# legal_provisions

document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s71
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 71
title: Protection of hospital patients
content:
71. —(1) A person who is at a hospital as a patient must not be required to provide a specimen for a breath test or to provide a specimen for a laboratory test unless the registered medical practitioner in immediate charge of his or her case authorises it and the specimen is to be provided at the hospital. (2) The registered medical practitioner mentioned in subsection (1) must not authorise a specimen to be taken where it would be prejudicial to the proper care and treatment of the patient.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s71A
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 71A
title: Evidence in proceedings for offences under sections 67 and 68
content:
71A. —(1) In proceedings for an offence under section 67 or 68, evidence of the proportion of alcohol or of any drug, psychoactive substance or intoxicating substance in a specimen of breath or blood (as the case may be) provided by the accused is to be taken into account and, subject to subsection (2), it is to be assumed that the proportion of alcohol in the accused’s breath or blood at the time of the alleged offence was not less than in the specimen. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (2) Where the proceedings are for an offence under section 67(1)( a ) or 68(1)( a ) and it is alleged that, at the time of the offence, the accused was unfit to drive in that he or she was under the influence of drink, or for an offence under section 67(1)( b ) or 68(1)( b ), the assumption mentioned in subsection (1) must not be made if the accused proves — ( a ) that he or she consumed alcohol after he or she had ceased to drive, attempt to drive or be in charge of a motor vehicle on a road or any other public place and before he or she provided the specimen; and ( b ) that had he or she not done so the proportion of alcohol in his or her breath or blood — (i) would not have been such as to make him or her unfit to drive a motor vehicle in the case of proceedings for an offence under section 67(1)( a ) or 68(1)( a ); or (ii) would not have exceeded the prescribed limit in the case of proceedings for an offence under section 67(1)( b ) or 68(1)( b ). (3) Subject to subsection (5) — ( a ) evidence of the proportion of alcohol in a specimen of breath may be given by the production of a document or documents purporting to be either a statement automatically produced by a breath analysing device of a type approved for a breath test and a certificate signed by a police officer (which may but need not be contained in the same document as the statement) to the effect that the statement relates to a specimen provided by the accused at the date and time shown in the statement; and ( b ) evidence of the proportion of alcohol or of any drug, psychoactive substance or intoxicating substance in a specimen of blood may be given by the production of a document purporting to be a certificate signed by an authorised analyst as to the proportion of alcohol, drug, psychoactive substance or intoxicating substance found in a specimen of blood identified in the certificate. [10/2017] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (4) A specimen of blood is to be disregarded unless it was taken from the accused with his or her consent by a registered medical practitioner; but evidence that a specimen of blood was so taken may be given by the production of a document purporting to certify that fact and to be signed by a registered medical practitioner. (5) A document purporting to be such a statement or such a certificate, or both, as is mentioned in subsection (3) is admissible in evidence on behalf of the prosecution pursuant to this section only if a copy of it has been handed to the accused when the document was produced or has been served on him or her not later than 7 days before the hearing, and any other document is so admissible only if a copy of it has been served on the accused not later than 7 days before the hearing. (6) A document purporting to be a certificate (or so much of a document as purports to be a certificate) is not so admissible if the accused, not later than 3 days before the hearing or within any further time that the court may in special circumstances allow, has served notice on the prosecution requiring the attendance at the hearing of the person by whom the document purports to be signed. (7) A copy of a certificate required by this section to be served on the accused or a notice required by this section to be served on the prosecution may be served personally or sent by registered post.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s71B
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 71B
title:
Deputy Commissioner of Police may require registered medical practitioner to send blood specimen for laboratory test

content:
71B. —(1) Despite anything in section 69 or 71A, where a person — ( a ) was the driver of or attempted to drive or was in charge of a motor vehicle on a road or other public place when an accident occurred — (i) between that motor vehicle and one or more other motor vehicles; or (ii) causing any injury or death to another person; and ( b ) as a result of any injury sustained by the person in the accident or any other cause is unable to provide a specimen of the person’s breath under section 69 or to give the person’s consent to a specimen of blood being taken from the person for analysis, any registered medical practitioner treating the person for the person’s injury must, if so directed by the Deputy Commissioner of Police, cause any specimen of blood taken by the registered medical practitioner from such person in connection with the person’s treatment to be sent for a laboratory test to determine the proportion of alcohol or of any drug, psychoactive substance or intoxicating substance in the specimen. [28/2014] [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (2) In proceedings for an offence under section 67 or 68, evidence of the proportion of alcohol or of any drug, psychoactive substance or intoxicating substance in a specimen of blood analysed pursuant to this section is to be taken into account. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (3) Evidence of the proportion of alcohol or of any drug, psychoactive substance or intoxicating substance in a specimen of blood analysed under this section may, subject to subsection (4), be given by the production of a document purporting to be a certificate signed by an authorised analyst as to the proportion of alcohol, drug, psychoactive substance or intoxicating substance found in the specimen of blood identified in the certificate. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] (4) The provisions of section 71A(5), (6) and (7) apply, with the necessary modifications, to a certificate mentioned in subsection (3) as they apply to a document or certificate mentioned in section 71A(3).


