from taking the child out of Singapore. (2) An application for an order under subsection (1) may be made by any person appearing to the Court to have sufficient interest in the matter.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - APPLICATIONS TO COURT
section: 12
title: Advice of welfare officers, etc.
content:
12. The Court may receive advice from any person, whether or not a public officer, who is trained or experienced in matters relevant to the Court’s determination of an application under section 8, but is not bound to follow any such advice.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - APPLICATIONS TO COURT
section: 13
title: Stay of decision in respect of custody, care and control and access
content:
13. —(1) When an application has been made to the Court under section 8 for the return of a child, no decision may be made by any court in respect of the custody of, care and control of or access to the child in any proceedings until the Court has determined the application. (2) The reference to deciding on the merits in respect of the custody of, care and control of or access to a child in subsection (1) is a reference to making, varying, revoking or enforcing a custody order, a care and control order or an access order (as the case may be) in respect of the child. (3) Subsection (1) does not affect or limit the Court’s power to make interim orders or give interim directions under section 10. (4) In this section, “court” includes the Syariah Court and the Appeal Board constituted under the Administration of Muslim Law Act 1966.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 3 - APPLICATIONS TO COURT
section: 14
title: Declarations by Court
content:
14. —(1) The Court may, on an application made for the purpose of Article 15 of the Convention by any person appearing to the Court to have sufficient interest in the matter, make a declaration that the removal of a child from Singapore, or the retention of the child outside Singapore, was wrongful within the meaning of the Convention. (2) To avoid doubt, section 35A of the Administration of Muslim Law Act 1966 and section 17A(3) of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1969 do not apply to an application under subsection (1).


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 4 - LEGAL AID AND ADVICE
section: 15
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
15. In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires — “authorised solicitor” means a solicitor on any panel established under section 4 of the Legal Aid and Advice Act 1995 who has been assigned by the Director to provide legal representation or legal advice to a person under this Part; “Director” means the Director of Legal Aid appointed under section 3 of the Legal Aid and Advice Act 1995 and includes a Deputy Director and an Assistant Director of Legal Aid appointed under section 3 of that Act.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 4 - LEGAL AID AND ADVICE
section: 17
title: Legal aid
content:
17. Subject to the provisions of this Part, the Director may grant legal aid in connection with any proceedings under section 8 or 14 to any person — ( a ) who is a citizen of, or habitually resident in, Singapore or a Contracting State; and ( b ) who is or will be — (i) a party to the proceedings under section 8; or (ii) the applicant in the proceedings under section 14.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 4 - LEGAL AID AND ADVICE
section: 18
title: Legal advice
content:
18. Subject to the provisions of this Part, on the application of any person who is a citizen of, or habitually resident in, Singapore or a Contracting State — ( a ) the Director or an authorised solicitor may provide oral advice to the person on the law of Singapore in connection with the Convention; or ( b ) the Director may provide the person assistance with the preparation of an application by the person for legal aid under this Part.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 4 - LEGAL AID AND ADVICE
section: 19
title:
Application of Legal Aid and Advice Act 1995 and Legal Aid and Advice Regulations to legal aid and advice under this Part

content:
19. Except where expressly provided in this Part, the provisions of the Legal Aid and Advice Act 1995 and the Legal Aid and Advice Regulations apply (so far as relevant) in relation to the provision of legal aid and legal advice under this Part as they apply to the provision of legal aid and legal advice under the Legal Aid and Advice Act 1995, with such exceptions, modifications and adaptations as the Minister may prescribe.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 4 - LEGAL AID AND ADVICE
section: 20
title: Regulations
content:
20. The Minister may make regulations for the purposes of carrying out the provisions of this Part or for the prescribing of anything which may be prescribed or is required to be prescribed under this Part.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 5 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 21
title: Language and translation
content:
21. For the purposes of Article 24 of the Convention, any application, communication or other document sent to the Central Authority of Singapore must, if it is in a language other than English, be accompanied by an English translation of the application, communication or other document.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 5 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 22
title: Proof of documents and evidence
content:
22. —(1) For the purposes of Article 14 of the Convention, a decision of a judicial or administrative authority outside Singapore may be proved by a duly authenticated copy of the decision, and any document purporting to be such a copy is deemed to be a true copy unless the contrary is shown. (2) For the purposes of subsection (1), a copy is duly authenticated if it bears the seal, or is certified by a judge or officer, of the authority. (3) For the purposes of Articles 14 and 30 of the Convention, any document specified in Article 8 of the Convention or a certified copy of the document is sufficient evidence of anything stated in it.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 5 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 23
title: Costs
content:
23. No costs mentioned in Article 26 of the Convention are to be borne by the Government, the Central Authority of Singapore or any other public authority in Singapore except insofar as they fall to be so borne by virtue of the grant of legal aid or advice under Part 4.


document_id: icaa-2010
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 5 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 24
title: Regulations
content:
24. The Minister may make regulations for the purposes of carrying out the provisions of this Act (other than those in Parts 3 and 4).


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “Agency” means the National Environment Agency established under the National Environment Agency Act 2002; “appropriate Minister” means — ( a ) in the following cases, the Minister charged with the responsibility for health and sanitary measures in relation to vessels, aircraft, vehicles and persons entering or leaving Singapore: (i) the establishment of any advisory committee under section 5 for the purpose of giving advice to the Director‑General of Public Health or the Director‑General, Food Administration; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (ii) any purpose relating to sections 28, 29 and 33 to 45, including the making of subsidiary legislation in relation to any of those sections; or ( b ) in any other case, the Minister charged with the responsibility for regulation of diseases and disease control; “at-risk individual”, in relation to an infectious disease, means an individual who — ( a ) is or appears to the Director-General of Health or a Health Officer to be — (i) a contact in respect of the infectious disease; or (ii) a carrier of the infectious disease; ( b ) has undergone a medical examination in connection with the infectious disease but has not received a conclusive result of that medical examination; ( c ) enters Singapore (by land, sea or air) from a country or territory outside Singapore during a period when there is an outbreak or suspected outbreak of the infectious disease in that country or territory; or ( d ) is deemed to be infected with a dangerous infectious disease under section 27(1) or (2); [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “baggage” means the personal effects of a traveller or of a crew member of a vessel; “Board” means the Health Promotion Board established under the Health Promotion Board Act 2001; “building” means any house, hut, shed or roofed enclosure, whether intended for the purpose of human habitation or otherwise, and any wall, gate, post, pillar, paling, frame, hoarding, slip, dock, wharf, pier, jetty, landing-stage or bridge; “carrier”, in relation to any infectious disease, means any person who is harbouring or is likely to harbour the agents of that disease; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “contact”, in relation to any infectious disease, means any person who has been exposed to the risk of infection from that disease; “contact tracing measure” means any measure to facilitate the tracing of contacts or other at-risk individuals of an infectious disease; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “crew” includes any person who is on board a vessel not for the sole purpose of travelling from one place to another but who is employed in the vessel’s service or in connection with its cargo; “dangerous infectious disease” means any of the diseases set out in the Second Schedule; [ Deleted by Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023 ] [ Deleted by Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023 ] “Director‑General of Health” means the Director‑General of Health and includes a Deputy Director‑General of Health; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] “Director‑General of Public Health” means the Director‑General of Public Health appointed under section 3(1) of the Environmental Public Health Act 1987; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] “Director-General, Food Administration” means the Director‑General, Food Administration appointed under section 3(1) of the Sale of Food Act 1973; “guardian”, in relation to a minor or an individual who has any intellectual disability or otherwise lacks capacity within the meaning of section 4 of the Mental Capacity Act 2008, means the person responsible for the daily care of the minor or individual; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “Health Officer” means a Health Officer appointed by the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director‑General of Health, under section 4; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [ Deleted by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ] “HIV” means Human Immunodeficiency Virus; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “individually-identifiable”, when used to describe information or samples pertaining to a person, means that the identity of that person can be readily discovered or ascertained from that information or sample; “infected” means infected with the micro‑organism or agent of an infectious disease; “infectious disease” means — ( a ) any of the diseases specified in the First Schedule; and ( b ) for the purposes of sections 7, 8, 9, 10, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 19, 21C, 21E, 21H, 55, 57A and 59A, includes any other disease — (i) that is caused or is suspected to be caused by a micro‑organism or any agent of disease; (ii) that is capable or is suspected to be capable of transmission by any means to human beings; and (iii) that, the Director-General of Health has reason to believe, if left uninvestigated or unchecked, is likely to result in an epidemic of the disease; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “isolation”, in relation to a person or group of persons, means the separation of that person or group of persons from any other persons, other than — ( a ) the health staff in charge of the care and isolation of that person or group of persons; and ( b ) such other persons as the Director‑General of Health or the Director‑General of Public Health (as the case may be) may allow; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] “master”, in relation to a vessel, means the person for the time being in charge or command of the vessel; “medical examination” includes — ( a ) the carrying out by a person (called the examiner) of any of the following measures, with a view to ascertaining another person’s state of health, whether or not the examiner is present with the person being examined: (i) physical examination of the person; (ii) obtaining the person’s bodily samples; (iii) obtaining images of, or measuring, the person’s physiology; (iv) measuring or monitoring the person’s physiological signs; (v) obtaining the clinical history of the person; (vi) a test or a series of tests that is or are capable of ascertaining the presence of an infectious disease; (vii) any measure to facilitate the carrying out of anything in sub-paragraphs (i) to (vi); and ( b ) the carrying out by a person on himself or herself of a test or a series of tests that is or are capable of ascertaining the presence of an infectious disease; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “medical practitioner” means a medical practitioner registered or exempted from registration under the Medical Registration Act 1997; “minor” means a person who is below 16 years of age; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “nurse” means a registered nurse or enrolled nurse within the meaning of the Nurses and Midwives Act 1999; “occupier”, in relation to any premises or vessel, means the person in occupation of the premises or vessel or having the charge or control thereof either on the person’s own account or as an agent of another person; “owner” means — ( a ) in relation to any premises or vessel — the person for the time being receiving the rent of the premises or vessel whether on the person’s own account or as agent, trustee or receiver or who would receive the same if the premises or the vessel were let or chartered; ( b ) in relation to any vehicle that is the subject of a hiring agreement or a hire-purchase agreement — the person in possession of the vehicle under that agreement; or ( c ) in relation to any other vehicle — the registered owner of the vehicle; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “PHE Order” means an order made under section 21E(1) declaring a public health emergency; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “PHT Order” means an order made under section 21C(1) declaring a public health threat; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “port” means any place in Singapore and any navigable river or channel leading into such place declared to be a port under the Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore Act 1996 and includes an airport; “Port Health Officer” means any Health Officer in charge of a port and includes his or her deputies and assistants; “pratique”, in relation to a vessel, means the written permission granted by a Port Health Officer to the vessel to disembark and commence operation; “pre-departure test”, in relation to a person arriving in Singapore on an international voyage, means a test performed on or by the person to determine whether the person is a case or carrier of an infectious disease — ( a ) in the case where the person is entering Singapore in a vehicle by land — before boarding the vehicle; ( b ) in the case where the person is entering Singapore on foot — before arriving in Singapore; or ( c ) in the case where the person is entering Singapore on a vessel by air or sea — before boarding the vessel; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] “premises” means messuages, buildings, lands, easements and hereditaments of any tenure whether open or enclosed, whether public or private and whether maintained or not under statutory authority, and includes any place or structure or any part thereof used or intended to be used for human habitation or for employment or any other purpose; “public place” means any place or premises to which the public or any section of the public has access, on payment or otherwise, as of right or by virtue of express or implied permission, and includes any place or premises used by the public or a section of the public for educational or recreational purposes or for assemblage; “quarantine” means the compulsory detention in isolation for the purpose and under the provisions of this Act of any ships, persons, goods, things, animals or plants; “quarantine anchorage” means any area of the port which has been appointed for the time being for the quarantine of vessels and declared to be a quarantine anchorage by the Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore; “quarantine station” means any island, building or place where quarantine is carried out; “surveillance” means subjecting a person or persons to medical examinations or observations carried out over a period of time (whether or not continuously) and includes carrying out any measures to facilitate those medical examinations or observations; “vessel” means any ship, boat, aircraft or a vessel of any description used in navigation by sea or air. [10/2008; 5/2019; 11/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s2A
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2A
title: Parent or guardian to comply with requirements, etc.
content:
2A. —(1) This section applies if a person who is — ( a ) a minor; or ( b ) an individual who has any intellectual disability or otherwise lacks capacity within the meaning of section 4 of the Mental Capacity Act 2008, is — ( c ) required to comply with any requirement, direction, notice or order made or given in accordance with any provision of this Act; or ( d ) prohibited or restricted from doing anything in accordance with any provision of this Act. (2) Where written notice of any matter set out in subsection (1)( c ) or ( d ) is to be given to the minor or individual, that notice may also be served on — ( a ) in the case of the minor — (i) one of the minor’s parents; or (ii) where the minor is in the care of a guardian who is not the minor’s parent, the minor’s guardian; or ( b ) in the case of the individual — the individual’s guardian. (3) If a parent or guardian of the minor or individual is served with a written notice under subsection (2), the parent or guardian must ensure that the minor or individual complies with the requirement, direction, notice or order or does not contravene the prohibition or restriction, as the case may be. (4) A person who, without reasonable excuse, contravenes subsection (3) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to — ( a ) in a case where the penalty upon conviction of an offence by a person for failing to comply with the requirement, direction, notice or order, or for contravening the prohibition or restriction, is expressly provided — the same penalty; or ( b ) in any other case — the penalty provided in section 65. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - ADMINISTRATION
section: 3
title: Administration of this Act
content:
3. —(1) Except as otherwise provided by this Act, the Director-General of Health is, subject to any general or special directions of the appropriate Minister, responsible for the administration of Parts 3, 4, 6 and 7A and sections 26, 27, 31, 32, 45A and 45B. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) Except as otherwise provided by this Act, the Director‑General of Public Health and the Director‑General, Food Administration are, subject to any general or special directions of the appropriate Minister, responsible for the administration of Part 5, except sections 26, 27, 31, 32, 45A and 45B. [5/2019; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) The appropriate Minister may, by notification in the Gazette , direct that the powers conferred on the Director-General of Health under Part 3 be exercised by the Director‑General of Public Health or the Director‑General, Food Administration in relation to the matters specified in the notifications. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) For the purposes of exercising the powers under Part 3 in relation to matters mentioned in subsection (3), any reference to the Director-General of Health in that Part is a reference to the Director‑General of Public Health or the Director‑General, Food Administration, as the case may be. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) To avoid doubt, Part 5 does not prevent the exercise of any power conferred by another Part in relation to any vessel, person or article to which Part 5 applies. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - ADMINISTRATION
section: 4
title: Health Officers
content:
4. —(1) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health may, subject to such conditions or restrictions as he or she thinks fit, appoint any — ( a ) public officer; ( b ) officer of any statutory body; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( c ) employee of a prescribed entity or institution; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( d ) employee of a prescribed service provider engaged by any Government ministry or statutory body; or [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( e ) auxiliary police officer, [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] to be a Health Officer for the purposes of this Act or any provision of this Act. [10/2008; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (1A) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health may at any time revoke the appointment of a Health Officer appointed under subsection (1), or vary any condition or restriction of the appointment. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health may, subject to such conditions or restrictions as he or she thinks fit, delegate to any Health Officer all or any of the powers conferred on him or her by this Act. [10/2008; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - ADMINISTRATION
section: 5
title: Advisory committees
content:
5. The appropriate Minister may establish one or more advisory committees consisting of such members as he or she may appoint for the purpose of giving advice to the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health (as the case may be) with regard to such matters arising out of the administration of this Act as are referred to them by the appropriate Minister. [5/2019; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 6
title: Notification of prescribed infectious diseases
content:
6. —(1) Every medical practitioner who has reason to believe or suspect that any person attended or treated by the medical practitioner is suffering from a prescribed infectious disease or is a carrier of that disease must notify the Director-General of Health within the prescribed time and in such form or manner as the Director-General of Health may require. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) Every person in charge of a laboratory used for the diagnosis of disease who becomes aware of the existence of a prescribed infectious disease in the course of his or her work must notify the Director-General of Health within the prescribed time and in such form or manner as the Director-General of Health may require. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) A person in a prescribed class, who is aware or suspects that — ( a ) another person is suffering from, or is a carrier of, a prescribed infectious disease; or ( b ) another person has died while suffering from, or being a carrier of, a prescribed infectious disease, must notify the Director-General of Health, within the prescribed time and in such form or manner as the Director-General of Health may require, of the fact in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ), as the case may be. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) Any person who is required to notify the Director-General of Health under this section must give any other particulars required by the Director-General of Health insofar as they can be reasonably ascertained by the person or are within the person’s knowledge. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) Any person who fails to comply with the requirements of this section or provides as true information which the person knows or has reason to believe to be false shall be guilty of an offence. (6) Any person who is charged with failing to comply with the requirements of subsection (1), (2) or (3) in relation to the notification of a prescribed infectious disease is presumed to have known of the existence of the disease unless the person proves to the satisfaction of the court that the person had no such knowledge and could not with reasonable diligence have obtained such knowledge. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 7
title: Public health surveillance programmes, etc.
content:
7. —(1) The Director-General of Health may, from time to time, institute public health surveillance programmes or undertake epidemiological investigations or surveys of people, animals or vectors in order to determine the existence, prevalence or incidence, or to determine the likelihood of a possible outbreak, of — ( a ) any infectious disease; or ( b ) any other disease which the appropriate Minister, by notification in the Gazette , declares to be a disease to which this section applies. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) For the purpose of any public health surveillance programme, epidemiological investigation or survey under subsection (1), the Director-General of Health may require any person or class of persons — ( a ) to provide the Director-General of Health, within or at the times and in the form or manner the Director-General of Health specifies, with any of the following where the Director-General of Health requires: (i) any information known to the person (or any person in the class of persons) at those times; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (ii) any sample of any substance or matter in the possession or control of that person (or any person in the class of persons) at those times, whether obtained under this Act or otherwise; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) to submit to a medical examination at the times the Director-General of Health specifies. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) If a person (including a person in a class of persons) who is required by the Director-General of Health under subsection (2) to furnish the Director-General of Health with any information or sample, or to submit to any medical examination, fails to do so, without reasonable excuse, the person shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) The Director-General of Health may send any sample obtained under subsection (2)( a )(ii) for such test, examination or analysis as the Director-General of Health may consider necessary or expedient. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 8
title: Medical examination and treatment
content:
8. —(1) The Director-General of Health may require the following persons to submit to medical examination or medical treatment within or at such time and at such place, and comply with such measures relating to the medical examination or treatment, as the Director-General of Health may determine: ( a ) any person who is a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease; ( b ) any class of persons mentioned in paragraph ( a ); ( c ) any person who is suspected to be a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) For the purpose of subsection (1), the medical examination may include X‑rays and the taking of the person’s blood and other body samples for testing and analysis. [10/2008] (3) Any person to whom a requirement or measure under subsection (1) applies who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with the requirement or measure shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) [ Deleted by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 9
title: Post-mortem examination
content:
9. Where any person has died while being, or suspected of being, a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease, the Director-General of Health may order a post‑mortem examination of the body of that person for the purpose of — ( a ) determining the cause or circumstances of the death of that person; or ( b ) investigating into any outbreak or suspected outbreak of, or preventing the spread or possible outbreak of, that disease. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 10
title: Director-General of Health may require information from healthcare professionals, etc.
content:
10. —(1) The Director-General of Health may, for the purpose of investigating into any outbreak or suspected outbreak of an infectious disease, preventing the spread or possible outbreak of an infectious disease, or treating any person who is, or is suspected to be, a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease — ( a ) require any healthcare professional to obtain from his or her patient such information as the Director-General of Health may reasonably require for that purpose and transmit that information to the Director-General of Health; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) prescribe by order any general or specific measures or procedures for that purpose for compliance by any healthcare professional or holder of a licence granted under the Healthcare Services Act 2020. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 3 of 2020 wef 03/01/2022] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any person who fails to comply with a requirement or an order referred to in subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. (3) A patient of a healthcare professional who fails to provide the healthcare professional or a person acting on behalf of the healthcare professional with any information sought from the patient that is within the patient’s knowledge pursuant to a requirement under subsection (1)( a ) shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] (4) A healthcare professional must comply with a requirement under subsection (1)( a ) to transmit information to the Director-General of Health despite any restriction on the disclosure of information imposed by any written law, rule of law, rule of professional conduct or contract; and the healthcare professional is not by so doing treated as being in breach of any such restriction despite anything to the contrary in that law, rule or contract. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) In this section — [ Deleted by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ] “healthcare professional” means — ( a ) a medical practitioner; ( b ) a dentist registered under the Dental Registration Act 1999; ( c ) a registered nurse or an enrolled nurse, or a registered midwife, within the meaning of the Nurses and Midwives Act 1999; ( d ) a pharmacist registered under the Pharmacists Registration Act 2007; ( e ) a person registered under section 14 of the Traditional Chinese Medicine Practitioners Act 2000 for the carrying out of any practice of traditional Chinese medicine prescribed under that Act; or ( f ) any other person providing any other healthcare service in Singapore. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 11
title: Offence for supplying false or misleading information
content:
11. —(1) Any person who — ( a ) donates any blood or blood product at any blood bank or hospital in Singapore for any use or purpose; and ( b ) directly in connection with such donation of blood or blood product, supplies any material information which the person knows to be false or misleading, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. (2) In this section, “material information” means any information directly relating to the likelihood of transmission of an infectious disease by the use of any blood or blood product.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 12
title: Treatment of premises, vessel or vehicle
content:
12. —(1) The Director-General of Health may, by written notice, require the owner or occupier of any premises or vessel, or the owner of any vehicle, to cleanse or disinfect it, and carry out any additional measures in relation to the premises, vessel or vehicle, in the manner and within the time specified in the notice. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any person who fails to comply with the requirements of the notice served under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) Without affecting any proceedings under subsection (2), where a written notice issued by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) has not been complied with, a person authorised by the Director-General of Health may, without warrant and with such force as may be necessary — ( a ) if the notice relates to premises or a vessel — enter the premises or vessel and carry out or cause to be carried out the measures specified in the notice; or ( b ) if the notice relates to a vehicle — take control of the vehicle and carry out or cause to be carried out the measures specified in the notice. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) The cost and expenses incurred by the Director-General of Health under subsection (3) must be paid by the person in default and may be recovered as a debt due to the Government. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 13
title: Destruction and disposal of infected animals, food and water
content:
13. —(1) If the Director‑General of Health considers any animal, food or water to be a source for the transmission of an infectious disease, the Director‑General of Health may — ( a ) if the source is an animal — order the person who owns or is in possession of the animal to destroy it; or ( b ) if the source is food or water — order the person who owns or is in possession of it to dispose of it, and impose any requirement that the Director-General of Health thinks fit in relation to the destruction of that animal or the disposal of that food or water, as the case may be. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any person who fails to comply with an order made or requirement imposed by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) Without affecting any proceedings under subsection (2), where an order made or requirement imposed by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) has not been complied with, the Director-General of Health, a Health Officer or a police officer may — ( a ) without warrant and with such force as may be necessary, enter the premises where the animal, food or water (as the case may be) is to be found; and ( b ) take or cause to be taken the measures specified in the order for the destruction of the animal or the disposal of the food or water. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) The costs and expenses incurred by the Director-General of Health or a Health Officer under subsection (3) must be paid by the person in default and may be recovered as a debt due to the Government. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 14
title: Wakes and disposal of corpses
content:
14. —(1) Where any person has died while being, or suspected of being, a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease, the Director-General of Health may by order — ( a ) prohibit the conduct of a wake over the body of that person or impose any conditions that the Director-General of Health thinks fit on the conduct of such wake; or [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) impose any conditions that the Director-General of Health thinks fit for the collection, removal and disposal of the body of that person. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) If any person contravenes any order under subsection (1) — ( a ) that person shall be guilty of an offence; and ( b ) any Health Officer may take such steps as may be necessary to ensure that the order is complied with, including entering any premises at any time without warrant and with such force as may be necessary to collect, remove and dispose of the body of the deceased person. (3) Any costs and expenses incurred by a Health Officer under subsection (2)( b ) must be borne by the person in default and may be recovered as a debt due to the Government.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 15
title: Isolation of certain persons
content:
15. —(1) The Director-General of Health may order the following persons to be detained and isolated in a hospital or other place for such period of time and subject to such conditions as the Director-General of Health may determine: ( a ) any person who is a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease; ( b ) any class of persons mentioned in paragraph ( a ); ( c ) any person who is suspected to be a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) The Director-General of Health may order the following persons to remain and to be isolated and (if necessary) be treated, in the person’s own residence for such period of time as may be necessary for the protection of the public and subject to such conditions as the Director-General of Health may consider necessary for this purpose: ( a ) any person who is a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease; ( b ) any class of persons mentioned in paragraph ( a ); ( c ) any person who is suspected to be a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease; ( d ) any person who has recently recovered from or been treated for an infectious disease. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) [ Deleted by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ] (4) Any person (including any person in a class of persons) against whom an order under subsection (1) or (2) is made shall be guilty of an offence if the person — ( a ) without reasonable excuse, fails to proceed to the place in which the person is to be isolated within the time specified in the order; ( aa ) without reasonable excuse, fails to proceed to the place in which the person is to be isolated as soon as possible, in a case where there is no time specified in the order; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) without the permission of the Director-General of Health, leaves or attempts to leave the place in which the person is being isolated; or [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( c ) without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any condition to which the person is subject. [10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (5) Subsection (4)( a ) or ( aa ) does not apply where the person is already at the place he or she is ordered to be isolated in under subsection (1) or (2). [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 16
title: Surveillance
content:
16. —(1) The Director-General of Health may order the following persons to undergo surveillance for such period of time and subject to such conditions as the Director-General of Health thinks fit: ( a ) any person who is a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease; ( b ) any class of persons mentioned in paragraph ( a ); ( c ) any person who is suspected to be a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) [ Deleted by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ] (3) Any person (including any person in a class of persons) subjected to surveillance by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with an order made under subsection (1) or any condition relating to the surveillance imposed by the Director-General of Health shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) [ Deleted by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 17
title: Isolation area
content:
17. —(1) The Director-General of Health may, for the purpose of preventing the spread or possible outbreak of an infectious disease, declare any premises to be an isolation area for a period not exceeding 90 days. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) The Director-General of Health may, from time to time, extend the period mentioned in subsection (1) for a period not exceeding 90 days at any one time, and this period must be specified in a notice published in the same manner as the notice of the declaration made under subsection (1). [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2A) The Director-General of Health must cause to be published a notice of the declaration made under subsection (1) and any extension made under subsection (2) in a manner that he or she thinks necessary for bringing it to the notice of all persons who in his or her opinion ought to have notice of the declaration. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2B) A declaration made under subsection (1) or any extension made under subsection (2) has effect — ( a ) as soon as notice is given in accordance with subsection (2A); and ( b ) until the expiry of the period specified in the declaration or extension, or until that declaration or extension is revoked by the Director-General of Health, whichever occurs first. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) The Director-General of Health may, in relation to an isolation area, by order — ( a ) prohibit any person or class of persons from entering or leaving the isolation area without the permission of the Director-General of Health; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) prohibit or restrict the movement within the isolation area of any person or class of persons; ( c ) prohibit or restrict the movement of goods; ( d ) require any person or class of persons to report at specified times and places and submit to such medical examinations, answer such questions and submit to such medical treatment as the Director-General of Health thinks fit; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( e ) authorise the destruction, disposal or treatment of any goods, structure, water supply, drainage and sewerage system or other matter within the isolation area known or suspected to be a source of infection; and ( f ) prohibit, restrict, require or authorise the carrying out of any other act that may be prescribed. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) A Health Officer or a police officer may take any action that is necessary to give effect to an order under subsection (3). [10/2008] (5) Any person to whom an order under subsection (3) applies who, without reasonable excuse, contravenes the order shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (6) A person (including a person in a class of persons) who leaves or attempts to leave or is suspected of having left an isolation area in contravention of an order under subsection (3) may be arrested without warrant by any police officer, or by any Health Officer appointed under section 4(1)( a ), ( b ) or ( e ) and authorised in writing by the appropriate Minister. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (7) Without affecting any of the orders which the Director-General of Health may make under this Act, the Director-General of Health may issue an order under section 15 against a person who is arrested under subsection (6) as if the person were a person referred to in that section. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (8) Goods brought into or removed from an isolation area in contravention of an order under subsection (3) must be forfeited to the Government and may be seized, dealt with and disposed of in accordance with section 55(2) and (3) as if those goods were any substance or matter referred to in section 55(1)( c ). 17A. [ Repealed by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 18
title: Abatement of overcrowding
content:
18. —(1) If, in the opinion of the Director-General of Health, a building is so overcrowded as to expose its occupants to the risk of infection by an infectious disease, the Director-General of Health may, by written notice, direct the owner or occupier of the building to abate the overcrowding or to close the building or part of the building, and carry out any other measure relating to the abatement or closure, in the manner and within the time specified in the notice. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any owner or occupier who fails to comply with a notice given to the owner or occupier by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) When a building or any part of the building has been directed to be closed under subsection (1), any person who enters the building or any part of it without the permission of the Director-General of Health shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) Without affecting any proceedings under subsection (2), where a notice issued by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) has not been complied with, the Director-General of Health, a Health Officer or a police officer may, without warrant and with such force as may be necessary, enter the building and take or cause to be taken such measures as are necessary to abate the overcrowding or to close the building or any part of the building, as specified in the notice. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) The costs and expenses incurred by the Director-General of Health or a Health Officer under subsection (4) must be paid by the owner or occupier in default and may be recovered as a debt due to the Government. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (6) Any person who is aggrieved by any direction of the Director-General of Health as contained in a notice given to the person under subsection (1) may, within 7 days from the date of the notice, appeal to the appropriate Minister whose decision is final. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (7) Even though an appeal under subsection (6) is pending, a notice issued by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) takes effect from the date specified by the Director-General of Health, unless the appropriate Minister otherwise directs. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 19
title: Closure and disinfection of premises
content:
19. —(1) If the Director-General of Health has reason to believe that there exist on any premises conditions that are likely to lead to the outbreak or spread of any infectious disease, the Director-General of Health may, by written notice — ( a ) order the closure of the premises for a period not exceeding 14 days; or ( b ) prohibit the sale or distribution of food or water at the premises for the period specified in the notice, and may require the owner or occupier of the premises to — ( c ) cleanse or disinfect the premises in the manner and within the time specified in the notice; or ( d ) carry out the additional measures that the Director-General of Health may require in the manner and within the time specified in the notice. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) A notice under subsection (1)( a ) directing the owner or the occupier of the premises to close the premises may be renewed by the Director-General of Health from time to time for such period, not exceeding 14 days, as the Director-General of Health may, by written notice, specify. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) Subject to subsection (7), any person who fails to comply with a notice given to the person by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) When any premises have been ordered to be closed under subsection (1)( a ), any person who enters those premises without the permission of the Director-General of Health shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) Without affecting any proceedings under subsection (3), where a notice issued by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) has not been complied with, the Director-General of Health, a Health Officer or a police officer may, without warrant and with such force as may be necessary, enter the premises to which the notice relates and close the premises or take or cause to be taken the measures specified in the notice. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (6) The costs and expenses incurred by the Director-General of Health or a Health Officer under subsection (5) must be paid by the person in default and may be recovered as a debt due to the Government. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (7) Any person who is aggrieved by any order or requirement of the Director-General of Health as contained in a notice given to the person under subsection (1) may, within 7 days from the date of the notice, appeal to the appropriate Minister whose decision is final. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (8) Even though an appeal under subsection (7) is pending, a notice issued by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) takes effect from the date specified by the Director-General of Health, unless the appropriate Minister otherwise directs. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s19A
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 19A
title: Surveillance and contact tracing measures at premises
content:
19A. —(1) If the Director-General of Health is satisfied that any surveillance or contact tracing measure is necessary to prevent the spread or possible outbreak of any infectious disease at or in the vicinity of any premises, the Director-General of Health may, by written notice, direct any person in charge of the premises to — ( a ) conduct any surveillance or contact tracing measure at the premises, and carry out any other measure relating to the surveillance or contact tracing measure, as specified in the notice; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) allow any Health Officer, or any person authorised by a Health Officer, to conduct any surveillance or contact tracing measure at the premises as specified in the notice; or ( c ) facilitate the conduct of the surveillance or contact tracing measure by any Health Officer or person authorised by a Health Officer mentioned in paragraph ( b ). [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (1A) Despite subsection (1), if a PHT Order or PHE Order is in force, the appropriate Minister may, by order in the Gazette , direct all persons or any class of persons in charge of any premises to carry out all or any of the measures in subsection (1). [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (1B) Where an order is made under subsection (1A), a written notice under subsection (1) is not required. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any person in charge of the premises who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any direction to the person in a written notice under subsection (1) or an order under subsection (1A) to which the person is subject shall be guilty of an offence. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2A) Any person on any premises in respect of which a direction is given by written notice under subsection (1) or by order under subsection (1A) must cooperate with the person in charge of the premises so as to enable the person in charge of the premises to comply with the direction. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2B) Any person who, without reasonable excuse, contravenes subsection (2A) shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) Without limiting subsection (2), where any direction in a written notice under subsection (1) or an order under subsection (1A) has not been complied with in relation to any premises, the Director-General of Health or a Health Officer may, after giving reasonable notice, and without warrant and using such force as may be necessary, do all or any of the following: ( a ) enter the premises; ( b ) take or cause to be taken such measures at the premises as specified in the written notice or order. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) The costs and expenses reasonably incurred by the Director-General of Health or a Health Officer under subsection (3) may be recovered as a debt due to the Government from the person in default. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) In this section, “person in charge of the premises” includes — ( a ) any occupier, lessee or person who is responsible for the management of the premises; or ( b ) any manager, assistant manager or supervisor of the premises or any person holding an analogous appointment. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 20
title: Prohibition or restriction of meetings, gatherings and public entertainments
content:
20. —(1) Where it appears to the Director-General of Health that the holding of any meeting, gathering or any public entertainment is likely to increase the spread of any infectious disease, the Director-General of Health may by order prohibit or restrict, subject to such conditions as the Director-General of Health may think fit, for a period not exceeding 14 days, the meeting, gathering or public entertainment in any place. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) An order under subsection (1) may be renewed by the Director-General of Health from time to time for such period, not exceeding 14 days, as the Director-General of Health may, by written notice, specify. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) Any person who holds, is present at or has taken part in any meeting, gathering or public entertainment in contravention of an order or any condition imposed by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) A Health Officer or a police officer may take any action that is necessary to give effect to an order under subsection (1). [10/2008] (5) Any person who is aggrieved by any order of the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) may, within 7 days from the date of the order, appeal to the appropriate Minister whose decision is final. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (6) Even though an appeal under subsection (5) is pending, an order made by the Director-General of Health under subsection (1) takes effect from the date specified by the Director-General of Health, unless the appropriate Minister otherwise directs. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 21
title: Control of business, undertaking or work
content:
21. —(1) The Director-General of Health may give a direction to — ( a ) any person who is a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease and is carrying on or may carry on any business, undertaking or work; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( aa ) any class of persons mentioned in paragraph ( a ); [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( ab ) any person who is suspected to be a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease and is carrying on or may carry on any business, undertaking or work; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) any person carrying on any business, undertaking or work in a manner as is likely to cause the spread of any infectious disease; or [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( ba ) any class of persons mentioned in paragraph ( b ), [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] about the taking of preventative action that the Director-General of Health reasonably believes is necessary to prevent the possible outbreak or prevent or reduce the spread of the infectious disease. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) Without limiting subsection (1), “preventative action”, in the case of a direction given to a person or class of persons carrying on or who may carry on any business, undertaking or work, includes requiring the person or class of persons to do any one or more of the following: ( a ) to stop carrying on, or not carry on, the business, undertaking or work during a period of time specified in the direction; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) take specified steps within a period of time specified in the direction, to ensure that the business, undertaking or work is conducted in compliance with conditions specified in the direction; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( c ) until the actions in paragraphs ( a ) and ( b ) are complied with, to ensure — (i) the premises at which the business, undertaking or work is or may be conducted is, for the period of time that is specified in the direction, not used for any activity; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (ii) any vehicle, plant, article, machinery or equipment on those premises is, for the period of time that is specified in the direction, not used, moved, sold or otherwise handled; or (iii) any vehicle, plant, article, machinery or equipment on those premises and specified in the direction is, for the period of time that is specified in the direction, not removed from those premises, for any purpose or in any circumstances specified in the direction. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) If a person refuses or fails to comply with any requirement of a direction given to that person or a class of persons to which that person belongs under subsection (1), the Director-General of Health may — ( a ) take any steps reasonably necessary to ensure control of the premises at which a business, undertaking or work is or may be conducted or any vehicle, plant, article, machinery or equipment on those premises, including entry to a place or vehicle without warrant and with the use of necessary force; and [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) carry out the requirement, and recover the costs and expenses reasonably incurred in carrying out the requirement as a debt due from that person to the Government. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any requirement of a direction given to that person or a class of persons to which that person belongs under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (5) A person (including a person in a class of persons) given a direction under subsection (1) may, within 7 days after the direction is given, appeal against the direction to the appropriate Minister, whose decision is final. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (6) A direction under subsection (1) takes effect despite any appeal under subsection (5), unless the appropriate Minister otherwise directs. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21A
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 21A
title: Certain persons not to act in manner likely to spread disease
content:
21A. —(1) A person ( A ) who knows, or has reason to suspect, that he or she is a case or carrier or contact of, or knows of the existence of facts by which he or she is deemed under section 27 to be infected with, a disease set out in the Second Schedule must not expose other persons to the risk of infection by his or her presence or conduct in any public place or any other place used in common by persons other than the members of his or her own family or household. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) A person having the care of A must not cause or permit A to expose other persons to the risk of infection by A ’s presence or conduct in any place mentioned in subsection (1). [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2A) A must not deliberately or recklessly put another person in A ’s own place of residence at risk of infection by A ’s conduct, or by A refusing to isolate himself or herself or take reasonable precautions against exposing that other person to the risk of infection. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) A person must not lend, sell, transmit or expose, without previous disinfection, any clothing, bedding or rags which he or she knows to have been exposed to infection from a disease set out in the Second Schedule, or any other article which he or she knows to have been so exposed and which is liable to carry such infection. [5/2019] (4) Any person who contravenes subsection (1), (2), (2A) or (3) shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (5) In proceedings for an offence under subsection (4) for contravening subsection (1) or (2), it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused’s presence or conduct in the place mentioned in subsection (1) or (2), as the case may be — ( a ) was necessary for the purpose of obtaining medical treatment; or ( b ) was authorised by the Director-General of Health. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (6) Where the Director-General of Health has designated a hospital or other place for the treatment of any disease set out in the Second Schedule, subsection (5)( a ) applies only in relation to the obtaining of medical treatment at the designated hospital or place for that disease. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (6A) In proceedings for an offence under subsection (4) for contravening subsection (2A), it is a defence for the accused to prove, on a balance of probabilities, that the accused’s conduct or refusal to isolate himself or herself or take reasonable precautions against exposing persons to the risk of infection in the place mentioned in subsection (2A) — ( a ) was necessary or unavoidable in the circumstances; or ( b ) was authorised by the Director-General of Health. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (7) A person shall not incur any liability for contravening subsection (3) by transmitting with proper precautions any article for the purpose of having it disinfected.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21B
chapter: PART 3 - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES WITHIN SINGAPORE
section: 21B
title: Order to disseminate health advisory
content:
21B. —(1) The Director-General of Health may, for the purpose of preventing the spread or possible outbreak of any infectious disease in Singapore, or the spread of any infectious disease into Singapore or from Singapore to outside Singapore, by written order, direct any relevant operator or class of relevant operators — ( a ) to disseminate any health advisory, in such form and manner as the Director-General of Health may require, to any relevant person or class of relevant persons specified in the order; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) to provide any information, in the possession or control of the relevant operator or those relevant operators, to the Director-General of Health to facilitate the Director-General of Health or any other person in the dissemination of a health advisory to a relevant person or class of relevant persons; or [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( c ) to provide any information, in the possession or control of the relevant operator or those relevant operators, to another relevant operator or class of relevant operators who is or are required to disseminate a health advisory under paragraph ( a ), to facilitate in the dissemination of the health advisory. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) The Director-General of Health may disclose any information obtained from a relevant operator or class of relevant operators under subsection (1)( b ) to another relevant operator or class of relevant operators who is or are required to disseminate a health advisory under subsection (1)( a ), to facilitate in the dissemination of the health advisory. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) The Director-General of Health may impose conditions as to the use of any information provided or disclosed to any relevant operator or class of relevant operators under subsection (1)( c ) or (2). [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) Any relevant operator (including a relevant operator in a class of relevant operators) who, without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails to comply with — ( a ) an order under subsection (1); or ( b ) a condition under subsection (3), shall be guilty of an offence. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (5) This section does not affect any other right of disclosure a relevant operator may have under any written law or rule of law. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21C
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21C
title: Declaration of public health threat
content:
21C. —(1) If the appropriate Minister is satisfied that the incidence and transmission, or a significant likelihood of the incidence or transmission, of an infectious disease in Singapore constitutes a serious threat to public health and it is necessary to take measures to prevent, protect against, delay or otherwise control the incidence or transmission of the infectious disease in Singapore, the appropriate Minister may, by order, declare a public health threat. (2) Once a public health threat is declared, the appropriate Minister must without delay cause to be published a notice of the PHT Order in a manner that he or she thinks necessary for bringing it to the notice of all persons who in his or her opinion ought to have notice of the PHT Order. (3) Every PHT Order — ( a ) comes into force as soon as the notice is published in accordance with subsection (2); and ( b ) subject to subsection (5) and section 21D, remains in force until it is revoked by the appropriate Minister or upon the expiry of 90 days after the date on which the order is made, whichever is earlier. (4) Without affecting subsection (3)( a ), a copy of every PHT Order must be — ( a ) published in the Gazette ; and ( b ) presented to Parliament as soon as possible after the PHT Order is made. (5) If Parliament passes a resolution to annul a PHT Order, the PHT Order ceases to be in force, but the annulment does not affect anything previously done pursuant to the PHT Order. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21D
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21D
title: Extension of validity of PHT Order
content:
21D. —(1) The appropriate Minister may, from time to time, by order extend the validity of a PHT Order for a period not exceeding 90 days at any one time, and this period must be specified in the order for extension. (2) Section 21C(3), (4) and (5) applies to an order made under subsection (1) as those provisions apply to a PHT Order. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] Division 2 &#x2014; Public health emergency