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s72
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 72
title: Interpretation of sections 67 to 71B, etc.
content:
72. —(1) In sections 67 to 71B — “authorised analyst” means any registered medical practitioner, scientific officer or chemist who is employed in a hospital or laboratory to carry out analyses of blood; “breath analysing device” means an instrument or apparatus for ascertainment by analysis of a person’s breath what concentration of alcohol is present in the person’s breath; “breath test” means a test of a specimen of a person’s breath to assess — ( a ) whether there is alcohol present in the person’s breath; and ( b ) if alcohol is present, the concentration of alcohol in the person’s breath, by means of a breath analysing device of a type approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police; “fail” includes refuse; “intoxicating substance” has the meaning given by the Intoxicating Substances Act 1987; “police station” includes any place or conveyance authorised or appointed by the Deputy Commissioner of Police to be used as a police station; “preliminary breath test” means a breath test under section 69; “prescribed limit” means — ( a ) 35 microgrammes of alcohol in 100 millilitres of breath; or ( b ) 80 milligrammes of alcohol in 100 millilitres of blood; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “psychoactive substance” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1973. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] [28/2014; 10/2017] (1A) Once a type of breath analysing device is approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police for the purposes of the definition of “breath test” in subsection (1), the Deputy Commissioner of Police must, as soon as practicable, cause to be published in the Gazette a notification specifying each type of breath analysing device so approved by him or her. [28/2014; 10/2017] (1B) However, failure to comply with subsection (1A) in respect of any type of breath analysing device does not invalidate the approval for that type of breath analysing device. [28/2014; 10/2017] (2) A person is regarded as not providing a specimen of breath for a breath test unless the specimen — ( a ) is sufficient to enable the test to be carried out; and ( b ) is provided in a way that enables the objective of the test to be satisfactorily achieved. [10/2017] (3) Subject to section 71B, a person provides a specimen of blood if and only if the person consents to its being taken by a registered medical practitioner and it is so taken.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s73
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 73
title: Pillion riding
content:
73. —(1) It is not lawful for more than one person in addition to the driver to be carried on any two-wheeled motor cycle nor is it lawful for that one person to be so carried otherwise than sitting astride the motor cycle and on a proper seat securely fixed to the motor cycle behind the driver’s seat. (2) If any person is carried on any such motor cycle in contravention of this section, the driver of the motor cycle shall be guilty of an offence.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s74
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 74
title: Drivers and pillion riders of motor cycles to wear protective helmets
content:
74. —(1) Every person who drives or is carried on a motor cycle must wear securely on his or her head a protective helmet of a type approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police. [28/2014] (1A) The driver of a motor cycle (called in this section the motor cycle rider) must not drive the motor cycle where a person is being carried on the motor cycle (called in this section the pillion) so driven by the motor cycle rider unless the pillion is wearing securely on his or her head a protective helmet of a type approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police. [12/2021] (2) A person must not import, sell or offer for sale or have in the person’s possession for sale any protective helmet which is not of a type approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police. [28/2014] (2A) Once a type of protective helmet is approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police for the purposes of subsections (1) and (2), the Deputy Commissioner of Police must, as soon as practicable, cause to be published in the Gazette a notification specifying each type of protective helmet so approved by him or her. [28/2014] (2B) However, failure to comply with subsection (2A) in respect of any type of protective helmet does not invalidate the approval for that type of protective helmet. [28/2014] (3) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) or (1A) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both; but ( b ) where the person is a repeat offender, to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2021] (3A) A person is a repeat offender in relation to an offence under subsection (3) if the person who is convicted, or found guilty, of an offence under that subsection (called the current offence) of contravening subsection (1) or (1A) has (whether before, on or after 30 June 2021) been convicted or found guilty, on at least one other earlier occasion before the date on which the person is convicted or found guilty of the current offence, of the same offence of contravening subsection (1) or (1A). [12/2021] (4) Any person who contravenes subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [12/2021]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s75