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21E
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21E
title: Declaration of public health emergency
content:
21E. —(1) If the appropriate Minister is satisfied that the incidence and transmission, or a significant likelihood of the incidence or transmission, of an infectious disease in Singapore constitutes a serious threat to public health and poses a substantial risk of — ( a ) a significant number of human fatalities or incidents of serious disability of persons in Singapore; or ( b ) a severe shortage or impairment of healthcare services (including a severe shortage of the supply of medical equipment, medication, vaccines or other prophylaxis) in Singapore, the appropriate Minister may, by order, declare a public health emergency. (2) Once a public health emergency is declared, the appropriate Minister must without delay cause to be published a notice of the PHE Order in a manner that he or she thinks necessary for bringing it to the notice of all persons who in his or her opinion ought to have notice of the PHE Order. (3) Every PHE Order — ( a ) comes into force as soon as the notice is published in accordance with subsection (2); and ( b ) subject to subsection (5) and section 21F, remains in force until it is revoked by the appropriate Minister or upon the expiry of 90 days after the date on which the order is made, whichever is earlier. (4) Without affecting subsection (3)( a ), a copy of every PHE Order must be — ( a ) published in the Gazette ; and ( b ) presented to Parliament as soon as possible after the PHE Order is made. (5) If Parliament passes a resolution to annul a PHE Order, the PHE Order ceases to be in force, but the annulment does not affect anything previously done pursuant to the PHE Order. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21F
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21F
title: Extension of validity of PHE Order
content:
21F. —(1) The appropriate Minister may, from time to time, by order extend the validity of a PHE Order for a period not exceeding 90 days at any one time, and this period must be specified in the order for extension. (2) Section 21E(3), (4) and (5) applies to an order made under subsection (1) as those provisions apply to a PHE Order. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21G
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21G
title: Exercise of powers under Requisition of Resources Act 1985
content:
21G. —(1) This section applies only during the period that a PHE Order is in force. (2) Whenever it appears to the appropriate Minister that it is necessary for the securing of the safety of human life and health in the event of a public health emergency, the appropriate Minister may by order direct that all or any of sections 8, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 16 and 17 of the Requisition of Resources Act 1985 shall come into operation and those provisions shall come into operation and remain in operation for such period as may be specified in the order. (3) An order under this section must not be in force for a period exceeding 7 days from the date of commencement of the order unless it has been made with the approval of the President. (4) An order made by the appropriate Minister under subsection (2) is deemed to be an order made under section 2(2) of the Requisition of Resources Act 1985, and accordingly — ( a ) any competent authority or authorised officer appointed under section 4 or 5 of that Act may exercise all the powers under sections 8, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 16 and 17 of that Act (whichever is applicable) pursuant to the order under subsection (2); and ( b ) Parts 4, 5 and 6 of that Act apply in respect of anything done under section 8, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 16 or 17 of that Act pursuant to the order under subsection (2), as they would apply in respect of anything done under that section of that Act pursuant to an order made under section 2(2) of that Act. (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) does not affect the power of the Minister charged with the responsibility for the Requisition of Resources Act 1985 to make an order under section 2(2) of that Act or exercise any other power under any provision of that Act during a public health emergency. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] Division 3 &#x2014; Measures during public health threat or
public health emergency


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21H
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21H
title: Regulations during public health threat or public health emergency
content:
21H. —(1) This section applies during the period that a PHT Order or PHE Order is in force, including any period in respect of which the validity of that order has been extended. (2) The appropriate Minister may make regulations — ( a ) where a PHT Order is in force — for the purpose of preventing, protecting against, delaying or otherwise controlling the incidence or transmission of the infectious disease in question in Singapore; or ( b ) where a PHE Order is in force — for the purpose of — (i) reducing the risk of a significant number of human fatalities or incidents of serious disability of persons in Singapore due to the incidence and transmission of the infectious disease in question in Singapore; or (ii) reducing the risk of a severe shortage or impairment of healthcare services (including the supply of medical equipment, medication, vaccines or other prophylaxis) in Singapore due to the incidence and transmission of the infectious disease in question in Singapore. (3) Without limiting subsection (2), the appropriate Minister may make regulations for or with respect to — ( a ) where a PHE Order is in force — declaring the whole of or any area in Singapore to be a restricted zone; ( b ) requiring any person or class of persons to enter, stay at or in, and not leave — (i) where a PHT Order or PHE Order is in force — a specified place or type of place; or (ii) where a PHE Order is in force — a restricted zone or any place within a restricted zone, whether or not that place is a place of accommodation; ( c ) restricting the movement of any person or class of persons or contact between persons, including prohibiting or limiting group activities or other activities of any person or class of persons within the place mentioned in paragraph ( b ), restricting the use of any facilities at that place and limiting movement to and from that place, whether by time or location; ( d ) requiring the doing of one or both of the following at a specified time, in a specified manner or to a specified extent, in relation to any premises or facility used to carry out any business, undertaking or work: (i) close the premises or facility; (ii) limit access to the premises or facility; ( e ) restricting the time, manner or extent for the carrying on of any business, undertaking or work, including prescribing restrictions on the maximum number of people, opening hours or facilities provided, for the carrying on of the business, undertaking or work; ( f ) prohibiting or restricting the holding of, or the attendance of persons at, any meeting, reception, procession, event or other gathering in — (i) where a PHT Order or PHE Order is in force — the whole of Singapore or a specified place or type of place; or (ii) where a PHE Order is in force — a restricted zone or any place within a restricted zone; ( g ) disapplying any requirement, prohibition or restriction in paragraph ( b ), ( c ), ( d ), ( e ) or ( f ) under certain circumstances; ( h ) any saving and transitional provisions that may be necessary or expedient for the purposes of the PHT Order or PHE Order, as the case may be; and ( i ) any other matter necessary or expedient to be prescribed for giving effect to this Part. (4) The regulations remain in force until their expiry or revocation or the date the PHT Order or PHE Order (as the case may be) ceases to be in force, whichever occurs first. (5) The regulations and any amendment of the regulations must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette . (6) If a resolution is passed by Parliament annulling the regulations or any part of it, or any amendment of the regulations, as from a specified date, the regulations or that part or amendment ceases to have effect as from that date, but without affecting anything previously done under those regulations, that part, or those regulations as amended. (7) The regulations may provide that — ( a ) a contravention of any provision of the regulations shall be an offence punishable — (i) in the case of a first offence, with a fine not exceeding $10,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or with both; and (ii) in the case of a second or subsequent offence, with a fine not exceeding $20,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or with both; and ( b ) any person who, without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails to comply with any regulation may (without affecting any proceedings which may be taken against the person) be arrested without warrant, and may be removed from the place in respect of which that regulation applies, by any police officer or any Health Officer appointed under section 4(1)( a ), ( b ) or ( e ) who is authorised in writing by the appropriate Minister. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21I
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21I
title: Appointment of adjunct Health Officers
content:
21I. —(1) Without affecting section 4(1), where a PHT Order or PHE Order has been made, the Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health may appoint any suitable person or class of persons to be an adjunct Health Officer or adjunct Health Officers to exercise any powers or perform any functions of a Health Officer under this Act or any provision of this Act during the period the PHT Order or PHE Order is in force, and a reference in this Act or those provisions of this Act (as the case may be) to a Health Officer includes a reference to an adjunct Health Officer during that period. (2) The appointment of any adjunct Health Officer is subject to any condition or restriction imposed by the Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health. (3) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health may at any time revoke the appointment of an adjunct Health Officer, or vary any condition or restriction of the appointment. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21J
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21J
title: Enforcement of regulations made under section 21H
content:
21J. —(1) Without affecting any proceedings which may be taken for an offence under section 21H(7), a police officer or Health Officer authorised by the Director-General of Health may, for the purposes of enforcing compliance with regulations made under section 21H — ( a ) direct any individual or group of individuals to do one or more of the following: (i) to enter or not to leave any premises as required by the regulations; (ii) to not enter, or to leave, any premises that are closed or entry to which is restricted by the regulations; (iii) to go to a specified place or type of place applicable to the individual or group of individuals, or for the time being to another place, or to take such other steps as may be required to comply with the regulations; (iv) to disperse; and ( b ) direct any person carrying on a business, undertaking or work, or any individual working, at any premises or facility (other than at a time, in a manner and to the extent permitted under the regulations) to do one or more of the following: (i) to stop carrying on the business, undertaking or work, and stop working, at the premises or facility; (ii) to take steps to comply with the restrictions in the regulations with respect to the carrying on of the business, undertaking or work; (iii) to close or limit access to the premises or facility. (2) A direction under subsection (1) may be given orally. (3) If an oral direction is given — ( a ) to a group of individuals, it is deemed to have been given to each member of the group if the oral direction is made in a manner which is likely to be audible to all the members of the group or as many of them as is reasonably practicable; and ( b ) to an officer, an employee, a manager, a partner or an agent of a person carrying on the business, undertaking or work, or working, at the premises or facility in subsection (1)( b ), it is deemed to have been given to the person carrying on that business, undertaking or work at the premises or facility. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s21K
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE
section: 21K
title: No appeals during public health threat or public health emergency
content:
21K. During the period that a PHT Order or PHE Order is in force, there is no appeal to the appropriate Minister from — ( a ) any order, requirement or direction of the Director-General of Health under section 18(1), 19(1), 20(1) or 21(1) made during the period the PHT Order or PHE Order (as the case may be) is in force; or ( b ) any requirement, restriction or prohibition, or the disapplication of any requirement, restriction or prohibition, imposed by regulations made under section 21H. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 4 - CONTROL OF HIV INFECTION
section: 22
title: Person with HIV infection to undergo counselling, etc.
content:
22. —(1) The Director-General of Health may require any person who has been diagnosed as having HIV infection — ( a ) to undergo counselling at such time and at such hospital or other place as the Director-General of Health may determine; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) to comply with such precautions and safety measures as may be specified by the Director-General of Health. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any person who fails or refuses to comply with subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 4 - CONTROL OF HIV INFECTION
section: 23
title: Sexual activity by person with HIV infection
content:
23. —(1) Subject to subsection (1A), a person who knows that he or she has HIV infection must not engage in any sexual activity with another person unless, before the sexual activity takes place — ( a ) he or she has informed that other person of the risk of contracting HIV infection from him or her; and ( b ) that other person has voluntarily agreed to accept that risk. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (1A) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person who knows that he or she has HIV infection if he or she has maintained an undetectable HIV viral load for at least the prescribed period preceding the sexual activity in question. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (1B) A person is presumed, unless the contrary is proved, to have maintained an undetectable HIV viral load for at least the prescribed period preceding the sexual activity in question if he or she — ( a ) has taken a test within a prescribed period before the sexual activity and obtained a test result issued by a recognised laboratory showing that the person has an undetectable HIV viral load; ( b ) has taken an earlier test no later than a prescribed amount of time before the test mentioned in paragraph ( a ) and obtained a test result issued by a recognised laboratory showing that the person has an undetectable HIV viral load; ( c ) at no time, during the period between the test mentioned in paragraph ( b ) and the sexual activity in question, has taken a test and obtained a test result issued by a recognised laboratory showing that the person has a detectable HIV viral load; and ( d ) has adhered to his or her medical treatment for HIV infection as prescribed by his or her medical practitioner, during the period starting on the date he or she takes the test mentioned in paragraph ( b ) up to and including the date of the sexual activity in question. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (1C) For the purposes of subsection (1A) — ( a ) a person has a detectable HIV viral load if the amount of HIV detected in a test carried out for the purpose of ascertaining his or her HIV viral load is at or above the level prescribed by regulations; and ( b ) a person has an undetectable HIV viral load if the amount of HIV detected in a test carried out for the purpose of ascertaining his or her HIV viral load is below the level prescribed by regulations. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) A person who does not know that he or she has HIV infection, but who has reason to believe that he or she has, or has been exposed to a significant risk of contracting, HIV infection must not engage in any sexual activity with another person unless — ( a ) before the sexual activity takes place he or she informs that other person of the risk of contracting HIV infection from him or her and that other person voluntarily agrees to accept that risk; ( b ) he or she has undergone the necessary serological or other test and has ascertained that he or she does not have HIV infection at the time of the sexual activity; or ( c ) during the sexual activity, he or she takes reasonable precautions to ensure that he or she does not expose that other person to the risk of contracting HIV infection. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or to both. [10/2008] (4) For the purposes of this section, a person must not, only by reason of age, be presumed incapable of engaging in sexual activity. [10/2008] (5) For the purposes of this section, a person is deemed to know that he or she has HIV infection if a serological test or other test for the purpose of ascertaining the presence of HIV infection carried out on him or her has given a positive result and the result has been communicated to him or her. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (6) No prosecution is to be instituted for an offence under subsection (2) except with the written consent of the Public Prosecutor, but a person charged with such an offence may be arrested and be remanded in custody or released on bail even though the consent of the Public Prosecutor to the institution of a prosecution for the offence has not been obtained, except that the case must not be further prosecuted until that consent of the Public Prosecutor has been obtained. [10/2008; 15/2010] (7) In this section, “sexual activity” means — ( a ) sexual activity occasioned by the introduction into the vagina, anus or mouth of any person of any part of the penis of another person; or ( b ) cunnilingus. [10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 4 - CONTROL OF HIV INFECTION
section: 24
title: Blood donation and other acts by person with HIV infection
content:
24. —(1) Any person who knows that he or she has HIV infection must not — ( a ) donate blood at any blood bank in Singapore; or ( b ) do any act which is likely to transmit or spread HIV infection to another person. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) For the purposes of this section, a person is deemed to know that he or she has HIV infection if a serological test or other test for the purpose of ascertaining the presence of HIV infection carried out on him or her has given a positive result and the result has been communicated to him or her. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or to both. [10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s25
chapter: PART 4 - CONTROL OF HIV INFECTION
section: 25
title: Protection of identity of person with HIV infection or other sexually transmitted disease
content:
25. —(1) Any person who, in the performance or exercise of his or her functions or duties under this Act, is aware or has reasonable grounds for believing that another person has HIV infection or is suffering from a sexually transmitted disease or is a carrier of that disease must not disclose any information which may identify the other person except — ( a ) with the consent of the other person; ( b ) when it is necessary to do so in connection with the administration or execution of anything under this Act; ( c ) when it is necessary to do so in connection with the provision of information to a police officer under section 22 or 424 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010; ( d ) when ordered to do so by a court; ( e ) to any medical practitioner or other health staff who is treating or caring for, or counselling, the other person; ( f ) to any blood, organ, semen or breast milk bank that has received or will receive any blood, organ, semen or breast milk from the other person; ( g ) for statistical reports and epidemiological purposes if the information is used in such a way that the identity of the other person is not made known; ( h ) to the victim of a sexual assault by the other person; ( i ) to the Controller of Immigration for the purposes of the Immigration Act 1959; ( j ) to the next-of-kin of the other person upon the other person’s death; ( k ) to any person or class of persons to whom, in the opinion of the Director-General of Health, it is in the public interest that the information be given; or [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( l ) when authorised by the appropriate Minister to publish such information for the purposes of public health or public safety. [10/2008; 15/2010; 5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both. [10/2008] (3) For the purposes of subsection (1)( a ), the consent of the other person includes — ( a ) if that person has died, the written consent of that person’s spouse, personal representative, administrator or executor; ( b ) if that person is a minor, the written consent of a parent or legal guardian of that person; and [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( c ) if, in the opinion of the medical practitioner who undertook the test for HIV infection for that person, that person has a disability by reason of which he or she appears incapable of giving consent, the written consent in the following order, of — (i) a legal guardian of that person; (ii) the spouse of that person; (iii) a parent of that person; or (iv) an adult child of that person. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) In this section, “legal guardian” means a person lawfully appointed by deed or will or by the order of a competent court to be the guardian of another person. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s25A
chapter: PART 4 - CONTROL OF HIV INFECTION
section: 25A
title: Disclosure by Director-General of Health, medical practitioner and recipient of information
content:
25A. —(1) The Director-General of Health may disclose any information relating to any person whom the Director-General of Health reasonably believes to be infected with HIV infection to — ( a ) any medical practitioner or other health staff who has been exposed to a risk of infection from HIV infection; or ( b ) any first responder who has experienced a significant exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials of any patient. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) In subsection (1), “first responder” means any police officer, member of the Singapore Civil Defence Force or any person who provides emergency response, first aid care or other medically related assistance either in the course of the person’s occupational duties or as a volunteer. (3) Subject to subsection (4), a medical practitioner may disclose information relating to any person whom the medical practitioner reasonably believes to be infected with HIV infection to the spouse, former spouse or other contact of the infected person or to a Health Officer for the purpose of making the disclosure to the spouse, former spouse or other contact. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) The medical practitioner must not disclose any information under subsection (3) unless the medical practitioner — ( a ) reasonably believes that it is medically appropriate and that there is a significant risk of infection to the spouse, former spouse or other contact; ( b ) has counselled the infected person regarding the need to notify the spouse, former spouse or other contact and the medical practitioner reasonably believes that the infected person will not inform the spouse, former spouse or other contact; and ( c ) has informed the infected person of the medical practitioner’s intent to make such disclosure to the spouse, former spouse or other contact. (5) Where the medical practitioner is unable, by any reasonable means, to counsel or inform the infected person, the medical practitioner may apply to the Director-General of Health to waive the requirements of subsection (4)( b ) or ( c ) or both. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (6) The Director-General of Health may approve the application made under subsection (5) if, in the opinion of the Director-General of Health, it is medically appropriate to disclose the information and there is a significant risk of infection to the spouse, former spouse or other contact. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (7) A person, to whom any information relating to another person who is reasonably believed to be infected with HIV infection has been disclosed under this section, must not disclose such information to any person other than the persons specified in subsection (8) or as provided in subsection (10). [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (8) The persons mentioned in subsection (7) are — ( a ) the infected person himself or herself; ( b ) a person who is authorised under section 25(1)( a ) to consent to such disclosure; and ( c ) any person who is authorised to disclose such information under subsection (1), (3) or (6) or section 25(1). (9) Any person who contravenes subsection (7) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both. (10) A person, to whom any information relating to a person who is reasonably believed to be infected with HIV infection has been disclosed under this section, may apply to the Director-General of Health for approval to disclose such information to any person or class of persons. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (11) The Director-General of Health may approve the application under subsection (10) if the Director-General of Health is satisfied that such disclosure is in the interests of public health or public safety. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s26
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 26
title: Infected area
content:
26. —(1) Where the appropriate Minister has reason to believe that a dangerous infectious disease may be introduced into Singapore from or through any area in Singapore or elsewhere, he or she may, by notification in the Gazette , declare that area to be an infected area. [5/2019] (2) The appropriate Minister may issue an order prohibiting the entry into Singapore of any person or class of persons from an infected area declared under subsection (1) except under such conditions as the Minister may specify. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s27
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 27
title: Vessels, persons and articles from infected area
content:
27. —(1) For the purposes of this Part, all vessels, persons and articles coming from an infected area are deemed to be infected unless otherwise declared by the Director-General of Health. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) A vessel and any person and article on board are also deemed to be infected if a dangerous infectious disease is found on board or if such infection was present among the crew, passengers, rodents or vectors on board the vessel. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s28
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 28
title: Information required on arrival of vessels
content:
28. —(1) The master and the surgeon, if there is one on board, or the agent of any vessel arriving in Singapore must provide any particulars that may be required by the Director‑General of Public Health or a Port Health Officer in such form or manner as the Director‑General of Public Health may require. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) Any master, surgeon or agent who fails to comply with subsection (1) or who provides any information which is false or misleading shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s29
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 29
title: Measures required of a vessel or vehicle on arrival
content:
29. —(1) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or a Port Health Officer may — ( a ) inspect any vessel or vehicle or any person or class of persons or goods on board the vessel or in the vehicle when in Singapore; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) in respect of any person or class of persons on board a vessel or in a vehicle — (i) subject that person or class of persons to medical examination upon arrival in Singapore; and (ii) impose any requirement relating to the medical examination that the Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or a Port Health Officer thinks fit; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( c ) direct health and sanitary measures to be taken in respect of a vessel or vehicle; ( d ) obtain from the master, or any other person or class of persons on board the vessel, all necessary information that he or she requires to ascertain the health of any person or class of persons on board, the sanitary condition of the vessel and cargo and of the port last visited by that vessel and any other information that he or she requires; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( e ) inspect the journal or logbook of the vessel or of the vessel’s papers; and ( f ) direct the master, owner or agent of any vessel to forward a copy of the vessel’s passenger and crew list and cargo manifest immediately after the vessel’s arrival in Singapore. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) Any person (including any person in a class of persons) who fails to comply with any direction or requirement of the Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or the Port Health Officer under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s30
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 30
title: Health requirements for persons arriving in Singapore
content:
30. —(1) The appropriate Minister may, by order in the Gazette , specify all or any of the following in respect of any infectious disease: ( a ) any pre-departure health requirement (including a specified pre-departure test or a declaration as to the status of a person’s health) that a person must comply with, whether that person is entering or in transit through Singapore; ( b ) any time within which any pre-departure health requirement mentioned in paragraph ( a ) must be carried out; ( c ) any health requirement that a person must comply with while on board a vehicle or vessel on an international voyage to Singapore (called in this section an onboard health requirement); ( d ) the classes of persons to whom the pre-departure health requirement mentioned in paragraph ( a ) or the onboard health requirement mentioned in paragraph ( c ) apply. (2) Any person on an international voyage arriving in Singapore by land, air or sea (whether entering or in transit through Singapore) must — ( a ) comply with any pre-departure health requirement under subsection (1)( a ) within the time mentioned in subsection (1)( b ), or any onboard health requirement under subsection (1)( c ) applicable to the person; and ( b ) upon the request of a Health Officer (when arriving by land) or a Port Health Officer (when arriving by air or sea) — (i) produce proof of a prescribed type showing that any pre-departure health requirement under subsection (1)( a ) applicable to the person has been complied with; or (ii) where the pre-departure health requirement is a specified pre-departure test and no such type of proof is prescribed, produce a medical report or laboratory report from the person’s place of origin or embarkation stating the results of the relevant pre-departure test. (3) Any person on an international voyage who arrives in Singapore by land, air or sea (whether entering or in transit through Singapore) and who, without reasonable excuse — ( a ) has failed to comply with any pre-departure health requirement under subsection (1)( a ) applicable to the person; ( b ) has failed to comply with any onboard health requirement under subsection (1)( c ) applicable to the person during the international voyage; or ( c ) fails to comply with subsection (2), shall be guilty of an offence. (4) A Health Officer or Port Health Officer may return any person, not being a citizen of Singapore, who arrives in Singapore in contravention of subsection (3), to the person’s place of origin or embarkation at the person’s own expense or the expense of the owner or agent of the vessel by which the person arrived in Singapore. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s31
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 31
title: Vaccination and other prophylaxis
content:
31. —(1) Any person on an international voyage leaving or arriving in Singapore by land, air or sea, or in transit through Singapore must — ( a ) have undergone vaccination or other prophylaxis against all or any of the diseases in accordance with the requirements set out in the Third Schedule; and ( b ) upon the request of a Health Officer (when a person arrives by land) or a Port Health Officer (when a person arrives by air or sea), produce valid international certificates of vaccination or other prophylaxis to that Health Officer or Port Health Officer. [10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Despite subsection (1), a Health Officer or Port Health Officer may require such person to undergo vaccination or other prophylaxis and may subject the person to isolation or surveillance for any period of time and subject to any condition that the Health Officer or Port Health Officer thinks fit. [10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) A Health Officer or Port Health Officer may return any person, not being a citizen of Singapore, who arrives in Singapore in contravention of subsection (1), to the person’s place of origin or embarkation at the person’s own expense or the expense of the owner or agent of the vessel by which the person arrived in Singapore. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) The owner of a vehicle or the owner, master or agent of a vessel must ensure compliance with subsection (1) in respect of any person on board the vehicle or vessel. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s32
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 32
title: Disinfection and treatment of personal effects, vessel and vehicle
content:
32. —(1) The Director-General of Health or a Health Officer authorised by the Director-General of Health may order any infected person arriving in Singapore to disinfect and treat his or her clothes and personal effects. (2) The Director-General of Health or a Health Officer authorised by the Director-General of Health may, by written notice, require — ( a ) the owner or occupier of any vessel; or ( b ) the owner of any vehicle, which has conveyed an infected person to cleanse, disinfect or treat the vessel or vehicle and carry out any additional measures that the Director-General of Health or Health Officer may require, in the manner and within the time specified in the notice. (3) Any person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any order under subsection (1) or any written notice under subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence. (4) In this section, “infected person” means a person who is deemed to be infected under section 27(1) or (2). [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s33
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 33
title: Arrival of infected ships
content:
33. —(1) An infected ship must anchor at a quarantine anchorage unless otherwise directed by a Port Health Officer and must remain there until it has been granted pratique by a Port Health Officer. (2) An infected ship lying within the waters of Singapore must show the appropriate quarantine signal prescribed by regulations unless otherwise directed by a Port Health Officer. (3) A person must not board or disembark from the ship while it lies at a quarantine anchorage, without obtaining the prior written permission of a Port Health Officer. (4) No baggage, cargo or article may be discharged from a ship while it lies at a quarantine anchorage without the prior written permission of a Port Health Officer. (5) Any master or any other person who contravenes this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s34
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 34
title: Unauthorised boarding or disembarking from infected vessel
content:
34. —(1) The master of any infected vessel must, while it is subject to quarantine — ( a ) prevent and, if necessary, detain any person disembarking from the vessel without being authorised by a Port Health Officer; ( b ) detain any person from Singapore who, without the permission of a Port Health Officer, boards the vessel; ( c ) deliver any person detained to a Port Health Officer; ( d ) prevent any baggage or cargo from being discharged from the vessel; and ( e ) prevent any rodent from leaving or entering the vessel. (2) A master who fails to comply with any of the provisions of subsection (1) and any person aiding or abetting a master shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. (3) For the purposes of section 33 and this section, “infected” means infected with a dangerous infectious disease.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s35
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 35
title: Pratique
content:
35. —(1) A ship not granted pratique must remain in the quarantine anchorage while in the waters of Singapore or may continue its voyage to other ports. (2) The master or agent of any ship which has not been granted pratique who suffers or permits the ship to be anchored or berthed in contravention of subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s36
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 36
title: Discharge of waste or matter
content:
36. —(1) The Director-General of Public Health or a Port Health Officer may, by written notice, require the owner or occupier of any vessel from which any human waste, solid or liquid waste or any matter that the Director-General of Public Health or that Port Health Officer considers to be contaminated has been discharged, to — ( a ) remove or clean up that waste or contaminated matter; or ( b ) carry out any additional measures that the Director-General of Public Health or that Port Health Officer may consider necessary, in the manner and within the time specified in the notice. (2) Any person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any written notice under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s37
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 37
title: Vessels within waters of Singapore
content:
37. —(1) The master, owner or agent of any vessel while in Singapore must — ( a ) take such precautions as may be directed by a Port Health Officer to prevent rodents from leaving or entering the vessel, and take such measures for the destruction of rodents on board the vessel; ( b ) take all measures directed by a Port Health Officer to abate any nuisance that may be present on board the vessel within such time as may be specified by the Port Health Officer; and ( c ) take such measures to clean, disinfect, whitewash or any other measures which a Port Health Officer may direct to improve the condition of the water tanks, living spaces or any other part of the vessel. (2) Any master, owner or agent who fails to comply with any directions of the Port Health Officer under subsection (1) within the specified time shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 and to a further fine not exceeding $500 for every day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s38
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 38
title: Person supplying food and water
content:
38. —(1) The master, owner or agent of every vessel and any person supplying food and water to the vessel must ensure that the food and water supplied to the vessel is fit for human consumption. (2) The master, owner or any person in charge of a vessel or vehicle employed for carrying food or water intended for human consumption must ensure that the vessel or vehicle and the food and water receptacles therein are in a clean and sanitary condition. (3) Any person who contravenes this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s39
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 39
title: Powers of Director-General, Food Administration or Port Health Officer regarding food and water
content:
39. —(1) The Director-General, Food Administration or a Port Health Officer may — ( a ) take samples of any food and water intended for human consumption or for sale to a vessel; ( b ) order the owner or any person in charge of a vessel supplying food to carry out an analysis of the food and to supply the results of that analysis to the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Port Health Officer; ( c ) if he or she has reason to believe that any food intended for human consumption is liable to be contaminated or is unfit for human consumption, order the food to be destroyed; and ( d ) order the owner, master or agent of any vessel to immediately cleanse the water tanks of the vessel to his or her satisfaction. [11/2019] (2) Any person who fails to comply with an order of the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Port Health Officer under subsection (1) within the time specified in the order shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [11/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s40
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 40
title: Import of vectors of diseases
content:
40. —(1) A person must not import or bring or cause to be imported or brought into Singapore any vectors capable of transmitting a disease without first obtaining the written permission of the Director‑General of Public Health. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. 41. [ Repealed by Act 36 of 2005 ]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s42
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 42
title: Power to inspect merchandise, etc., on board vessel
content:
42. —(1) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or a Port Health Officer may inspect and examine any articles, merchandise, baggage or cargo, on board any vessel, which are in his or her opinion contaminated or likely to be contaminated. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Port Health Officer may order any contaminated articles, merchandise, baggage or cargo found on board the vessel to be — ( a ) seized and treated or disposed of in the manner that he or she thinks fit; and ( b ) prohibited from being unloaded or stored in Singapore. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) Any person who fails to comply with an order of the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Port Health Officer under subsection (2) or hinders or obstructs the execution of that order shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) Any articles, merchandise, baggage or cargo to which the order relates may be confiscated, treated or disposed of at the discretion of the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Port Health Officer. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s43
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 43
title: Corpses
content:
43. —(1) Any corpse, human remains or bones other than cremated ashes must not be brought into or transhipped or exported from Singapore, unless accompanied by a medical certificate or other evidence showing — ( a ) the name of the deceased; ( b ) the date and cause of death (except where there is a valid Minister’s certificate under section 17A of the Coroners Act in respect of the death); and ( c ) the measures adopted to preserve the body. [Act 31 of 2021 wef 02/05/2023] (2) Such corpse, human remains or bones must not be landed or transhipped or exported without the written permission of a Port Health Officer. (3) The owner, master or agent of any vessel must ensure compliance with subsections (1) and (2). (4) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s44
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 44
title: Master, etc., of vessel to assist Director‑General of Public Health, etc.
content:
44. —(1) The master, owner or agent of a vessel must provide such facilities and assistance as the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration, the Director-General of Health, a Port Health Officer or a Health Officer may require in the exercise of powers for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of this Act. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) The master, owner or agent of a vessel must take all reasonable measures and exercise due and proper care to ensure the safety of the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration, the Director-General of Health, a Port Health Officer or a Health Officer and any person acting under his or her direction in the course of their work on board the vessel. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) Any person who contravenes this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s45
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 45
title: Liability of master, owner or agent for expenses
content:
45. —(1) The master, owner and agent of any vessel which has been ordered into quarantine or of any vessel from which any person is removed for quarantine are responsible for — ( a ) the removal, care and maintenance, conveyance and surveillance of all persons on board the vessel; and ( b ) the provision of such services as the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director-General of Health, a Port Health Officer or a Health Officer considers necessary to ensure the satisfactory performance of the quarantine of the vessel and the persons on board. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) The master, owner or agent of any vessel which has been ordered into quarantine, or to be cleansed, fumigated, disinfected or otherwise treated, must pay the costs and expenses of removal of any cargo and goods from the vessel incurred in the cleansing, fumigation, disinfection or treatment of the vessel. (3) The master, owner or agent of the vessel may make arrangement with the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director-General of Health, a Port Health Officer or a Health Officer for the carrying out of any of the responsibilities under this section and for the payment of the costs and expenses thereof. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General of Health, a Port Health Officer or a Health Officer may take any action he or she considers necessary to ensure that the vessel or any person or article on board performs the quarantine satisfactorily, and any expenses incurred thereby are recoverable from the owner or agent of the vessel as a debt due to the Agency or the Government, as the case may be. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) The Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General of Health, a Port Health Officer or a Health Officer may require the master, owner or agent of the vessel to give such security as he or she thinks necessary to ensure that the master, owner or agent of the vessel will carry out their responsibilities under this section satisfactorily. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s45A
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 45A
title: Medical examination of persons arriving in Singapore
content:
45A. —(1) The Director-General of Health may, for the purpose of preventing the spread or possible outbreak of any infectious disease in Singapore, by written order, require all or any persons or class of persons arriving in Singapore to undergo any medical examination specified in the order within or at such time and at such place, and comply with such measures relating to the medical examination, as may be specified in the order. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any person (including any person in a class of persons) given an order under subsection (1) who, without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails to comply with the order shall be guilty of an offence. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s45B
chapter: PART 5 - PREVENTION OF INTERNATIONAL SPREAD OF
section: 45B
title: Medical examination of persons leaving Singapore
content:
45B. —(1) The appropriate Minister may, for the purpose of preventing the spread of an infectious disease out of Singapore, by written order — ( a ) require all or any persons or class of persons leaving Singapore to undergo any medical examination specified in the order within or at such time and at such place, as may be specified in the order; and ( b ) impose any condition that the appropriate Minister thinks fit on that person or those persons. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any person (including any person in a class of persons) given an order under subsection (1) who, without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails to comply with the order shall be guilty of an offence. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) Notice of the appropriate Minister’s written order must be published in the Gazette for general information. [5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s46
chapter: PART 6 - VACCINATION AND OTHER PROPHYLAXIS
section: 46
title: Responsibility of parent or guardian
content:
46. —(1) The parent or guardian of every child in Singapore must ensure that the child is vaccinated against the diseases set out in the Fourth Schedule. (2) The Registrar‑General of Births and Deaths must, immediately after the registration of the birth of a child, issue to the parent or guardian of the child a notice requiring the child to be vaccinated against the diseases to which this section applies. [10/2008] [Act 17 of 2021 wef 29/05/2022]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s47
chapter: PART 6 - VACCINATION AND OTHER PROPHYLAXIS
section: 47
title: Power to order certain persons to undergo vaccination or other prophylaxis
content:
47. —(1) In an outbreak or a suspected outbreak of any infectious disease in any area in Singapore, the Director-General of Health may by order direct any person or class of persons not protected or vaccinated against the disease to undergo vaccination or other prophylaxis within the period specified in the order. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) In addition to the power conferred by subsection (1), where it appears to the Director-General of Health that — ( a ) an outbreak of an infectious disease in any area in Singapore is imminent; and ( b ) it is necessary or expedient to do so for the securing of public safety, the Director-General of Health may by order direct any person or class of persons not protected or vaccinated against that infectious disease to undergo vaccination or other prophylaxis within the period specified in the order. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) Any order made under subsection (1) or (2) may specify the person by whom and the manner in which the vaccination or other prophylaxis is to be carried out. [10/2008] (4) Where any order is made under subsection (1) or (2), the Director-General of Health must cause notice of the effect of the order to be given in such a manner as the Director-General of Health thinks necessary for bringing it to the notice of all persons who in the opinion of the Director‑General of Health ought to have notice of it. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s48
chapter: PART 6 - VACCINATION AND OTHER PROPHYLAXIS
section: 48
title: Vaccination
content:
48. —(1) [ Deleted by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ] (2) Any person who carries out any vaccination must — ( a ) keep in the prescribed manner a record of all vaccination carried out by him or her; and [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) within the prescribed period after carrying out any vaccination, notify in the prescribed manner — (i) the Director-General of Health or any officer of the Communicable Diseases Agency who is designated by the Director-General of Health for the purpose; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 4 of 2025 wef 01/04/2025] (ii) the person on whom the vaccination was carried out or, if such person is a child, to the parent or guardian of the child. [5/2003; 10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s49
chapter: PART 6 - VACCINATION AND OTHER PROPHYLAXIS
section: 49
title: Exemption from vaccination
content:
49. The Director-General of Health, or any officer of the Communicable Diseases Agency who is designated by the Director-General of Health for the purpose, may grant the postponement of or exemption from any vaccination required under this Part as he or she thinks fit. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 4 of 2025 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s50
chapter: PART 6 - VACCINATION AND OTHER PROPHYLAXIS
section: 50
title: Certificates of unfitness
content:
50. —(1) If any medical practitioner is of the opinion that any person is not fit to be vaccinated, the medical practitioner must immediately deliver to that person or, in the case of a child, to the parent or guardian of the child an exemption certificate in such form as the Director-General of Health may require. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) Such exemption certificate remains in force for such period as may be specified therein. (3) Before the expiry of the exemption certificate the person must go, or the parent or guardian of the child must take or cause the child to be taken, to a medical practitioner who must then examine and vaccinate the person or child or give a further exemption certificate in respect of that person or child in such form as the Director-General of Health may require. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) Any medical practitioner who issues an exemption certificate under this section must, within the prescribed time and in such form or manner as the Director-General of Health may require, notify the Director-General of Health or an officer of the Communicable Diseases Agency who is designated by the Director-General of Health for the purpose. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 4 of 2025 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s51
chapter: PART 6 - VACCINATION AND OTHER PROPHYLAXIS
section: 51
title: Offence
content:
51. Any person who contravenes any provision of this Part, or fails to comply with any notice given under section 46 or order made under section 47, shall be guilty of an offence.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s52
chapter: PART 6 - VACCINATION AND OTHER PROPHYLAXIS
section: 52
title: Suspension of this Part
content:
52. —(1) The appropriate Minister may, by notification in the Gazette , suspend all or any of the provisions of this Part during an epidemic of any infectious disease. [5/2019] (2) The appropriate Minister must, on the termination of the epidemic, by notification in the Gazette restore the provisions of this Part that he or she has suspended and order all persons affected by the suspension to perform within such time as he or she may specify all acts that remained to be performed by reason of the suspension. [5/2019] 53. [ Repealed by Act 10 of 2008 ]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s54
chapter: PART 6 - VACCINATION AND OTHER PROPHYLAXIS
section: 54
title: Fees for vaccinations and other prophylaxis
content:
54. The appropriate Minister may by notification in the Gazette prescribe the fees that may be charged by persons who carry out any vaccination or other prophylaxis under the provisions of this Act. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s55
chapter: PART 7 - ENFORCEMENT
section: 55
title:
Powers of Director-General of Health and Health Officers in dealing with outbreaks and suspected outbreaks of infectious diseases

content:
55. —(1) For the purpose of investigating into any outbreak or suspected outbreak of an infectious disease or for the purpose of preventing the spread or possible outbreak of an infectious disease, the Director-General of Health or any Health Officer authorised by the Director-General of Health may — ( a ) at any time without warrant and with such force as may be necessary — (i) enter, inspect and search any premises; or (ii) stop, board, inspect and search any conveyance, in which the outbreak or suspected outbreak has taken place; ( b ) take samples of any substance or matter, wherever found, if the Director-General of Health or Health Officer has reason to believe that the substance or matter is the cause of, is contributory to or is otherwise connected with, the occurrence of the outbreak or suspected outbreak, and send those samples for such test, examination or analysis as the Director-General of Health or Health Officer may consider necessary or expedient; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( c ) seize any substance or matter, wherever found, if the Director-General of Health or Health Officer has reason to believe that that substance or matter is the cause of, is contributory to or is otherwise connected with, the occurrence of the outbreak or suspected outbreak; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( d ) require any person or class of persons to destroy any food in the possession of the person or those persons, in such manner and within such time as he or she may specify, and impose any requirement that the Director-General of Health or Health Officer thinks fit in relation to the destruction of the food, if the Director-General of Health or Health Officer has reason to believe that the food is the cause of, is contributory to or is otherwise connected with, the occurrence of the outbreak or suspected outbreak; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( e ) require any person or class of persons — (i) to furnish any information within the knowledge of the person or any person in that class of persons; or [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (ii) to produce any book, document or other record which may be in the custody or possession of the person or any person in that class of persons for inspection by the Director-General of Health or Health Officer and the making of copies thereof, or to provide the Director-General of Health or Health Officer with copies of such book, document or other record, [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] within such time and in such form or manner as the Director-General of Health or Health Officer may specify and may, if necessary, further require the person to attend at a specified time and place for the purposes of complying with sub‑paragraph (i) or (ii); [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( f ) require, by written notice, any person who is, or is suspected to be, a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease to submit to medical examination and have his or her blood or other body sample taken for examination within or at such time, and at such place, and comply with such other measure relating to the medical examination, as may be specified in the notice, and to undergo such treatment as may be necessary; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( g ) subject to subsection (5), order the closure or cordoning off of any public place in which the outbreak or suspected outbreak, or the transmission or suspected transmission, of an infectious disease has taken place, and require the owner or occupier of the public place to carry out any additional measures that the Director-General of Health or Health Officer considers necessary, in the manner and within the time specified in the order; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( h ) subject to subsections (6) and (7), requisition, for such period as the Director-General of Health or Health Officer thinks necessary — (i) any premises (including any facility or equipment in those premises) which, in his or her opinion, is suitable for the isolation and treatment of persons who are, or are reasonably suspected to be, cases or at-risk individuals of the infectious disease; and [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (ii) any conveyance which, in his or her opinion, is suitable and necessary for use in connection with the prevention of the spread or possible outbreak of the infectious disease; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( i ) by order prohibit or restrict the movement of any person or class of persons, animals and conveyances into, within or out of any public place mentioned in paragraph ( g ) or any premises mentioned in paragraph ( h )(i), subject to any condition that the Director-General of Health thinks fit. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Where the Director-General of Health or Health Officer seizes any substance or matter under subsection (1)( c ) — ( a ) the Director-General of Health or Health Officer must immediately give written notice of the seizure to the owner of, or to the person from whom, the substance or matter was seized and may — (i) direct that the substance or matter under seizure be kept or stored in the premises or conveyance where it was seized or be removed to any other place to be kept or stored there; or (ii) dispose of the substance or matter immediately if the Director-General of Health or Health Officer is of the view that the substance or matter is decayed, putrefied or deleterious to health; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) any person aggrieved by the seizure may, within 48 hours after the seizure, complain to a Magistrate’s Court and the Magistrate’s Court may — (i) confirm the seizure wholly or in part; (ii) disallow the seizure wholly or in part; (iii) order that any substance or matter that has been seized be returned to its owner, subject to any condition which the Court may think fit to impose to ensure that the substance or matter is preserved for any purpose for which it may subsequently be required; or (iv) order payment to be made to the owner of or person entitled to the substance or matter seized of such amount as the Court considers reasonable compensation to the owner or person for any loss or depreciation resulting from the seizure. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) Where — ( a ) no complaint is received by the Magistrate’s Court within 48 hours of the seizure under subsection (2)( b ); or ( b ) the Magistrate’s Court confirms the seizure under subsection (2)( b )(i), the substance or matter seized in its entirety or to the extent to which its seizure was confirmed by the Magistrate’s Court (as the case may be) becomes the property of the Government and must be disposed of in the manner that the Director-General of Health thinks fit. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) A person (including a person in a class of persons) must comply with a requirement under subsection (1)( e ) to disclose information or produce documents to the Director-General of Health despite any restriction on the disclosure of the information or documents imposed by any written law, rule of law, rule of professional conduct or contract; and the person must not by so doing be treated as being in breach of any such restriction despite anything to the contrary in that law, rule or contract. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (5) The power referred to in subsection (1)( g ) does not apply in respect of any public place where the power to order the closure or cordoning off of such public place in the same circumstances has been conferred by any other written law on some other public officer or statutory body. (6) Any premises that are unoccupied may be requisitioned under subsection (1)( h ) without notice being given to the owner of the premises, but premises that are occupied must not be so requisitioned unless a written notice has been served on the owner or occupier or posted in a conspicuous position at those premises. (7) Where any premises or conveyance is requisitioned under subsection (1)( h ), the owner or occupier of the premises or the owner or person having control and possession of the conveyance is entitled to a reasonable compensation for the occupation of the premises during the period of requisition, or for the use and detention of the conveyance, as the case may be. (8) Any person (including any person in a class of persons) who fails to comply with any requirement or order made by the Director-General of Health or a Health Officer under subsection (1)( d ), ( e ), ( f ), ( g ) or ( i ) shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (9) For the purposes of subsection (1)( e ), where any document or record required by the Director-General of Health or a Health Officer is kept in electronic form, then — ( a ) the power of the Director-General of Health or Health Officer to require the document or record to be produced for inspection includes the power to require a copy of the document or record to be made available for inspection in legible form; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) the power of the Director-General of Health or Health Officer to inspect the document or record includes the power to require any person or class of persons on the premises in question to give the Director-General of Health or Health Officer such assistance as the Director-General of Health or Health Officer may reasonably require to enable him or her to inspect and make copies of the document or record in legible form or to make records of the information contained in the document or record. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s55A
chapter: PART 7 - ENFORCEMENT
section: 55A
title: Powers of investigation
content:
55A. —(1) For the purposes of an investigation into an offence punishable under this Act, any police officer, or any Health Officer who is authorised in writing in that behalf by the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health, may — ( a ) require any person or class of persons, within such time and in such manner as the Director-General of Public Health, the Director-General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health may specify — (i) to furnish any information within the knowledge of the person or any person in that class of persons; or [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (ii) to produce any book, document or other record which may be in the custody or possession of the person or any person in that class of persons for inspection by the police officer or Health Officer and the making of copies thereof, or to provide the police officer or Health Officer with copies of such book, document or other record, [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] and may, if necessary, further require the person to attend at a specified time and place for the purposes of complying with sub‑paragraph (i) or (ii); [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) at any time without warrant and with such force as may be necessary, stop, board, enter, inspect and search any premises or conveyance; ( c ) take samples of or seize any substance or matter found in any premises or conveyance mentioned in paragraph ( b ); and ( d ) seize any book, document or record produced under paragraph ( a ) or found in any premises or conveyance mentioned in paragraph ( b ). [10/2008; 5/2019; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) A statement made by any person giving evidence under subsection (1)( a ) — ( a ) must be reduced to writing and read over to the person; and ( b ) must, after correction (if any), be signed by the person. [10/2008] (3) Any person (including any person in a class of persons) who, without reasonable excuse — ( a ) refuses or fails to comply with any requirement of a police officer or Health Officer under subsection (1); or ( b ) refuses to answer or gives a false answer to any question put to him or her by a police officer or Health Officer, shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) For the purposes of subsection (3), it is a reasonable excuse for a person to refuse or fail to furnish any information, produce any book, document or other record or answer any question if doing so might tend to incriminate him or her. [10/2008] (5) For the purposes of subsection (1)( a )(i), where any document or record required by a police officer or Health Officer is kept in electronic form, then — ( a ) the power of the police officer or Health Officer to require the document or record to be produced for inspection includes the power to require a copy of the document or record to be made available for inspection in legible form; and ( b ) the power of the police officer or Health Officer to inspect the document or record includes the power to require any person on the premises in question to give the police officer or Health Officer such assistance as the police officer or Health Officer may reasonably require to enable him or her to inspect and make copies of the document or record in legible form or to make records of the information contained in the document or record. [10/2008]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s55B
chapter: PART 7 - ENFORCEMENT
section: 55B
title: Disposal of document, substance or matter
content:
55B. —(1) Any book, document, record, sample, substance or matter (called in this section the document, substance or matter) produced, taken or seized under this Act must — ( a ) where the document, substance or matter is produced in any criminal trial, be dealt with in accordance with section 364(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010; ( b ) where the owner of the document, substance or matter consents to its disposal, be deemed to be forfeited; or ( c ) in any other case, be returned to the owner or reported to a Magistrate’s Court. [5/2019] (2) Where a document, substance or matter is reported to a Magistrate’s Court under subsection (1)( c ), the Magistrate’s Court may order the document, substance or matter — ( a ) to be forfeited; or ( b ) to be disposed of in the manner that the Magistrate’s Court thinks fit. [5/2019] (3) Subject to any order to the contrary by the Magistrate’s Court, if the document, substance or matter is forfeited or deemed to be forfeited under this section, the document, substance or matter must be delivered to the Director-General of Health and must be disposed of in the manner that the Director-General of Health thinks fit. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) This section does not affect any right to retain or dispose of property which may exist in law apart from this section. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s56
chapter: PART 7 - ENFORCEMENT
section: 56
title: Powers of arrest and detention
content:
56. —(1) Any police officer, or any Health Officer appointed under section 4(1)( a ), ( b ) or ( e ) and authorised in writing by the appropriate Minister, may arrest without warrant any person committing or who he or she has reason to believe has committed any offence under section 11(1), 20(3), 21A(4), 23(3), 24(3) or 55(8). [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Subject to subsection (1), any police officer, or any Health Officer appointed under section 4(1)( a ), ( b ) or ( e ) and authorised in writing by the appropriate Minister, may arrest without warrant any person committing or who he or she has reason to believe has committed any offence under this Act if — ( a ) the name and address of the person are unknown to him or her; ( b ) the person declines to give the person’s name and address; ( c ) the person gives an address outside Singapore; or ( d ) there is reason to doubt the accuracy of the name and address if given. [10/2008; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) Subject to subsection (8), any police officer, or any Health Officer appointed under section 4(1)( a ), ( b ) or ( e ) and authorised in writing by the appropriate Minister, may arrest without warrant any person who — ( a ) being required to be isolated in any place under the provisions of this Act, has failed to proceed to that place or has left or attempted to leave that place; ( b ) being required to undergo or submit to any surveillance, medical examination or medical treatment under the provisions of this Act, has failed to undergo or submit to the surveillance, examination or treatment or comply with any condition relating to the surveillance; or ( c ) being required to comply with any requirement mentioned in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ), attempts to leave Singapore without the approval of the Director-General of Health. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (4) Any person who, being required to comply with any requirement mentioned in subsection (3)( a ) or ( b ), attempts to leave Singapore without the approval of the Director-General of Health shall be guilty of an offence. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) Any person arrested under subsection (2) must, within 24 hours from the arrest or immediately in the case of a person who gives his or her address as a place outside Singapore, be taken before a Magistrate’s Court, unless before that time his or her true name and residence are ascertained, in which case the person must be immediately released on his or her executing a bond with or without sureties before a police officer not below the rank of inspector for the person’s appearance before a Magistrate’s Court, if so required. [10/2008] (6) Without affecting subsection (5), a person arrested must not be detained longer than is necessary for bringing him or her before a court, and in any case, not longer than 48 hours (excluding the time of any necessary journey), unless the order of a court for his or her detention is obtained. [10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (7) The Director-General of Health may issue any order under this Act for the isolation, surveillance, medical examination or medical treatment of a person arrested under subsection (3). [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (8) A police officer or Health Officer authorised in writing by the Director-General of Health for the purposes of this subsection may, in relation to a person in default under subsection (3)( a ), ( b ) or ( c ), take any of the following measures, whereupon the person is not to be arrested under subsection (3) in respect of the default: ( a ) in a case where that person is to be isolated — (i) to cause that person to be taken to the place where he or she is to be isolated; or (ii) to ensure that the person remains in isolation in his or her own dwelling place, for such period of time and subject to such conditions as the Director-General of Health thinks necessary for the protection of the public; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) in a case where that person is to undergo surveillance, to cause that person to undergo surveillance for such period of time and subject to such conditions as the Director-General of Health thinks necessary for the protection of the public; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( c ) in a case where that person is to undergo medical examination or medical treatment, to cause that person to be medically examined or treated, subject to such conditions as the Director-General of Health thinks fit. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (9) The measures mentioned in subsection (8) may extend to — ( a ) the entry into any premises without a warrant; and ( b ) the use of such force as may be necessary. [10/2008] (10) Any person arrested without warrant under this Act may be detained while awaiting trial or in remand at — ( a ) a lock-up appointed as a place of confinement under section 4(1) of the Prisons Act 1933; or ( b ) an immigration depot designated under the Immigration Act 1959. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] 56A. [ Repealed by Act 10 of 2008 ]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s57
chapter: PART 7 - ENFORCEMENT
section: 57
title: Police officer or Health Officer may demand names and addresses in certain cases
content:
57. —(1) Any person who is required by any police officer, or by any Health Officer authorised in that behalf by the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health, must on demand give the person’s name and address and other proof of identity to the police officer or Health Officer, as the case may be. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) The occupier of any premises must, if required by any police officer or by a Health Officer authorised in that behalf by the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health, give the occupier’s name and address and other proof of identity and the name and address of the owner of the premises, if known. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) Any person who fails to comply with any requirement properly made to the person by a police officer or Health Officer under subsection (1) or (2), or wilfully mis‑states the person’s name and address or the name and address of the owner of any premises, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $500.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s57A
chapter: PART 7 - ENFORCEMENT
section: 57A
title:
Disclosure of information by Director-General of Health to prevent spread or possible outbreak of infectious disease, etc.