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 75
title: Wearing of seat belts
content:
75. —(1) The Minister may make rules requiring, subject to any exceptions that may be prescribed, any person driving or riding in a motor vehicle to wear a seat belt of a type approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police under section 76(1). [28/2014] (2) Rules under this section — ( a ) may make different provisions in relation to different classes of vehicles, different descriptions of persons and different circumstances; and ( b ) may make any prescribed exceptions subject to any conditions that may be prescribed.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s76
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 76
title: Sale of seat belts
content:
76. —(1) A person must not sell or offer for sale or have in the person’s possession for sale any seat belt which is not of a type approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police. [28/2014] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. (3) Once a type of seat belt is approved by the Deputy Commissioner of Police for the purposes of subsection (1) and section 75(1), the Deputy Commissioner of Police must, as soon as practicable, cause to be published in the Gazette a notification specifying each type of seat belt so approved by him or her. [28/2014] (4) However, failure to comply with subsection (3) in respect of any type of seat belt does not invalidate the approval for that type of seat belt. [28/2014]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s77
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 77
title: Requirements as to employment of drivers and attendants
content:
77. —(1) In the case of a heavy locomotive or a light locomotive, 2 persons must be employed in driving or attending the locomotive while being driven on any road. (2) Where any locomotive mentioned in subsection (1) is drawing a trailer or trailers on a road, one or more persons in addition to the persons employed as provided under that subsection must be employed for the purpose of attending to the trailer or trailers at the rate of one such additional person for each trailer. (3) Subsection (2) does not apply to a road roller. (4) Where a motor vehicle, other than a heavy locomotive or a light locomotive, is drawing a trailer on a road, one person in addition to the driver of the vehicle must be carried on the trailer for the purpose of attending to the trailer. (5) If any person causes or permits a motor vehicle or trailer to be driven or drawn in contravention of this section, the person shall be guilty of an offence. (6) The Authority may by rules prescribe the number of attendants who must be, and other persons who may be, carried on goods vehicles and regulate the positions on the vehicle which they may occupy and the duties of those attendants. (7) The Authority may by rules vary the requirements of this section in respect of any class or description of motor vehicles or any class or description of trailers. (8) In this section, “trailer” does not include — ( a ) any vehicle used solely for carrying water for the purposes of the drawing vehicle or any agricultural vehicle not constructed to carry a load; ( b ) any road sweeping or road construction vehicles; or ( c ) any trailer or class of trailers exempted from the operation of this section by the Minister.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s78
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 78
title: Restriction on number of trailers drawn
content:
78. —(1) The number of trailers (if any) which may be drawn by a motor vehicle, other than a heavy locomotive or a light locomotive, on a road must not exceed one. (2) For the purposes of this section, “trailer” does not include any vehicle used solely for carrying water for the purposes of the drawing vehicle or any agricultural vehicle not constructed to carry a load. (3) If any person causes or permits a trailer to be drawn in contravention of this section, the person shall be guilty of an offence.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s79
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 79
title: Offence for driving heavy motor vehicle without police escort
content:
79. —(1) Any person who drives or causes to be driven on any road a heavy motor vehicle the overall height of which exceeds 4.5 metres without being escorted by a police officer, or an auxiliary police officer appointed in accordance with any written law, shall be guilty of an offence. [4/2006] (2) A person guilty of an offence under subsection (1) shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) for a first offence, to imprisonment for a presumptive minimum term of not less than one year and not more than 3 years and, in addition, to a fine not exceeding $2,000; and ( b ) for a second or subsequent offence, to imprisonment for a term of not less than 2 years and not more than 5 years and, in addition, to a fine not exceeding $5,000. [4/2006; 15/2019] (3) [ Deleted by Act 4 of 2006 ] (4) A person convicted of an offence under subsection (1) is, unless the court for special reasons thinks fit to order otherwise and without prejudice to the power of the court to order a longer period of disqualification — ( a ) in the case of a first offence, to be disqualified from holding or obtaining a driving licence for a period of not less than one year; and ( b ) in the case of a second or subsequent offence, to be disqualified from holding or obtaining a driving licence for a period of not less than 2 years. [4/2006] (5) Any disqualification imposed against any person under subsection (4) takes effect from the date the person is released from prison. (6) In this section — “heavy motor vehicle” means — ( a ) a goods vehicle the weight of which unladen exceeds 2,500 kilogrammes; ( b ) a motor vehicle which is — (i) an engineering plant or a mobile crane or is designed and constructed for engineering operations; or (ii) drawing a trailer carrying a container or other load; “overall height”, in relation to a heavy motor vehicle, means the distance between the surface on which the vehicle rests and the highest point of the vehicle, and where it is carrying a load the highest point of its load. [4/2006] 80. [ Repealed by Act 4 of 2006 ]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s81
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 81
title: Duty to give information
content:
81. —(1) Where the driver of a motor vehicle is alleged or is suspected to be guilty of an offence under this Act or the rules, the owner of the motor vehicle, when required by a police officer, an employee of the Authority or an outsourced enforcement officer to do so, must give to the police officer, Authority’s employee or outsourced enforcement officer (as the case may be), within 14 days after being so required, such information as to — ( a ) the identity and address of the person who was driving the motor vehicle at or about the time of the alleged offence; and ( b ) the driving licence held by that person. [28/2014; 10/2017; 38/2018] (1A) An owner of a motor vehicle who fails to give the information required of the owner under subsection (1) is guilty of an offence unless the owner proves, on a balance of probabilities, that the owner did not know and could not with reasonable diligence have ascertained the information required. [28/2014] (1B) Where the owner of a motor vehicle who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1A) holds a driving licence, and the driver of the motor vehicle is alleged or suspected to be guilty of an offence specified in Part 1 of the Third Schedule, the owner of the motor vehicle is presumed, until the contrary is proved, to be driving the motor vehicle at the time of the occurrence of the second‑mentioned offence. [28/2014] (1C) For the purposes of subsection (1A), where the owner of the motor vehicle is a company, a partnership or an unincorporated body, the owner is not deemed to have discharged the burden of proving that it could not, with reasonable diligence, have ascertained the information required under subsection (1) unless the owner also proves, on a balance of probabilities, that — ( a ) it had kept a proper and accurate record as required under subsection (8); but ( b ) the record shows no person having been permitted by the owner to drive the motor vehicle at or about the time of the alleged offence. [28/2014] (2) Where the driver of a motor vehicle is alleged or is suspected to be guilty of an offence under this Act or the rules, any other person who was or should have been in charge of the motor vehicle, when required by a police officer, an employee of the Authority or an outsourced enforcement officer to do so, must give to the police officer, Authority’s employee or outsourced enforcement officer (as the case may be), within 14 days after being so required, any information which the person has power to give, and which may lead to the identification of the driver, and if that person fails to do so, that person is guilty of an offence. [28/2014; 10/2017; 38/2018] (3) A person required under subsection (1) or (2) by a police officer, an employee of the Authority or an outsourced enforcement officer to give information commits an offence if — ( a ) the person — (i) provides, or causes or permits to be provided, any information in connection with the requirement, which is false or misleading in a material particular; and (ii) knows or ought reasonably