content:
57A. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), the Director-General of Health may disclose any information obtained by him or her under this Act which identifies any person who is, or is suspected to be, a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease — ( a ) to any person if the disclosure is necessary for the person to take measures to prevent the spread or possible outbreak of the infectious disease; or ( b ) to the World Health Organization or a State Party to the World Health Organization if the disclosure is necessary to comply with an international obligation of Singapore. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) The Director-General of Health may, in disclosing any information to any person under subsection (1)( a ), impose any conditions that the Director-General of Health thinks fit and the person to whom the information is disclosed must comply with the conditions. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) A person to whom the Director-General of Health has disclosed any information under subsection (1)( a ) may only disclose or use the information to the extent necessary for implementing any measure permitted by the Director-General of Health for the purpose of preventing the spread or possible outbreak of that infectious disease, but not otherwise. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) Any person who — ( a ) fails to comply with any condition imposed under subsection (2); or ( b ) contravenes subsection (3), shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2008; 5/2019] (5) This section applies without affecting any other right of disclosure under this Act or any other written law or rule of law. [10/2008] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s57B
chapter: PART 7 - ENFORCEMENT
section: 57B
title:
Disclosure of information to prevent spread or possible outbreak of infectious disease, etc., as authorised by Director-General of Health

content:
57B. —(1) The Director-General of Health may, by written notice, authorise a healthcare provider to disclose to a specified recipient information, which identifies any person — ( a ) as a case or an at-risk individual of an infectious disease (called in this section the affected person); or [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) as being suspected to be an affected person, to enable the specified recipient to take the necessary measures to prevent the spread or possible outbreak of the infectious disease. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) The Director-General of Health may, in authorising the disclosure of any information under subsection (1) by a healthcare provider, impose any conditions on the healthcare provider or the specified recipient of that information, and the healthcare provider or specified recipient (as the case may be) must comply with the conditions. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) A specified recipient of information provided under subsection (1) may disclose that information to another person providing a prescribed healthcare service to an affected person on behalf of the specified recipient, or use that information, only to the extent necessary to take the necessary measures to prevent the spread or possible outbreak of that infectious disease, but not otherwise. [5/2019] (4) Any person who, without reasonable excuse — ( a ) fails to comply with any condition imposed under subsection (2); or ( b ) contravenes subsection (3), shall be guilty of an offence. [5/2019] (5) This section does not affect any other right of disclosure under any written law or rule of law. [5/2019] (6) In this section — “healthcare provider” means any person that provides a prescribed healthcare service; “prescribed healthcare service” means any healthcare service prescribed for the purposes of this section; “specified recipient” means any person that provides a prescribed healthcare service to an affected person. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] 58. [ Repealed by Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024 ]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s59
chapter: PART 7 - ENFORCEMENT
section: 59
title: Police assistance
content:
59. The Commissioner of Police must provide such police assistance as may be necessary to carry out any of the provisions of this Act.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s59A
chapter: PART 7A - NATIONAL PUBLIC HEALTH RESEARCH
section: 59A
title: National public health research
content:
59A. —(1) The Director-General of Health may, if the Director-General of Health considers it to be in the public interest, from time to time undertake or facilitate any research that the Director-General of Health thinks is necessary to increase or acquire new knowledge on, or to discover or create new or improved materials, devices, processes or products for the detection, prevention or treatment of — ( a ) any infectious disease; or ( b ) any other disease which is, or which the appropriate Minister suspects to be, of an infectious nature, and which the appropriate Minister, by notification in the Gazette , declares to be a disease to which this section applies. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) In deciding whether to undertake or facilitate any research under subsection (1), the Director-General of Health must consider the extent to which all or any of the following factors exist: ( a ) whether there is an outbreak or a significant likelihood of an outbreak in Singapore of the disease to which the research relates; ( b ) whether the disease to which the research relates poses a substantial risk of a significant number of human fatalities or incidents of serious disability in Singapore; ( c ) whether the new knowledge that may be acquired or the new or improved materials, devices, processes or products that may be discovered or created as a result of the research will result in any significant public health benefit to Singapore. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) For the purposes of any national public health research, the Director-General of Health may — ( a ) require any person or class of persons to provide the Director-General of Health, within such time as the Director-General of Health may specify, with — (i) such information in the possession or control of that person or any person in that class of persons as the Director-General of Health may consider necessary or appropriate; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (ii) any sample (including any human sample) in the possession or control of that person or any person in that class of persons, whether taken pursuant to this Act or otherwise, as the Director-General of Health may consider necessary or appropriate; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( b ) require any medical practitioner, over such period as the Director-General of Health may specify, to obtain, with the requisite consent, such information or samples (including human samples) as the Director-General of Health may consider necessary or appropriate from the patients under the medical practitioner’s care, and to provide the information or samples to the Director-General of Health; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( ba ) impose any condition that the Director-General of Health thinks fit on any person mentioned in paragraph ( a ) or any medical practitioner mentioned in paragraph ( b ) relating to the provision or obtaining of the information or sample; and [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( c ) use any other information or samples obtained by the Director-General of Health under this Act. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (4) Where any person is required by the Director-General of Health to furnish any information or human sample under subsection (3), the person must cause the information or human sample to be anonymised before it is furnished to the Director-General of Health, unless the Director-General of Health directs otherwise. [10/2008; 5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (5) For the purpose of any national public health research, the Director-General of Health may do all or any of the following: ( a ) send any information or sample received by the Director-General of Health under this Act to a third party to carry out such test, examination or analysis as the Director-General of Health may consider necessary; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) provide any information or sample received by the Director-General of Health under this Act to a third party who is engaged in any national public health research; [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( c ) impose any conditions that the Director-General of Health thinks fit on the third party mentioned in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ). [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (6) If the Director-General of Health is satisfied that any national public health research can be carried out only if any individually‑identifiable information or individually‑identifiable human sample is provided under this section, the Director-General of Health may require, use, send or provide that individually‑identifiable information or individually‑identifiable human sample under this section for the purposes of the national public health research. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (7) It shall be an offence for any person (including any person in a class of persons) — ( a ) without reasonable excuse, to refuse to provide any information or sample when required to do so by the Director-General of Health under subsection (3); [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) to deliberately identify or attempt to identify, from any anonymised information or human sample received by the person from the Director-General of Health pursuant to subsection (5), the identity of the individual to whom the information relates or from whom the human sample was obtained; or [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( c ) to breach any condition imposed under subsection (3) or (5). [10/2008] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (8) In this section — “anonymised”, in relation to any information or human sample, means the removal of identifying details from the information or sample so that the identity of the individual from whom the information or sample was obtained cannot be readily discovered or ascertained by the recipient of the information or sample; “human sample” means a specimen of any substance or matter obtained from any individual; “national public health research” means any research that the Director-General of Health decides to undertake or facilitate under subsection (1); [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] “requisite consent” means — ( a ) the consent, given in the prescribed form and manner, of the person from whom any information or sample is to be obtained under subsection (3)( b ); or ( b ) where the person mentioned in paragraph ( a ) is unable to give his or her own consent because of age, infirmity of mind or body or any other cause, the consent, given in the prescribed form and manner, of such other individual who is authorised by the regulations to give consent for and on behalf of the person. [10/2008; 5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s60
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 60
title: Service of notices, orders or other documents
content:
60. —(1) Any notice, order or other document required or authorised by this Act to be served on any person may be served — ( a ) by delivering it to the person or to an adult member or employee of his or her family or household at his or her usual or last known place of residence; ( b ) by leaving it at his or her usual or last known place of residence or business in an envelope addressed to the person; ( c ) by sending it by post to him or her at his or her usual or last known place of residence or place of business in Singapore; ( d ) in the case of a body corporate (including a limited liability partnership), by — (i) delivering it to the secretary of the body corporate or similar officer, or the manager of the limited liability partnership, at the body corporate’s registered office or principal office; or (ii) sending it by post to the secretary or similar officer or manager (as the case may be) at that registered office or principal office; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( da ) in the case of a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), by — (i) delivering it to any partner or other similar officer of the partnership; or (ii) sending it by post to the partnership’s business address; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( e ) if the document is to be served on the master of a vessel or on a person on board a vessel, by delivering it to any person being or appearing to be in command or charge of the vessel; or ( f ) if the document is to be served on the master of a vessel and there is no master, by serving it on the owner of the vessel or on the agent of the owner or, where no such agent is known or can be found, by affixing it on a conspicuous part of the vessel. (1A) In addition, any notice, order or other document required or authorised by this Act to be served on any person may be served — ( a ) by sending it by email to the last email address of the person; ( b ) by sending a text message to the last mobile telephone number of the person using short message service, and such text message may include the address of a website on which the conditions or other information relating to the notice, order or other document is published; or ( c ) by giving an electronic notice to the person by the person’s chosen means of notification, and such electronic notice may include the address of a website on which the conditions or other information relating to the notice, order or other document is published. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (1B) However, service of any notice, order or other document under this Act on a person under subsection (1A) may be effected only with that person’s prior consent (express or implied) to service in that way. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (1C) A notice, order or other document served in accordance with subsection (1A) takes effect at the time the notice, order or document becomes capable of being retrieved by the person to whom it is served. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (2) Any notice, order or other document required by this Act to be served on the owner or occupier of any premises or vessel or on the master of any vessel is deemed to be properly addressed if addressed by the description of the “owner” or “occupier” or “master” of the premises or vessel (as the case may be) without specifying any further name or description. (2A) Any notice, order or other document required by this Act to be served on the owner of any vehicle is deemed to be properly addressed if addressed by the description of the “owner” of the vehicle without specifying any further name or description. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (3) A notice, order or other document required by this Act to be served on the owner or occupier of any premises may be served by delivering it to an adult person on the premises or, if there is no such person on the premises to whom the same can with reasonable diligence be delivered, by affixing it on a conspicuous part of the premises. (4) This section does not apply to any document to be served in proceedings in court. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] (5) In this section — “chosen means of notification” means an electronic means that the addressee nominates to the person giving or serving the notice, order or document as the means by which the addressee may be notified that such a notice, order or document has been served on the addressee; “last email address” means — ( a ) the last email address given by the addressee to the person giving or serving the notice, order or other document as the email address for the service of notices, orders or documents under this Act; or ( b ) the last email address of the addressee known to the person giving or serving the notice, order or document; “last mobile telephone number” means — ( a ) the last mobile telephone number given by the addressee to the person giving or serving the notice, order or other document as the mobile telephone number for the service of notices, orders or documents under this Act; or ( b ) the last mobile telephone number of the addressee known to the person giving or serving the notice, order or document. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s61
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 61
title: Default in compliance with notice, order or document
content:
61. Where any person is charged with an offence under this Act in respect of a default in complying with a requirement of a notice, order or other document, it is a defence for the person to prove that the person had a reasonable excuse for the default. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s62
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 62
title: Inaccuracies in documents
content:
62. —(1) Any misnomer or inaccurate description of any person, thing or place named or described in any document prepared, issued or served under or for the purposes of this Act does not in any way affect the operation of this Act as respects that person, thing or place if that person, thing or place is so designated in the document as to be identifiable. (2) No proceedings taken under this Act shall be invalid for want of form.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s63
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 63
title: Evidence
content:
63. —(1) All records, registers and other documents kept by the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration, the Director-General of Health, any Port Health Officer, Health Officer, adjunct Health Officer or officer of the Communicable Diseases Agency for the purposes of this Act are deemed to be public documents, and copies thereof or extracts therefrom certified by the officer responsible for the custody thereof to be true copies or extracts (as the case may be) subscribed by such officer with his or her name and his or her official title are admissible in evidence as proof of the contents of the documents or extracts from the documents. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] [Act 4 of 2025 wef 01/04/2025] (2) In any proceedings for the recovery of costs and expenses incurred by the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration, the Director-General of Health, a Port Health Officer, a Health Officer or an adjunct Health Officer, a certificate purporting to be under the hand of the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health and specifying — ( a ) the costs and expenses claimed as due and payable; and ( b ) the person named in the certificate as liable for the payment of the costs and expenses, is prima facie evidence of the facts certified and of the signature of the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or the Director-General of Health thereto, as the case may be. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s64
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 64
title: Obstruction of persons executing power, etc.
content:
64. Any person who — ( a ) in any way hinders or obstructs or assists in hindering or obstructing any person in the exercise of any power conferred by this Act; or ( b ) being required to provide any information or documents under this Act (including as a condition of any order, notice or requirement made or given), provides any information or document which the person knows to be false or misleading, shall be guilty of an offence.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s65
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 65
title: General penalties
content:
65. Any person guilty of an offence under this Act for which no penalty is expressly provided shall — ( a ) in the case of a first offence, be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both; and ( b ) in the case of a second or subsequent offence, be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s66
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 66
title: Offences triable by Magistrate’s Court
content:
66. Every offence under this Act may be tried by a Magistrate’s Court, and that Court may, despite anything in the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, award the full punishment with which the offence is punishable.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s67
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 67
title: Protection from personal liability
content:
67. No liability shall lie personally against the Director‑General of Health, the Director‑General of Public Health, the Director‑General, Food Administration or any Health Officer, adjunct Health Officer, Port Health Officer or police officer who, acting in good faith and with reasonable care, does or omits to do anything in the execution or purported execution of this Act. [5/2019; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s67A
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 67A
title: Immunity from liability for disclosure
content:
67A. No person commits an offence under any written law or any breach of confidence, incurs any civil liability or is liable to any disciplinary action by a professional body, by virtue merely of disclosing any information or providing any thing, in good faith and with reasonable care — ( a ) in accordance with any requirement under this Act; or ( b ) as authorised by the Director-General of Health under section 57B. [5/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s67B
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 67B
title: Offences by corporations
content:
67B. —(1) Where, in a proceeding for an offence under this Act, it is necessary to prove the state of mind of a corporation in relation to a particular conduct, evidence that — ( a ) an officer, employee or agent of the corporation engaged in that conduct within the scope of his or her actual or apparent authority; and ( b ) the officer, employee or agent had that state of mind, is evidence that the corporation had that state of mind. [5/2019] (2) Where a corporation commits an offence under this Act, a person — ( a ) who is — (i) an officer of the corporation, or a member of a corporation (in the case where the affairs of the corporation are managed by its members); or (ii) an individual involved in the management of the corporation and in a position to influence the conduct of the corporation in relation to the commission of the offence; and ( b ) who — (i) consented or connived, or conspired with others, to effect the commission of the offence; (ii) is in any other way, whether by act or omission, knowingly concerned in, or is party to, the commission of the offence by the corporation; or (iii) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the offence by the corporation (or an offence of the same type) would be or is being committed, and failed to take all reasonable steps to prevent or stop the commission of that offence, shall be guilty of that same offence as is the corporation, and shall be liable on conviction to be punished accordingly. [5/2019] (3) A person mentioned in subsection (2) may rely on a defence that would be available to the corporation if it were charged with the offence with which the person is charged and, in doing so, the person bears the same burden of proof that the corporation would bear. [5/2019] (4) To avoid doubt, this section does not affect the application of — ( a ) Chapters 5 and 5A of the Penal Code 1871; or ( b ) the Evidence Act 1893 or any other law or practice regarding the admissibility of evidence. [5/2019] (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) also does not affect the liability of the corporation for an offence under this Act, and applies whether or not the corporation is convicted of the offence. [5/2019] (6) In this section — “corporation” includes a limited liability partnership within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; “officer”, in relation to a corporation, means any director, partner, chief executive, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the corporation, and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “state of mind” of a person includes — ( a ) the knowledge, intention, opinion, belief or purpose of the person; and ( b ) the person’s reasons for the intention, opinion, belief or purpose. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s67C
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 67C
title: Offences by unincorporated associations or partnerships
content:
67C. —(1) Where, in a proceeding for an offence under this Act, it is necessary to prove the state of mind of an unincorporated association or a partnership in relation to a particular conduct, evidence that — ( a ) an employee or agent of the unincorporated association or the partnership engaged in that conduct within the scope of his or her actual or apparent authority; and ( b ) the employee or agent had that state of mind, is evidence that the unincorporated association or partnership had that state of mind. [5/2019] (2) Where an unincorporated association or a partnership commits an offence under this Act, a person — ( a ) who is — (i) an officer of the unincorporated association or a member of its governing body; (ii) a partner in the partnership; or (iii) an individual involved in the management of the unincorporated association or partnership and in a position to influence the conduct of the unincorporated association or partnership (as the case may be) in relation to the commission of the offence; and ( b ) who — (i) consented or connived, or conspired with others, to effect the commission of the offence; (ii) is in any other way, whether by act or omission, knowingly concerned in, or is party to, the commission of the offence by the unincorporated association or partnership; or (iii) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the offence by the unincorporated association or partnership (or an offence of the same type) would be or is being committed, and failed to take all reasonable steps to prevent or stop the commission of that offence, shall be guilty of the same offence as is that unincorporated association or partnership, and shall be liable on conviction to be punished accordingly. [5/2019] (3) A person mentioned in subsection (2) may rely on a defence that would be available to the unincorporated association or partnership if it were charged with the offence with which the person is charged and, in doing so, the person bears the same burden of proof that the unincorporated association or partnership would bear. [5/2019] (4) To avoid doubt, this section does not affect the application of — ( a ) Chapters 5 and 5A of the Penal Code 1871; or ( b ) the Evidence Act 1893 or any other law or practice regarding the admissibility of evidence. [5/2019] (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) also does not affect the liability of an unincorporated association or a partnership for an offence under this Act, and applies whether or not the unincorporated association or partnership is convicted of the offence. [5/2019] (6) In this section — “officer”, in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary, or any member of the committee of the unincorporated association, and includes — ( a ) any person holding a position analogous to that of president, secretary or member of a committee of the unincorporated association; and ( b ) any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner; “state of mind” of a person includes — ( a ) the knowledge, intention, opinion, belief or purpose of the person; and ( b ) the person’s reasons for the intention, opinion, belief or purpose. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s68
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 68
title: Composition of offences
content:
68. —(1) The Director-General of Health may compound any offence under this Act that is not mentioned in subsection (2) or (3) but is prescribed as a compoundable offence by the appropriate Minister under section 73, by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum described in subsection (4). [5/2019; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) The Director-General of Public Health may compound any offence under sections 28, 29, 33 to 37 and 40 to 45 if that is prescribed as a compoundable offence by the appropriate Minister under section 73, by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum described in subsection (4). [5/2019; 11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (3) The Director-General, Food Administration may compound any offence under section 38 or 39 if that is prescribed as a compoundable offence by the appropriate Minister under section 73, by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum described in subsection (4). [11/2019] (4) The composition sum for the purposes of compounding a compoundable offence under subsection (1), (2) or (3) is a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: ( a ) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; ( b ) $5,000. [5/2019] (5) On payment of the sum of money, no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. [5/2019] (6) All sums collected under this section must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [5/2019]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s69
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 69
title: Fees, etc., collected by Director‑General of Health and Director‑General of Public Health
content:
69. —(1) All fees, charges and moneys collected by the Director-General of Health in connection with the administration of this Act must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] (2) All fees, charges and moneys collected by the Director‑General of Public Health in connection with the administration of this Act must be paid to the Agency. [11/2019] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s69A
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 69A
title: Recovery of fees and charges
content:
69A. Except for any fee, charge or money mentioned in section 69(2), any fee or charge payable under this Act may be recovered as a debt due to the Government. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s71
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 71
title: Exemption
content:
71. The appropriate Minister may, subject to such conditions and for such period or periods as he or she thinks fit, exempt any person, premises, vessel, vehicle or article or any class of persons, premises, vessels, vehicles or articles from any of the provisions of this Act.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s72
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 72
title: Other written law not affected
content:
72. Except so far as may be expressly provided in this Act, nothing in this Act limits or affects in any way any other written law.


document_id: ida-1976
provision_ref: s73
chapter: PART 8 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 73
title: Regulations
content:
73. —(1) The appropriate Minister may make regulations for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act for which he or she is responsible. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the appropriate Minister may make regulations with respect to all or any of the following matters: ( a ) the establishment and maintenance of quarantine stations for persons and animals, and for regulating the management of the stations; ( b ) the cleansing, disinfecting, fumigating and treatment of vessels, vehicles and premises; [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024] ( c ) the prohibition on import, export or transhipment of infected merchandise, articles or clothing; ( d ) the prescribing of measures to be taken for the prevention of the spread or transmission of infection by means of any vessel or vehicle departing from any infected area of Singapore; ( e ) the prohibition and regulation of the removal of fodder, litter, dung, human dejecta, wastewater and other things; ( f ) the prescribing of the notification and supply of information by medical practitioners of cases of infectious diseases treated by them; ( g ) the prohibition and regulation of vaccinations and other prophylaxis and the issuance of certificates relating thereto; ( h ) the prescribing of any measure, the prohibition of any act, or the imposing of a duty to do any act, necessary to prevent or control the spread or possible outbreak of an infectious disease; ( i ) the prescribing of fees and charges and of any matter which by this Act is required to be prescribed. [10/2008; 5/2019] (3) The appropriate Minister may, in making any regulations, provide that any contravention of or failure to comply with any regulation shall be an offence punishable with a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. (4) The appropriate Minister may, in making regulations, specify — ( a ) different prescribed times and prescribed infectious diseases in relation to different classes of persons who are required to notify the Director-General of Health under section 6; and [Act 11 of 2023 wef 01/05/2023] ( b ) for the purposes of section 21B — (i) the relevant operators or classes of relevant operators to whom a written order may be given; (ii) the relevant persons or classes of relevant persons to whom a relevant operator or class of relevant operators may be required to disseminate any health advisory; and (iii) the types of information that may be obtained from different relevant operators or classes of relevant operators. [Act 13 of 2024 wef 09/04/2024]


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s2
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “Agreement” means the Articles of Agreement opened for signature at Washington on 24 September 1960 providing for the establishment and operation of the international body known as the International Development Association; “Association” means the International Development Association established by the Agreement; “membership resolution” means the resolution adopted by the Board of Governors of the Association specifying the terms and conditions upon which Singapore is admitted to membership of the Association.


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s3
section: 3
title: Acceptance of Agreement
content:
3. The President may by instrument under his or her hand empower a person named in the instrument, on behalf of the Government — ( a ) to sign the Agreement and such other instruments required for admission to membership of the Association; and ( b ) to deposit with the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development an instrument of acceptance stating that the Government has — (i) accepted without reservation in accordance with the laws of Singapore the Agreement and the terms and conditions of the membership resolution; and (ii) taken all steps necessary to enable the Government to carry out all its obligations under the Agreement and the membership resolution.


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s4
section: 4
title: Financial provision for membership subscriptions
content:
4. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), all sums necessary for the purpose of making all payments of subscriptions on behalf of the Government required to be made to the Association under the Agreement and the membership resolution are charged on and must be paid out of the Consolidated Fund. [10/2004] [Act 34 of 2022 wef 23/12/2022] (2) Subject to subsection (3), the total subscription to the Association must not exceed the sum of one million United States dollars unless increased with the approval of Parliament signified by resolution. [Act 34 of 2022 wef 23/12/2022] (3) Any additional subscription made on any occasion on behalf of the Government to the Association by reason of Singapore’s membership of the Association under the Agreement and the membership resolution must be authorised by, and must not exceed the maximum amount specified in, a resolution of Parliament for that occasion. [Act 34 of 2022 wef 23/12/2022] [Act 34 of 2022 wef 23/12/2022]


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s5
section: 5
title: Issue of non-negotiable notes and creation of other obligations
content:
5. —(1) To the extent to which the Association is prepared to accept from the Government notes or other obligations that are non-interest bearing and non-negotiable and that are payable at their par value on demand in place of any payment that the Government has made, intends to make or is required to make to the Association under section 4, the Minister may, with the concurrence of the President under Article 144(1) of the Constitution, create and issue to the Association, in such form as the Minister thinks fit and as is acceptable to the Association, any such notes or other obligations. (2) Any sums necessary to redeem any notes or obligations issued under subsection (1) is a charge on the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s6
section: 6
title: Power to raise loans
content:
6. —(1) For the purpose of providing any sums required for making payments to the Association under section 4, the Minister may, with the concurrence of the President under Article 144(1)( b ) of the Constitution, raise loans, on behalf of the Government, by the creation and issue of securities bearing such rates of interest and subject to such conditions as to repayment, redemption or otherwise as the Minister thinks fit. (2) The principal and interest of the securities issued under subsection (1) and any expenses incurred in connection with their creation and issue are charged on and must be paid out of the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s7
section: 7
title: Receipts from Association
content:
7. All sums received by or on behalf of the Government from the Association on account of its subscriptions therein or of supplementary resources provided by it under the Agreement must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s8
section: 8
title: Certain provisions of Agreement to have force of law
content:
8. —(1) Despite anything to the contrary in any other written law, the provisions of the Agreement set out in the Schedule have the force of law. (2) Nothing in section 9 of Article VIII of the Agreement is to be construed as — ( a ) entitling the Association to import into Singapore goods free of any duty of customs without any restriction on their subsequent sale in Singapore; or ( b ) conferring on the Association any exemption from taxes or duties which are no more than charges for services rendered. (3) The Minister may, by notification in the Gazette , amend the Schedule in conformity with any amendments to the provisions of the Agreement set out in the Schedule which may subsequently be duly made and adopted.


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s9
section: 9
title: Companies Act 1967 disapplied
content:
9. The Association is not to be regarded as a corporation within the meaning of the Companies Act 1967, and the provisions of that Act do not apply to the Association or to the issue by the Association of any shares, debentures, bonds, notes or other securities.


document_id: idaa-2002
provision_ref: s10
section: 10
title: Power to make regulations
content:
10. —(1) The Minister may make regulations for carrying out or giving effect to the provisions of this Act. (2) All such regulations must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette .


document_id: ifca-1968
provision_ref: s2
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “Agreement” means the Articles of Agreement opened for signature at Washington on 25 May 1955 (as may be subsequently amended) providing for the establishment and operation of the international body known as the International Finance Corporation; “Corporation” means the International Finance Corporation established under the Agreement.


document_id: ifca-1968
provision_ref: s3
section: 3
title: Acceptance of Agreement
content:
3. The President is hereby authorised by instrument under his hand to empower such person as may be named in the instrument, on behalf of the Government — ( a ) to sign the Agreement; and ( b ) to deposit with the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development an instrument of acceptance stating that the Government has accepted without reservation in accordance with the laws of Singapore the Agreement and the terms and conditions of the Resolution by the Board of Governors of the Corporation, dated 8 March 1968, providing for the admission of Singapore to membership, and has taken all steps necessary to enable the Government to carry out all its obligations under the Agreement and the said Resolution.


document_id: ifca-1968
provision_ref: s4
section: 4
title: Financial provisions
content:
4. There shall be charged and paid out of the Consolidated Fund all sums required for the purpose of making payments on behalf of the Government — ( a ) under section 3 of Article II of the Agreement (which provides for the subscription of shares of stock of the Corporation); and ( b ) under section 4 of Article V of the Agreement (which relates to the cessation of membership of the Corporation).


document_id: ifca-1968
provision_ref: s5
section: 5
title: Power to raise loans
content:
5. For the purposes of providing any sums required for making any payments to the Corporation, the Minister with the President’s concurrence under Article 144(1)( b ) of the Constitution may, on behalf of the Government, raise loans by the creation and issue of securities bearing such rates of interests and subject to such conditions as to repayment, redemption or otherwise as he may think fit, and the principal and interest of those securities and any expenses incurred in connection with their issue shall be charged on and paid out of the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: ifca-1968
provision_ref: s6
section: 6
title: Receipts
content:
6. All sums received by or on behalf of the Government from the Corporation shall be paid into the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: ifca-1968
provision_ref: s7
section: 7
title: Certain provisions of Agreement to have force of law
content:
7. —(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in any other written law, the provisions of the Agreement set out in the Schedule shall have the force of law: Provided that nothing in section 9 of Article VI of the Agreement shall be construed as — ( a ) entitling the Corporation to import into Singapore goods free of any duty of customs without any restriction on their subsequent sale therein; ( b ) conferring on the Corporation any exemption from taxes or duties which form part of the price of goods sold; or ( c ) conferring on the Corporation any exemption from taxes or duties which are no more than charges for services rendered. (2) The Minister may, by notification in the Gazette , amend the Schedule in conformity with any amendments to the provisions of the Agreement set out therein which may hereafter be duly made and adopted.


document_id: ifca-1968
provision_ref: s8
section: 8
title: Power to make rules
content:
8. —(1) The Minister may make rules for carrying out or giving effect to the provisions of this Act. (2) Such rules shall be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication.


document_id: ifpa-1966
provision_ref: s1
section: 1
title: Short title and application
content:
1. —(1) This Act is the Inheritance (Family Provision) Act 1966. (2) This Act shall not apply to the estates of deceased Muslims.


document_id: ifpa-1966
provision_ref: s2
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “annual income” means, in relation to the net estate of a deceased person, the income that the net estate might be expected at the date of the order made under this Act, when realised, to yield in a year; “court” means the General Division of the High Court or a Family Court; “death duties” means estate duty and every other duty leviable or payable on death; “net estate” means all the property of which a deceased person had power to dispose by his will (otherwise than by virtue of a special power of appointment) less the amount of his funeral, testamentary and administration expenses, debts and liabilities and estate duty payable out of his estate on his death; “Registrar” means the registrar of the Family Justice Courts; “son” and “daughter”, respectively, include a male or female child adopted by the deceased by virtue of an order made under the provisions of any written law relating to the adoption of children for the time being in force in Singapore, Malaysia or Brunei Darussalam, and also the son or daughter of the deceased en ventre sa mere at the date of the death of the deceased; “will” includes any codicil or other testamentary document. [27/2014; 40/2019]


document_id: ifpa-1966
provision_ref: s3
section: 3
title:
Power for court to order payment out of net estate of deceased for benefit of surviving spouse or child

content:
3. —(1) Where, after 16 September 1966, a person dies domiciled in Singapore leaving — ( a ) a wife or husband; ( b ) a daughter who has not been married or who is, by reason of some mental or physical disability, incapable of maintaining herself; ( c ) an infant son; or ( d ) a son who is, by reason of some mental or physical disability, incapable of maintaining himself, then, if the court on application by or on behalf of any such wife, husband, daughter or son as aforesaid (referred to in this Act as a dependant of the deceased) is of opinion that the disposition of the deceased’s estate effected by his will, or the law relating to intestacy, or the combination of his will and that law, is not such as to make reasonable provision for the maintenance of that dependant, the court may order that such reasonable provision as the court thinks fit shall, subject to such conditions or restrictions, if any, as the court may impose, be made out of the deceased’s net estate for the maintenance of that dependant: Provided that no application shall be made to the court by or on behalf of any person in any case where the disposition of a deceased’s estate effected as aforesaid is such that the surviving spouse is entitled to not less than two‑thirds of the income of the net estate and where the only other dependant or dependants, if any, is or are a child or children of the surviving spouse. (2) The provision for maintenance to be made by an order shall, subject to subsection (4), be by way of periodical payments and the order shall provide for their termination not later than — ( a ) in the case of a wife or husband, her or his remarriage; ( b ) in the case of a daughter who has not been married, or who is under disability, her marriage or the cesser of her disability, whichever is the later; ( c ) in the case of an infant son, his attaining the age of 21 years; ( d ) in the case of a son under disability, the cesser of his disability, or in any case, his or her earlier death. (3) Periodical payments made under subsection (2) to any one dependant shall not be at an annual rate which exceeds the annual income of the net estate, and, where payments are so made to more than one dependant in respect of the same period, the aggregate of the annual rates at which those payments are made shall not exceed the annual income of the net estate. (4) Where the value of a deceased’s net estate does not exceed $50,000, the court shall have power to make an order providing for maintenance, in whole or in part, by way of a lump sum payment. (5) In determining whether, and in what way, and as from what date, provision for maintenance ought to be made by an order, the court shall have regard to the nature of the property representing the deceased’s net estate and shall not order any such provision to be made as would necessitate a realisation that would be improvident having regard to the interests of the deceased’s dependants and of the person who, apart from the order, would be entitled to that property. (6) The court shall, on any application made under this Act, have regard to any past, present or future capital or income from any source of the dependant of the deceased to whom the application relates, to the conduct of that dependant in relation to the deceased and otherwise, and to any other matter or thing which in the circumstances of the case the court may consider relevant or material in relation to that dependant, to persons interested in the estate of the deceased, or otherwise. (7) The court shall also, on any such application, have regard to the deceased’s reasons, so far as ascertainable, for making the dispositions made by his will (if any), or for refraining from disposing by will of his estate or part of his estate, or for not making any provision, or any further provision, as the case may be, for a dependant, and the court may accept such evidence of those reasons as it considers sufficient including any statement in writing signed by the deceased and dated, so, however, that in estimating the weight, if any, to be attached to any such statement the court shall have regard to all the circumstances from which any inference can reasonably be drawn as to the accuracy or otherwise of the statement. (8) The court in considering for the purposes of subsection (1), whether the disposition of the deceased’s estate effected by the law relating to intestacy, or by the combination of the deceased’s will and that law, makes reasonable provision for the maintenance of a dependant shall not be bound to assume that the law relating to intestacy makes reasonable provision in all cases.


document_id: ifpa-1966
provision_ref: s4
section: 4
title: Time within which application must be made
content:
4. —(1) Except as provided by this section or section 6, an order under this Act shall not be made save on an application made within 6 months from the date on which representation in regard to the deceased’s estate is first taken out. (2) If it is shown to the satisfaction of the court that the limitation to the said period of 6 months would operate unfairly — ( a ) in consequence of the discovery of a will or codicil involving a substantial change in the disposition of the deceased’s estate (whether or not involving a further grant of representation); ( b ) in consequence of a question whether a person had an interest in the estate; or as to the nature of an interest in the estate, not having been determined at the time when representation was first taken out; or ( c ) in consequence of some other circumstances affecting the administration or distribution of the estate, the court may extend that period. (3) The provisions of this Act shall not render the personal representatives of the deceased liable for having distributed any part of the estate of the deceased after the expiration of the said period of 6 months on the ground that they ought to have taken into account the possibility that the court might exercise its power to extend that period, but this subsection shall be without prejudice to any power to recover any part of the estate so distributed arising by virtue of the making of an order under this Act. (4) In considering under this section the question when representation was first taken out, a grant limited to trust property shall be left out of account unless a grant limited to the remainder of the estate has previously been made or is made at the same time. (5) For the purposes of sections 18(2) and 39 of the Probate and Administration Act 1934 a dependant of a deceased person by whom or on whose behalf an application made under this Act is proposed to be made shall be deemed to be a person interested in his estate.


document_id: ifpa-1966
provision_ref: s5
section: 5
title: Effect and form of order
content:
5. —(1) Where an order is made under this Act, then for all purposes, including the purposes of the enactments relating to death duties, the will or the law relating to intestacy, or both the will and the law relating to intestacy, as the case may be, shall have effect, and shall be deemed to have had effect as from the deceased’s death, subject to such variations as may be specified in the order for the purpose of giving effect to the provision for maintenance thereby made. (2) The court may give such consequential directions as it thinks fit for the purpose of giving effect to an order made under this Act, but no larger part of the net estate shall be set aside or appropriated to answer by the income thereof the provision for maintenance thereby made than such a part as, at the date of the order, is sufficient to produce by the income thereof the amount of the said provision. (3) An office copy of every order made under this Act shall be sent to the Registrar for entry and filing, and a memorandum of the order shall be endorsed on, or permanently annexed to, the probate or letters of administration under which the estate is being administered.


document_id: ifpa-1966
provision_ref: s6
section: 6
title: Variation of orders
content:
6. —(1) On an application made at a date after the expiration of the period specified in section 4(1), or, as the case may be, of that period as extended under section 4(2), the court may make such an order as is hereinafter mentioned, but only as respects property the income of which is at that date applicable for the maintenance of a dependant of the deceased, that is to say — ( a ) an order for varying the previous order on the ground that a material fact was not disclosed to the court when the order was made, or that a substantial change has taken place in the circumstances of the dependant or of a person beneficially interested in the property under the will or, as the case may be, under the law relating to intestacy; or ( b ) an order for making provision for the maintenance of another dependant of the deceased. (2) An application to the court for an order under subsection (1)( a ) may be made by or on behalf of a dependant of the deceased or by the trustees of the property or by or on behalf of a person beneficially interested therein under the will or, as the case may be, under the law relating to intestacy.


document_id: iiaea-2009
provision_ref: s2
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. —(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “agreement” has the meaning given by Article 1( a ) of the Convention; “aircraft objects” has the meaning given by Article I(2)( c ) of the Protocol; “commencement of insolvency proceedings” means — ( a ) in the case of proceedings in bankruptcy under Part 16 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018, the date of presentation of the bankruptcy application under section 307 or 308 of that Act; ( b ) in the case of winding up proceedings under Part 8 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018, the time the winding up is deemed to have commenced under section 126 of that Act or the time specified under section 161(6) of that Act; ( c ) in the case of a voluntary arrangement under Part 14 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018, the date of the application for an interim order under section 276(1) of that Act; ( d ) in the case of a compromise or an arrangement under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967, the date of the application for an order under section 210(1) of that Act; ( e ) in the case of a compromise or an arrangement under section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018, the date of the application under section 71 of that Act; or ( f ) in the case of judicial management proceedings under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 — (i) the date of the application for a judicial management order under section 91 of that Act; or (ii) the date of lodgment of the notice of appointment of the interim judicial manager under section 94(5)( a ) of that Act; “Convention” means the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment signed at Cape Town on 16 November 2001, the text of which is set out in the First Schedule; “creditor” has the meaning given by Article 1( i ) of the Convention; “debtor” has the meaning given by Article 1( j ) of the Convention; “declaration” means a declaration or designation made by Singapore under the Convention or Protocol; “insolvency administrator” means — ( a ) in the case of proceedings in bankruptcy under Part 16 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018, the trustee of the bankrupt’s estate; ( b ) in the case of winding up proceedings under Part 8 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018, the liquidator or provisional liquidator; or ( c ) in the case of judicial management proceedings under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018, the judicial manager or interim judicial manager; “insolvency proceedings” means — ( a ) proceedings in bankruptcy under Part 16 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018; ( b ) winding up proceedings under Part 8 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018; ( c ) the making of a voluntary arrangement under Part 14 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 or a compromise or an arrangement under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967 or section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018; or ( d ) judicial management proceedings under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018; “international interest” has the meaning given by Article 1( o ) of the Convention; “Protocol” means the Protocol to the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment on Matters Specific to Aircraft Equipment signed at Cape Town on 16 November 2001, the text of which is set out in the Second Schedule; “registered” has the meaning given by Article 1( bb ) of the Convention. [15/2017; 40/2018] (2) Unless a contrary intention appears, words and expressions used in this Act have the meanings given by the Convention and Protocol.


document_id: iiaea-2009
provision_ref: s3
section: 3
title: Application of Convention and Protocol
content:
3. —(1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Convention and Protocol, to the extent that they apply — ( a ) in respect of aircraft objects; and ( b ) to Singapore as described in the declarations, have the force of law in Singapore. (2) If a provision of this Act, including a provision given force of law by this section, is inconsistent with any other law, the provision prevails over the other law to the extent of the inconsistency. (3) In interpreting the Convention and the Protocol, recourse may be had to — ( a ) the Official Commentary on the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment and the Protocol thereto on Matters Specific to Aircraft Equipment, as approved for distribution by the Governing Council of the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law (UNIDROIT); and ( b ) the Consolidated Text of the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment and the Protocol to the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment on Matters Specific to Aircraft Equipment, the text of which is set out in the Third Schedule.


document_id: iiaea-2009
provision_ref: s4
section: 4
title: Remedies on insolvency
content:
4. —(1) This section gives effect to Article XI of the Protocol to the extent that it applies to Singapore as described in the declarations. (2) This section applies in relation to an agreement where — ( a ) the debtor of the agreement — (i) if it is a body corporate or firm, is incorporated or registered in Singapore; or (ii) if he or she is a natural person, is domiciled in or has his or her principal place of business in Singapore; ( b ) the international interest of the agreement has been registered; and ( c ) the debtor and creditor have not by written agreement excluded the application of this section. (3) Subject to subsection (4), where any insolvency proceedings have commenced against the debtor of an agreement and the aircraft object is in Singapore, the debtor or (if the insolvency administrator of the debtor has custody of the aircraft object) the insolvency administrator of the debtor must, no later than the date referred to in subsection (14), give an opportunity to the creditor to take possession of the aircraft object. (4) The insolvency administrator of the debtor or the debtor (as the case may be) may retain possession of the aircraft object where, on or before the date referred to in subsection (14) — ( a ) the insolvency administrator of the debtor or the debtor (as the case may be) has agreed to perform all future obligations of the debtor under the agreement; and ( b ) all defaults under the agreement (other than a default constituted by the commencement of the insolvency proceedings) have been cured. (5) Where the insolvency administrator of the debtor or the debtor fails to perform all future obligations of the debtor as agreed under subsection (4)( a ), the creditor may immediately exercise the creditor’s right to take possession of the aircraft object. (6) Unless and until the creditor is given the opportunity by the insolvency administrator of the debtor or the debtor (as the case may be) to exercise the creditor’s right to take possession of the aircraft object under subsection (3) — ( a ) the insolvency administrator of the debtor or the debtor (as the case may be) must preserve the aircraft object and maintain it and its value in accordance with the agreement; and ( b ) the creditor is entitled (despite anything in any law) to apply for and obtain any interim relief available to it under this Act or any other law. (7) For the purposes of subsection (6)( a ), the insolvency administrator of the debtor or the debtor may use the aircraft object under arrangements designed to preserve it and its value. (8) The insolvency administrator of the debtor is to be indemnified by the creditor for all reasonable costs incurred in complying with subsection (6)( a ). (9) The right of the creditor to exercise any remedies under the Convention or Protocol after the date referred to in subsection (14) is not limited or otherwise affected by any other law. (10) No obligation of the debtor under the agreement may be modified under the relevant insolvency law except with the creditor’s consent. (11) Subsection (10) does not affect the right of the insolvency administrator of the debtor to terminate the agreement under the relevant insolvency law. (12) In this section, “insolvency law” means a provision of Part 7 of the Companies Act 1967, or Part 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 14 or 16 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018. [40/2018] (13) Subsections (3) to (8) do not apply to the insolvency administrator of the debtor if the insolvency administrator is appointed on or after the date referred to in subsection (14). (14) The date referred to in subsections (3), (4), (9) and (13) is the earlier of — ( a ) 30 days after the commencement of insolvency proceedings; and ( b ) the date on which the creditor would have been entitled to take possession of the aircraft object but for this section. (15) No rights or interests, except for non-consensual rights or interests of a category covered by a declaration pursuant to Article 39(1) of the Convention, have priority in insolvency proceedings over registered interests. (16) The Convention as modified by Article IX of the Protocol applies to the exercise of any remedies under this section.


document_id: iiaea-2009
provision_ref: s5
section: 5
title: General Division of High Court to be court having jurisdiction
content:
5. The General Division of the High Court shall be the court having jurisdiction to hear and determine all matters under this Act, including provisions given force of law by section 3. [40/2019]


document_id: iiaea-2009
provision_ref: s6
section: 6
title: Regulations
content:
6. —(1) The Minister may make such regulations as are necessary or expedient for carrying out the purposes of this Act. (2) Any regulations made under subsection (1) must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette .


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “Authority” means the Info‑communications Media Development Authority established by section 3; “broadcasting licence” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Broadcasting Act 1994; “broadcasting service” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Broadcasting Act 1994; “Chairperson”, in relation to the Authority, means the member of the Authority who is appointed under section 13(1)( a ) as the Chairperson of the Authority, and includes any individual acting in that capacity; “Chief Executive” means the Chief Executive of the Authority, and includes any individual acting in that capacity; “code of practice” means a code of practice or standard of performance issued under section 61; “committee”, in relation to the Authority, means a committee of the Authority appointed under section 36; “committee member” means a member of a committee of the Authority appointed under section 36; “delegate”, in relation to the Authority, means a person to whom the Authority, under section 38(1), delegates any of its functions or powers; “Deputy Chairperson”, in relation to the Authority, means the member of the Authority who is appointed under section 13(1)( b ) as the Deputy Chairperson of the Authority; “document” includes any device or medium on which information is recorded or stored; “employee”, in relation to the Authority, means — ( a ) in the case of section 6(2)( r ) and Part 9, an individual who is employed by the Authority under a contract of service; or ( b ) in any other case, an individual who is employed by the Authority under a contract of service or who is otherwise engaged to perform duties in the Authority; “essential resource” means any apparatus, accessory, system, service, information or other resource of any kind that is — ( a ) used or intended to be used in connection with the provision of any media service; and ( b ) specified by the Authority, by notification in the Gazette , to be an essential resource; “function”, in relation to the Authority, means a function conferred on the Authority by this Act or any other Act; “information and communications service” means any service involving the use of information and communications technology; “information and communications system” means any system used or intended to be used for information and communications technology; “information and communications technology” means any technology employed in the collection, storage, use or transmission of information, and includes a technology that involves the use of a computer or a telecommunication system; “information, communications and media industry” means an industry comprising persons who carry on any business or engage in any commercial activity in connection with one or more, or any part, or any combination, of the following: ( a ) an information and communications service; ( b ) a media service; ( c ) an information and communications system; ( d ) an information and communications technology; “inspecting officer” means an individual who is appointed as an inspecting officer under section 42; “media” means — ( a ) a film as defined in section 2(1) of the Films Act 1981; ( b ) a newspaper; ( c ) a broadcasting service; ( d ) a publication as defined in section 2 of the Undesirable Publications Act 1967; or ( e ) any other medium of communication of information, entertainment or other matter to the public (or a section of the public) that the Minister may, by order in the Gazette , specify, and “media industry” and “media service” have corresponding meanings; “member”, in relation to the Authority, means a member of the Authority appointed under section 11, and includes a temporary member appointed under section 15(2); “newspaper” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Newspaper and Printing Presses Act 1974; “newspaper company” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Newspaper and Printing Presses Act 1974; “power”, in relation to the Authority, means a power given to the Authority by this Act or any other Act; “proprietor”, in relation to a newspaper, has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Newspaper and Printing Presses Act 1974; “regulated person” means — ( a ) in the case of section 65, a newspaper company; or ( b ) in any other case, the holder of a broadcasting licence or the proprietor of a newspaper, that is specified by the Minister, by notification in the Gazette , to be a regulated person; “telecommunication service” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Telecommunications Act 1999; “telecommunication system” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Telecommunications Act 1999; “telecommunications” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Telecommunications Act 1999. [5/2018]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS AND POWERS
section: 3
title: Info-communications Media Development Authority
content:
3. A body called the Info‑communications Media Development Authority is established by this section.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS AND POWERS
section: 4
title: Authority is body corporate
content:
4. The Authority — ( a ) is a body corporate with perpetual succession; ( b ) may acquire, hold and dispose of real and personal property; and ( c ) may sue and be sued in its corporate name.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS AND POWERS
section: 5
title: Functions of Authority
content:
5. —(1) The Authority has the following functions: ( a ) to promote the efficiency, competitiveness (including internationally) and development of the information, communications and media industry in Singapore; ( b ) to promote and maintain fair and efficient market conduct and effective competition between persons engaged in commercial activities in connection with media services or telecommunication systems and services in Singapore or, in the absence of a competitive market, to prevent the misuse of monopoly or market power; ( c ) to regulate the provision and use of telecommunication systems, and equipment and software in connection with such systems, and telecommunication services, in Singapore, including by — (i) ensuring that telecommunication services are reasonably accessible to all persons in Singapore, and are supplied as efficiently and economically as practicable and at performance standards that reasonably meet the social, industrial and commercial needs of Singapore; and (ii) determining or approving prices, tariffs and charges for the provision of telecommunication systems and services; ( d ) to regulate the provision and use of media services, and equipment and facilities used in connection with media services, in Singapore, including by — (i) facilitating the provision of an adequate range of media services that serves the interests of the general public; (ii) ensuring that media services are provided at a high standard in all respects, particularly in respect of the quality, balance and range of subject matter of their content; and (iii) ensuring that the content of media services is not against public interest, public order or national harmony, and does not offend against good taste or decency; ( e ) to promote the use of the Internet and electronic commerce in Singapore and to establish regulatory frameworks for that purpose; ( f ) to regulate and manage domain names of Internet websites in Singapore; ( g ) to promote the use of information and communications technology in Singapore and, where necessary, to collaborate with the Government Technology Agency (established by section 3 of the Government Technology Agency Act 2016) in respect of that; ( h ) to promote, where suitable, self‑regulation in the information, communications and media industry in Singapore; ( i ) to advise the Government on matters relating to the information, communications and media industry and the functions of the Authority; ( j ) to represent Singapore and advance Singapore’s interest internationally in matters relating to the information, communications and media industry; ( k ) to promote research and development into technological matters relating to the information, communications and media industry; ( l ) to promote and set standards for the training, and the upgrading of the competencies, of persons for the purposes of the information, communications and media industry in Singapore; ( m ) to provide consultancy services in or outside Singapore relating to the information, communications and media industry; ( n ) to perform such other functions as may be conferred on the Authority by any other Act. (2) In performing the functions conferred on the Authority by subsection (1), the Authority is to have regard to — ( a ) efficiency and economy; ( b ) the social, industrial and commercial needs of Singapore for information and communications services and media services; and ( c ) the convergence of information and communications services and media services, and the need to accommodate technological changes, in and outside Singapore. (3) The Authority may also undertake such other functions as the Minister may, by notification in the Gazette , assign to the Authority, and in so undertaking — ( a ) the Authority is deemed to be fulfilling the purposes of this Act; and ( b ) the provisions of this Act apply to the Authority in respect of those other functions. (4) Nothing in this section imposes on the Authority, directly or indirectly, any form of duty or liability enforceable by proceedings before any court to which the Authority would not otherwise be subject.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS AND POWERS
section: 6
title: Powers of Authority
content:
6. —(1) Subject to this Act, the Authority has power to do all things necessary or convenient to be done for, or in connection with, the performance of its functions. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), powers of the Authority include power — ( a ) to issue or approve, and monitor the compliance with, codes of practice, standards of performance and advisory guidelines on any matter relating to the functions of the Authority; ( b ) to control and regulate the management and allocation of numbering plans and schemes for telecommunication systems and services; ( c ) to construct, install, maintain, repair, operate and supply any installation, plant, system or equipment, or any building relating to that, for telecommunications or broadcasting purposes; ( d ) to engage (on its own or with another person) in the manufacture or sale, whether in or outside Singapore, of any equipment for telecommunications or broadcasting purposes; ( e ) to provide all forms of information and communications systems and services; ( f ) to determine such rates, charges and fees, or their apportionment, as between the Authority and telecommunications authorities outside Singapore, as the Authority considers appropriate; ( g ) to charge for the provision of goods or services, or the performance of work, by or on behalf of the Authority; ( h ) to waive or refund the whole or part of any fee or charges payable or paid to the Authority under this Act or any other Act administered by the Authority; ( i ) to collaborate with other organisations (in or outside Singapore) for the purposes of promoting information and communications services and media services; ( j ) to conduct or commission research on the effect of media content, or public opinion or community attitudes on issues relating to media content; ( k ) to conduct research and investigations necessary for the development of information and communications services and media services in Singapore; ( l ) to organise, provide for or collaborate with any person on training programmes, assessments and certifications of, and scholarships for, persons in relation to the information, communications and media industry; ( m ) to become a member or an affiliate of an international body that has functions similar to those of the Authority; ( n ) to enter into agreements and arrangements; ( o ) to form or participate in the formation of a body corporate, unincorporated association or trust, or enter into a joint venture with any person; ( p ) to carry out such works or activities as the Authority considers to be necessary, advantageous or convenient, with a view to making the best use of the Authority’s assets; ( q ) to accept grants, gifts, donations or contributions from any source, or raise funds by all lawful means; ( r ) to grant loans to, or guarantee the loans of, the employees of the Authority; ( s ) to provide financial support, grant, aid or assistance to any person in connection with any function of the Authority; and ( t ) to do any other thing that is necessary or convenient to be done for or in connection with, or as incidental to, the performance of its functions. (3) To avoid doubt, subsection (1) does not limit any other power given to the Authority by any other provision in this Act or by any other Act.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS AND POWERS
section: 7
title: Powers of Authority in relation to proposals for privatisation
content:
7. —(1) Where the Minister proposes to transfer any property or function of the Authority to another body corporate (called in this section the transferee), the Authority has the power to do anything which, in the opinion of the Authority, is appropriate for the purpose of — ( a ) facilitating the implementation of the Minister’s proposal; ( b ) facilitating the implementation of, or securing a modification of, any related proposal of the Minister; ( c ) promoting, in relation to the Minister’s proposal or related proposal, the interest of the transferee; or ( d ) promoting, in relation to the Minister’s proposal or related proposal, the interest of a body corporate that may become, under the Minister’s proposal or related proposal, a member of the same group as the transferee. (2) To avoid doubt, subsection (1) does not limit any other power given to the Authority by any other provision in this Act or by any other Act. (3) For the purposes of subsection (1)( d ), a body corporate is a member of the same group as the transferee if — ( a ) the body corporate is a holding company or subsidiary of the transferee; or ( b ) the body corporate is another subsidiary of the transferee’s holding company. (4) In this section — “holding company” and “subsidiary” have the meanings given by section 5 of the Companies Act 1967; “related proposal” means a proposal of the Minister that relates to the Minister’s proposal to transfer a property or function of the Authority to the transferee, and includes a proposal relating to or connected with — ( a ) any property, right or liability of the Authority that would be affected by the proposed transfer, or that is proposed to be transferred to the transferee; ( b ) the performance, whether before or after the transfer, of a function of the Authority that is proposed to be transferred to the transferee; or ( c ) the formation, flotation, control, finances, or officers or employees, of the transferee or of any other body corporate that may become, under the Minister’s proposal or related proposal, a member of the same group as the transferee.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS AND POWERS
section: 8
title: Directions of Minister, etc.
content:
8. —(1) The Minister may give to the Authority any direction under section 5 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018. [5/2018] (2) To avoid doubt, the Minister is entitled — ( a ) to information in the Authority’s possession; and ( b ) where the information is in or on a document, to have, and make and retain copies of, that document. (3) For the purposes of this section, the Minister may request the Authority — ( a ) to provide information to the Minister; or ( b ) to give the Minister access to information. (4) The Authority must comply with a request under subsection (3). (5) In this section, “information” means information specified, or of a description specified, by the Minister that relates to the Authority’s functions, and includes a document.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS AND POWERS
section: 9
title: Authority’s symbols, etc.
content:
9. —(1) The Authority has the exclusive right to the use of one or more symbols or representations as it may select or devise (each called in this section the Authority’s symbol or representation), and to display or exhibit those symbols or representations in connection with the Authority’s activities or affairs. (2) A person who — ( a ) uses, without the Authority’s prior written permission, a symbol or representation that is identical with the Authority’s symbol or representation; or ( b ) uses a symbol or representation that so resembles the Authority’s symbol or representation as to deceive or cause confusion, or to be likely to deceive or to cause confusion, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AUTHORITY
section: 10
title: Membership of Authority
content:
10. —(1) The Authority consists of at least 6 and not more than 20 members. (2) One of the members (who is not the Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson) may be the Chief Executive.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AUTHORITY
section: 12
title: Membership disqualification
content:
12. —(1) In appointing members, the Minister must have regard to whether the members will collectively possess the appropriate knowledge, skills and experience to assist the Authority to perform its functions effectively. (2) The following individuals are disqualified to be or from being a member: ( a ) a Judge or judicial officer; ( b ) an undischarged bankrupt; ( c ) an individual who has been sentenced to imprisonment for a term of 6 months or more, and has not received a free pardon; ( d ) an individual who is — (i) disqualified under section 154(1) of the Companies Act 1967 from acting as a director, or taking part (directly or indirectly) in the management, of a company during the period of disqualification in that section; [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022] (ii) disqualified by a court order (under section 149(1), 149A(1) or 154(2) of the Companies Act 1967) from being a director or in any way (directly or indirectly) being concerned in, or taking part in, the management of a company during the period of disqualification in the court order; (iii) disqualified under section 58(1) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018 from acting as a director, or taking part (whether directly or indirectly) in the management of a VCC during the period of disqualification in that section; or [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022] (iv) disqualified by a court order (under section 56(1), 57(1) or 58(2) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018) from being a director or in any way (whether directly or indirectly) being concerned in, or taking part in, the management of a VCC during the period of disqualification in the court order; [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022] ( e ) an individual who lacks capacity in respect of his or her duties as a member within the meaning of the Mental Capacity Act 2008, or in respect of whom an order is made under section 10 of the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) Act 2008. (3) In this section, “VCC” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018. [S 26/2022 wef 13/01/2022]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AUTHORITY
section: 13
title: Chairperson and Deputy Chairperson
content:
13. —(1) The Minister may, by instrument in writing, appoint — ( a ) a member to be the Chairperson of the Authority for the period specified in the instrument; and ( b ) a member (other than the Chairperson) to be the Deputy Chairperson of the Authority for the period specified in the instrument. (2) A member who is appointed as the Chief Executive is not eligible for an appointment under subsection (1). (3) The Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson holds office until — ( a ) his or her term of office as Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson (as the case may be) expires; ( b ) he or she ceases to hold office as a member; or ( c ) the Minister terminates his or her appointment as Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson (as the case may be), whichever first happens. (4) The Deputy Chairperson has and may perform all the functions and exercise all the powers of the Chairperson in relation to a matter if — ( a ) the Chairperson is unavailable; or ( b ) the Chairperson is interested (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018) in the matter. [5/2018]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AUTHORITY
section: 15
title: Temporary Chairperson and members
content:
15. —(1) The Minister may appoint an individual (other than the Chief Executive) to act temporarily as the Chairperson of the Authority during any period, or during all periods, when the Chairperson — ( a ) is absent from duty or from Singapore; or ( b ) is, for any reason, unable to perform the duties of the office. (2) The Minister may appoint an individual to act temporarily as a member of the Authority (other than the Chairperson) during any period, or during all periods, when the member — ( a ) is absent from duty or from Singapore; or ( b ) is, for any reason, unable to perform the duties of the office. (3) An individual is ineligible for appointment under this section to act as the Chairperson or a member if the individual is disqualified under section 12(2) for appointment as a member of the Authority.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AUTHORITY
section: 18
title: Validity of acts, etc.
content:
18. —(1) The performance of any function, or the exercise of any power, by the Authority is not affected merely because at the relevant time — ( a ) there was a vacancy in the membership of the Authority, including a vacancy arising from the failure to appoint a member; ( b ) there was some defect or irregularity in the appointment or continuance in office of an individual purporting to be a member; or ( c ) there was an irregularity in the Authority’s decision‑making procedure (but only if the irregularity did not affect the merits of the decision made). [5/2018] (2) The acts of an individual as a member of the Authority are not affected merely because there was some defect or irregularity in the appointment or continuance in office of the individual purporting to be a member. Division 2 &#x2014; Terms and conditions for members


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AUTHORITY
section: 19
title: Term of appointment
content:
19. —(1) The term of appointment of a member must not exceed 3 years. (2) A member may be re‑appointed.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AUTHORITY
section: 20
title: Remuneration, etc.
content:
20. The members are to be paid, out of the funds of the Authority, such salaries, fees and allowances as the Minister may determine.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AUTHORITY
section: 21
title: Vacation of office
content:
21. —(1) A member ceases to hold office if he or she — ( a ) dies; ( b ) is adjudicated a bankrupt; ( c ) becomes disqualified from being a member under section 12(2); ( d ) is removed from office in accordance with section 16; ( e ) resigns in accordance with section 17; ( f ) without reasonable cause, fails to disclose any interest required to be disclosed under the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018 and the Authority reports to the Minister under that Act of the member’s failure to do so; ( g ) fails to attend 3 consecutive meetings of the Authority (without the approval of the Authority); or ( h ) is not re‑appointed when his or her term of office expires. [5/2018] (2) A member is not entitled to any compensation or other payment or benefit relating to his or her ceasing, for any reason, to hold office as a member.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s29
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AUTHORITY
section: 29
title: Notice of meetings
content:
29. —(1) The Authority is to hold such meetings as are necessary for performing its functions. (2) The Chairperson must appoint the times and places of the meetings of the Authority, and cause notice of those meetings to be given to each member not present when the appointment is made. (3) If the Chairperson receives a written request, signed by 4 or more members, that a meeting of the Authority be convened for a purpose specified in the request, the Chairperson must, within 7 days after receiving the request, convene a meeting for that purpose. 30. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s31
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AUTHORITY
section: 31
title: Quorum
content:
31. —(1) The quorum for a meeting of the Authority is the higher of the following: ( a ) one-third of the number of members; ( b ) 3 members. (2) No business may be transacted at a meeting of the Authority if a quorum is not present.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s32
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AUTHORITY
section: 32
title: Presiding at meetings
content:
32. —(1) At a meeting of the Authority, the following person presides: ( a ) if there is a Chairperson and he or she is present and is not interested (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018) in the matter — the Chairperson; ( b ) if there is no Chairperson, or the Chairperson is not present or is interested (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018) in the matter, and there is a Deputy Chairperson who is present and is not interested (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018) in the matter — the Deputy Chairperson; ( c ) in any other case, the member elected, from among the members present at the meeting, to preside. [5/2018] (2) The person specified in subsection (1)( b ) or ( c ) may perform the functions and exercise the powers of the Chairperson for the purposes of the meeting.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s33
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AUTHORITY
section: 33
title: Voting at meetings
content:
33. —(1) Each member has one vote. (2) In addition to his or her general vote, the person presiding at a meeting has, in the case of an equality of votes at the meeting, a casting vote. (3) A decision is adopted by the Authority at a meeting if it is agreed to by all members present at the meeting without dissent or if a majority of the votes cast on it are in favour of it. (4) A member present at a meeting of the Authority is presumed to have agreed to, and to have cast a vote in favour of, a decision of the Authority unless he or she expressly dissents from or votes against the decision at the meeting. 34. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s35
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AUTHORITY
section: 35
title: Execution of documents
content:
35. —(1) The Authority must have a seal. (2) The Authority’s seal is to be kept and used as authorised by the Authority. (3) A document is duly executed by the Authority if — ( a ) the Authority’s seal is affixed to the document in the presence of one of its members who must sign the document to attest that the seal was so affixed, and the document is signed — (i) by any 2 members generally or specially authorised by the Authority for the purpose; or (ii) by one member and the Chief Executive; or ( b ) it is signed on behalf of the Authority by a person or persons authorised to do so by the Authority and in accordance with the terms of that authorisation. (4) Where a document is to be executed under seal, the Authority may, under subsection (3)( b ), authorise one or more of its employees to execute, on the Authority’s behalf, the document under the Authority’s seal in accordance with the terms of that authorisation. (5) A document purporting to be executed in accordance with this section is presumed to be duly executed until the contrary is shown. (6) All courts, judges and persons acting judicially must take judicial notice of the imprint of the seal of the Authority appearing on a document. (7) When a document is produced bearing a seal purporting to be the seal of the Authority, it is presumed that the seal is the Authority’s seal until the contrary is shown. Division 2 &#x2014; Committees and delegation


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s36
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AUTHORITY
section: 36
title: Appointment of committees
content:
36. —(1) The Authority may appoint any number of committees that it thinks fit for purposes which, in the opinion of the Authority, would be better regulated and managed by means of those committees. (2) A committee appointed under this section may consist of such individuals as the Authority thinks fit, and may include individuals who are not members of the Authority. (3) Without limiting subsection (1), the Authority may appoint committees — ( a ) to advise the Authority on matters relating to the Authority’s functions and powers that are referred to the committee by the Authority; or ( b ) to perform any function or exercise any power of the Authority that is delegated to the committee, if the committee includes at least one member of the Authority. (4) An individual may not be appointed as a member of a committee unless, before appointment, he or she discloses to the Authority the details of any interest (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018) the individual may have if he or she were a member of that committee. [5/2018]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s37
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AUTHORITY
section: 37
title: Proceedings of committees, etc.
content:
37. —(1) Subject to this Act, the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018 and the control of the Authority, a committee appointed under section 36 may regulate its own proceedings and business. [5/2018] (2) Section 18 applies to a committee and the members of the committee, with the necessary modifications.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s38
chapter: PART 4 - DECISION-MAKING BY AUTHORITY
section: 38
title: Ability to delegate
content:
38. —(1) The Authority may delegate any of its functions or powers, either generally or specially and subject to any conditions or restrictions that it thinks fit, to any of the following persons: ( a ) a member of the Authority; ( b ) the Chief Executive or an employee of the Authority; ( c ) a committee of the Authority that includes at least one member of the Authority; ( d ) a company that is incorporated in Singapore and is a subsidiary of the Authority. (2) A delegation under subsection (1) must be by written notice given to the delegate. (3) Subsection (1) does not apply to any function or power under this Act or any other Act that is declared by this Act or that other Act to be non‑delegable. [5/2018] (4) A delegation in accordance with this section — ( a ) except as otherwise provided in this Act or any other Act administered by the Authority, does not affect or prevent the performance of any function or the exercise of any power by the Authority; ( b ) is not affected by any change in the membership of a committee (where the committee is the delegate), so long as the committee includes at least one member of the Authority; and ( c ) is not affected by any change in the individual appointed as the Chief Executive or holding any specified office in the Authority (where the Chief Executive or the holder of the specified office is the delegate). [5/2018] (5) For the purposes of subsection (1)( c ), a company is a subsidiary of the Authority if — ( a ) the Authority is the sole member of that company; or ( b ) the Authority, as a member of that company, holds more than half of the voting power in that company.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s40
chapter: PART 5 - PERSONNEL MATTERS
section: 40
title: Chief Executive, officers and employees, etc.
content:
40. —(1) There must be a Chief Executive of the Authority, whose appointment, removal, discipline and promotion must be in accordance with the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018. [5/2018] (2) The Authority may, subject to the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018, appoint an individual to act temporarily as the Chief Executive during any period, or during all periods, when the Chief Executive — ( a ) is absent from duty or Singapore; or ( b ) is, for any reason, unable to perform the duties of the office. [5/2018] (3) The Authority may, subject to the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018, appoint and employ, on such terms and conditions as it may determine, such other officers, employees, consultants and agents as may be necessary for the effective performance of its functions. [5/2018] 41. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s42
chapter: PART 5 - PERSONNEL MATTERS
section: 42
title: Inspecting officers
content:
42. The Authority may appoint, by name or office, from among the Authority’s employees any number of inspecting officers required for the purposes of this Act. 43. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s44
chapter: PART 5 - PERSONNEL MATTERS
section: 44
title: Preservation of secrecy
content:
44. —(1) The Chief Executive, a member, an employee or a delegate of the Authority, or a committee member, who has information in his or her capacity as such that would not otherwise be available to him or her, must not disclose that information to any person except — ( a ) in the performance of the Authority’s functions; ( b ) with the prior authorisation from the Authority to do so; ( c ) in complying with the requirements in this Act for a member of the Authority or a committee member to disclose an interest; ( d ) as required or allowed by this Act or any other Act; or ( e ) as required by an order of court. (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s45
chapter: PART 5 - PERSONNEL MATTERS
section: 45
title: Protection from personal liability
content:
45. No liability shall lie against the Chief Executive, any member, employee or delegate of the Authority, any committee member, or any other person acting under the direction of the Authority, for anything done or purported to be done, or omitted to be done, in good faith and with reasonable care in — ( a ) the performance or purported performance of any function of the Authority; or ( b ) the exercise or purported exercise of any power of the Authority.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s46
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 46
title: Financial year
content:
46. The financial year of the Authority begins on 1 April of each year and ends on 31 March of the succeeding year.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s47
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 47
title: Revenue and property of Authority
content:
47. —(1) The funds and property of the Authority include — ( a ) all moneys paid to the Authority by way of grants, subsidies, donations, gifts and contributions for the purposes of the Authority; ( b ) all moneys paid to, and all other moneys and property lawfully received by, the Authority for the purposes of the Authority; ( c ) all fees, charges and other sums paid to the Authority (or an employee of the Authority or any other person acting on behalf of the Authority), under this Act or any other Act administered by the Authority, except as otherwise provided in section 48 or that other Act; ( d ) all moneys, dividends, royalties, interest or income received from any transaction made under the powers of the Authority under this Act or any other Act administered by the Authority; ( e ) all moneys borrowed by the Authority under this Act; and ( f ) all accumulations of income derived from any property or money mentioned in paragraphs ( a ) to ( e ). (2) The moneys of the Authority are to be applied only in payment of expenses incurred by it in the discharge of its functions, obligations and liabilities, and in making any payment that the Authority is authorised or required to make.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s48
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 48
title: Payments into Consolidated Fund
content:
48. All sums collected for the composition of an offence under this Act or any other Act administered by the Authority must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s49
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 49
title: Bank accounts
content:
49. —(1) The Authority must open and maintain one or more accounts with such bank or banks as the Authority thinks fit. (2) Every account mentioned in subsection (1) may only be operated by a person who is authorised to do so by the Authority. 50. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ] 51. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s52
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 52
title: Power of investment
content:
52. The Authority may invest its moneys in accordance with the standard investment power of statutory bodies as defined in section 33A of the Interpretation Act 1965.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s53
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 53
title: Issue of shares, etc.
content:
53. As a consequence of — ( a ) the vesting of any property, right or liability in the Authority under this Act; or ( b ) any capital injection or other investment by the Government in the Authority in accordance with any other written law, the Authority must issue such shares or other securities to the Minister for Finance as that Minister may direct.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s54
chapter: PART 6 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 54
title: Borrowing power
content:
54. —(1) The Authority cannot raise loans for the performance of its functions under this Act or any other Act administered by the Authority except in accordance with this section. (2) Subject to subsection (3), the Authority may raise loans by — ( a ) mortgage, overdraft or other means, with or without security; ( b ) charge, whether legal or equitable, on any property vested in the Authority or on any other revenue receivable by the Authority under this Act or any other written law; or ( c ) the creation and issue of debentures or bonds, or such other instrument as the Minister may approve. (3) The Authority may raise loans under subsection (2) — ( a ) from the Government; or ( b ) with the approval of the Minister, from another source, whether in or outside Singapore. (4) For the purposes of this section, the power to raise loans includes the power to enter into any financial agreement or arrangement under which credit facilities are granted to the Authority for the purchase of goods or services. 55. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ] 56. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ] 57. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ] 58. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ] 59. [ Repealed by Act 5 of 2018 ]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s60
chapter: PART 7 - COMPETITION AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
section: 60
title: Application of this Part
content:
60. —(1) This Part applies to markets connected with the provision of media services. (2) This Part does not affect the operation of, or the exercise of any power by any person under, any other Act.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s61
chapter: PART 7 - COMPETITION AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
section: 61
title: Codes of practice, etc.
content:
61. —(1) The Authority may issue one or more codes of practice, standards of performance and advisory guidelines for all or any of the following purposes: ( a ) to enable and maintain fair market conduct in the media industry in Singapore; ( b ) to safeguard the interests of consumers of media services and of the public generally in relation to the provision of media services; ( c ) to provide guidance in relation to the operation or administration of any provision of this Part; ( d ) generally for carrying out the purposes of this Part. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), a code of practice may — ( a ) specify the obligations of a person in relation to the person’s business operations in the media industry; and ( b ) provide for fees or charges to be paid to the Authority in relation to any application or request made to the Authority under the code of practice. (3) The Authority may, at any time — ( a ) vary a code of practice, including by adding anything to the code of practice, with respect to any purpose specified in subsection (1); or ( b ) revoke a code of practice. (4) Upon issuing a code of practice under subsection (1), or varying or revoking a code of practice under subsection (3), the Authority must — ( a ) publish the code of practice, or its variation or revocation, in a manner that will secure adequate publicity for it; ( b ) specify in the publication the date on which the code of practice, or its variation or revocation, takes effect; and ( c ) ensure that the code of practice (including any variation to it) remains available to the public for access and inspection without charge. (5) The issue, variation or revocation of a code of practice does not have force or effect until the code of practice, or its variation or revocation, (as the case may be) is published in accordance with subsection (4)( a ) and ( b ). (6) If any provision of a code of practice is inconsistent with this Act or any other Act administered by the Authority, that provision — ( a ) has effect subject to this Act or that other Act; or ( b ) having regard to this Act or that other Act, does not have effect. (7) Subject to subsection (8) — ( a ) every regulated person must comply with a code of practice (or any part of it) applicable to that regulated person; and ( b ) every person who owns or controls an essential resource must comply with a code of practice (or any part of it) applicable to that person. (8) The Authority may, either generally or for such time as the Authority may specify, waive the application of any code of practice (or any part of it) to any person or class of persons. (9) A code of practice issued under this section is deemed not to be subsidiary legislation.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s62
chapter: PART 7 - COMPETITION AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
section: 62
title: Agreements, etc., preventing, restricting or distorting competition
content:
62. —(1) This section applies to an agreement, a decision or a concerted practice that is, or intended to be, implemented in Singapore before, on or after 1 October 2016. (2) A regulated person must not execute or engage in any agreement, decision or concerted practice — ( a ) that is of a nature specified by the Authority in a code of practice; and ( b ) that has, as its object or effect, the prevention, restriction or distortion of competition in any market (or any part of it) connected to the provision of media services in Singapore. (3) Any agreement or decision described in subsection (2) is void.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s63
chapter: PART 7 - COMPETITION AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
section: 63
title: Abuse of dominant position
content:
63. —(1) Any conduct on the part of one or more regulated persons that — ( a ) amounts to an abuse of dominant position in any market (or any part of it) connected to the provision of media services in Singapore; and ( b ) may, as a result, affect the media industry in Singapore, is prohibited. (2) A regulated person is in a dominant position in a market (or any part of it) connected to the provision of media services in Singapore when, in the opinion of the Authority, that regulated person is able to act without significant competitive restraint from its competitors in that market. (3) For the purposes of this section, the Authority — ( a ) may specify in a code of practice matters that would be relevant to the Authority’s consideration of whether a regulated person is in a dominant position in a market (or any part of it) connected to the provision of media services in Singapore; and ( b ) may, by notification in the Gazette , specify the regulated persons whom the Authority considers to have a dominant or non‑dominant position in a market (or any part of it) connected to the provision of media services in Singapore.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s64
chapter: PART 7 - COMPETITION AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
section: 64
title: Exemption
content:
64. —(1) The Authority may exempt any person, agreement, decision, concerted practice or conduct from section 62(2) or 63(1). (2) An exemption under subsection (1) — ( a ) may be granted subject to any conditions that the Authority considers appropriate; ( b ) has effect for any period that the Authority considers appropriate; and ( c ) must be in writing and sent by the Authority to the person to whom the exemption applies. (3) If the Authority refuses an application for an exemption from section 62(2) or 63(1), the Authority must give written notice of the refusal to the applicant. (4) An exemption under subsection (1), unless previously revoked in accordance with the conditions of the exemption or under subsection (5), continues in force for the period specified in the exemption. (5) The Authority may — ( a ) extend the period for which an exemption granted under subsection (1) has effect; ( b ) vary or delete any condition specified in the exemption; ( c ) impose one or more additional conditions on the exemption; or ( d ) revoke the exemption. (6) An exemption under this section need not be published in the Gazette .


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s65
chapter: PART 7 - COMPETITION AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
section: 65
title: Consolidations
content:
65. —(1) A regulated person must not, without the prior written approval of the Authority, merge or consolidate with, or be taken over by — ( a ) another regulated person; or ( b ) any other person carrying on any business connected to the provision of media services in Singapore. (2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the Authority may specify in a code of practice the circumstances under which a regulated person would be considered to be merged or consolidated with, or taken over by, another regulated person or any other person.


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s65A
chapter: PART 7 - COMPETITION AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
section: 65A
title: Power of Authority in relation to alternative dispute resolution scheme
content:
65A. —(1) The Authority may establish or approve one or more dispute resolution schemes for the resolution of disputes between subscribers and designated media licensees, arising from or relating to the provision of media services by the designated media licensees to the subscribers. [30/2016] (2) Every designated media licensee must participate in a dispute resolution scheme mentioned in subsection (1) and comply with such terms and conditions of participation in the scheme as may be prescribed. [30/2016] (3) To avoid doubt, nothing in this section affects the operation of the Consumer Protection (Fair Trading) Act 2003. [30/2016] (4) The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations under section 81 to provide for matters relating to the operations of an operator of a dispute resolution scheme mentioned in subsection (1), including — ( a ) the standards or requirements of the services provided under the dispute resolution scheme; ( b ) the fees that the operator may charge for the services provided under the dispute resolution scheme; ( c ) the records that the operator must keep and the period of retention of such records; ( d ) the reports that the operator must submit to the Authority, and the manner and time for such submission; ( e ) matters relating to the administration of the dispute resolution scheme; and ( f ) generally for giving effect to or for carrying out the purposes of this section. [30/2016] (5) In this section, unless the context otherwise requires — “designated media licensee” means a media licensee — ( a ) that is designated by the Authority to be a media licensee subject to this section; or ( b ) that is within a class of media licensees designated by the Authority to be a class of media licensees subject to this section, and the designation must be notified in the Gazette ; “media licensee” means — ( a ) a person to whom a permit under section 21, 22 or 23 of the Newspaper and Printing Presses Act 1974 is granted; ( b ) a holder of a broadcasting licence granted under section 8 or 9 of the Broadcasting Act 1994; or ( c ) a holder of a licence granted under section 7 of the Films Act 1981; “subscriber” means an end user that subscribes to a media service from a media licensee. [30/2016]


document_id: imdaa-2016
provision_ref: s66
chapter: PART 7 - COMPETITION AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
section: 66
title: Authority’s directions
content:
66. —(1) The Authority may give directions to a regulated person, a designated media licensee, or the owner or controller of an essential resource, with respect to any provision of this Part or any provision of a code of practice that applies to that person, licensee, owner or controller. [30/2016] (2) Where the Authority is satisfied that a regulated person, a designated media licensee, or the owner or controller of an essential resource, is infringing, likely to infringe or has infringed any provision of this Part, or any provision of any code of practice, that applies to that person, licensee, owner or controller, the Authority’s directions under subsection (1) may include one or more of the following: ( a ) requiring that person, licensee, owner or controller to comply with that provision or cease infringing that provision; ( b ) specifying any procedure or action to be observed or taken by that person, licensee, owner or controller; ( c ) imposing any restriction on the activities of that person, licensee, owner or controller; ( d ) requiring that person, licensee, owner or controller to modify or terminate any agreement, decision or concerted practice; ( e ) requiring that person, licensee, owner or controller to modify or cease any conduct. [30/2016] (3) Where the Authority is satisfied that a regulated person, a designated media licensee, or the owner or controller of an essential resource, has infringed any provision of this Part, or any provision of a code of practice, that applies to that person, licensee, owner or controller, the Authority may, in addition to or instead of a direction described in subsection (2), require that person, licensee, owner or controller to pay a financial penalty of an amount not exceeding the higher of the following amounts: ( a ) 10% of the annual turnover of that part of the business of that person, licensee, owner or controller in respect of which the infringement occurred, as ascertained from the latest audited accounts of that person, licensee, owner or controller; ( b ) $1 million. [30/2016] (4) Before giving a direction to, or imposing a financial penalty on, a regulated person, a designated media licensee, or the owner or controller of an essential resource, under this section, the Authority must, unless the Authority considers that it is not practicable or desirable to do so in any particular case, give notice to that person, licensee, owner or controller of — ( a ) the Authority’s intention to give the direction (including its effect) or impose the financial penalty; and ( b ) the time within which written representations may be made to the Authority with respect to the proposed direction or financial penalty. [30/2016] (5) The Authority may, by written notice to a regulated person, a designated media licensee, or the owner or controller of an essential resource, give such direction or impose such financial penalty, as the Authority considers appropriate — ( a ) where written representation is made by that person, licensee, owner or controller in accordance with subsection (4) — after considering that representation; or ( b ) where no written representation is made — after the time mentioned in subsection (4)( b ) lapses. [30/2016] (6) Subject to section 68(5), a direction or a requirement to pay a financial penalty under this section takes effect at such time (after service of the notice under subsection (5)) as the Authority specifies in that notice. (7) The Authority may, at any time, suspend or revoke a direction (or any part of it) given under this section. (8) Any person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any direction given under this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $100,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both. (9) A reference in this section to the giving of a direction includes a reference to the varying of that direction. (10) In this section, unless the context otherwise requires, “designated media licensee” has the meaning given by section 65A(5). [30/2016]