to know that, or is reckless as to whether, the information is false or misleading in a material particular; or ( b ) the person intentionally alters, suppresses or destroys any information which the person is required under subsection (1) or (2) to give, for the purpose of not leading to the identification of the driver. [12/2021] (3A) A person commits an offence if the person pretends, or falsely represents (by word or conduct) himself or herself, to be a person who was driving the motor vehicle at or about the time of an alleged offence that is the subject of a requirement made under subsection (1) or (2), knowing that he or she was not the driver of the motor vehicle. [12/2021] (3B) A person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (3) or (3A) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [12/2021] (4) A police officer, an employee of the Authority or an outsourced enforcement officer may require any information to be furnished under subsection (1) or (2) to be in writing signed by the person required to furnish the information. [38/2018] (5) Despite any other written law to the contrary, any information given under this section by any person charged with any offence under this Act or the rules or any offence in connection with the driving of a motor vehicle may be used as evidence without proof of signature at the hearing of the charge. [10/2017] (6) Despite any other written law to the contrary, any statement made by any person to any police officer, an employee of the Authority or an outsourced enforcement officer — ( a ) that a motor vehicle was on a particular occasion being driven by or belonged to that person; or ( b ) that it belonged to a firm in which that person also stated that he or she was a partner or to a corporation of which that person stated that he or she was a director, officer or employee, is admissible in evidence without proof of signature for the purpose of determining by whom the motor vehicle was on that occasion being driven or who was in charge of it or to whom it belonged. [38/2018] (7) Any person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1A) or (2) shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both; and ( b ) in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [10/2017] (7A) [ Deleted by Act 12 of 2021 ] (8) Where the owner of a vehicle is a company, a partnership or an unincorporated body, it is the duty of such owner to keep (and to that end designate at least one of its responsible officers to ensure keeping) a proper and accurate record of each occasion on which the owner permits any person to drive the motor vehicle, whether or not the person is a director, member, partner, officer, employee or agent of the owner or otherwise, and whether or not the person is permitted to drive the motor vehicle in the course of his or her employment with the owner or otherwise. [24/2010; 12/2021] (9) The record required to be kept under subsection (8) — ( a ) must contain — (i) the registration number of the motor vehicle; (ii) the name, address, driving licence number (whether local or foreign) and identity card or passport number of the person permitted by the owner of the motor vehicle to drive the motor vehicle; and (iii) the date and time, or the period, during which the motor vehicle is allocated to the person for him or her to drive it; and ( b ) must be retained by the owner of the motor vehicle for a period of at least 12 months beginning with the date, or with the date of the start of the period, mentioned in paragraph ( a )(iii). [24/2010; 12/2021] (10) In subsection (8), “responsible officer” means — ( a ) for a company, the person for the time being holding the office of chairperson, managing director or company secretary of, or any position analogous to any of those offices in, the company; ( b ) for a partnership, any partner of the partnership; or ( c ) for an unincorporated body of persons, the person for the time being holding the office of president, secretary or treasurer of the governing body or a committee (or an equivalent body) of, or any position analogous to any of those offices in, the body of persons, and includes any person carrying out the duties of any such office mentioned in paragraph ( a ), ( b ) or ( c ) if that office is vacant. [12/2021]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s83
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 83
title: Liability of owner of vehicle for specified offence
content:
83. —(1) When a specified offence is committed, the person who, at the time of the occurrence of the specified offence, is the owner of the motor vehicle in respect of which the specified offence is committed shall, by virtue of this section, be guilty of the specified offence in all respects as if the person were the actual offender guilty of the specified offence, unless — ( a ) in any case where that offence is dealt with under section 133, the owner satisfies the police officer or employee of the Authority mentioned in section 133(7) that the vehicle was at the relevant time a stolen vehicle or a vehicle illegally taken or used; or ( b ) in any other case, the court is satisfied that the vehicle was at the relevant time a stolen vehicle or a vehicle illegally taken or used. [37/2012; 12/2021] (2) Nothing in this section shall affect the liability of the actual offender but where a penalty has been imposed on or recovered from a person in relation to a specified offence no further penalty may be imposed on or recovered from any other person in relation thereto. [37/2012] (3) Despite subsection (1), no owner of a motor vehicle shall by virtue of this section be guilty of a specified offence if — ( a ) in any case where the offence is dealt with under section 133, the owner — (i) within 14 days after service on the owner of a notice under section 133 alleging that the owner has been guilty of such offence, furnishes by statutory declaration to the police officer or employee of the Authority mentioned in section 133(7) the name and address of the person who was in charge of the vehicle at all relevant times relating to the offence concerned; or (ii) satisfies the police officer or employee of the Authority that the owner did not know and could not with reasonable diligence have ascertained that name and address; and ( b ) in any other case the owner satisfies the court that the owner did not know and could not with reasonable diligence have ascertained that name and address. [37/2012; 28/2014; 12/2021] (4) A statutory declaration made under subsection (3) if produced in any proceedings against the person named therein and in respect of the offence concerned is prima facie evidence that the person was in charge of the vehicle at all relevant times relating to that offence. (5) A statutory declaration which relates to more than one specified offence is not regarded as a statutory declaration under or for the purposes of subsection (3). [37/2012] (6) In this section — “owner”, in relation to a motor vehicle, includes — ( a ) every person who is the owner or joint owner or part owner of the vehicle and any person who has the use of the vehicle under a hire-purchase agreement but not the lessor under that agreement; ( b ) the person in whose name the vehicle is registered except where the person has sold or otherwise disposed of the vehicle and has complied with the provisions of the rules applicable to the person in regard to the sale or disposal; and ( c ) in the case of a vehicle in respect of which a general licence is issued under section 28, the person to whom the general licence is issued; “specified offence” means any offence set out in Part 2 of the Third Schedule. [37/2012; 28/2014] Division 2 &#x2014; Accidents


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s84
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 84
title: Duty to stop in case of accident
content:
84. —(1) Where an accident occurs owing to the presence of a motor vehicle on a road and the accident results in damage or injury to any person, vehicle or structure, the driver of the motor vehicle must stop the motor vehicle and the driver must do such of the following as may be applicable: ( a ) the driver if requested to do so by any person at the scene of the accident having reasonable grounds for so requesting the driver’s particulars, must provide the driver’s particulars to that person; ( b ) if no person mentioned in paragraph ( a ) is present at the scene of the accident, the driver must take reasonable steps to inform the owner (if any) of the damaged vehicle or structure of the damage caused to the vehicle or structure, and provide that owner with the driver’s particulars. [28/2014; 19/2019] (2) The driver of the motor vehicle mentioned in subsection (1) must report the accident at a police station or to a police officer as soon as reasonably practicable within 24 hours after the accident unless either of the following has occurred: ( a ) the driver has provided the driver’s particulars to a person mentioned in subsection (1)( a ); ( b ) the owner mentioned in subsection (1)( b ) has contacted the driver. [28/2014] (2A) Where owing to the presence of a motor vehicle on a road an accident occurs resulting in injury or death to any animal, the driver of the motor vehicle must stop the vehicle if the driver has reasonable grounds to believe that — ( a ) the animal has an owner; or ( b ) the presence of the injured or dead animal on the road is likely to pose any safety hazard to the other road users. [19/2019] (2B) The driver mentioned in subsection (2A) who is involved in the accident must — ( a ) if requested to do so by any person at the scene of the accident having reasonable grounds for so requesting the driver’s particulars, provide the driver’s particulars to that person; ( b ) if no person mentioned in paragraph ( a ) is present at the scene of the accident, the driver must take reasonable steps to inform the owner of the injured or dead animal (if any) of the injury or death caused to the animal and provide that owner with the driver’s particulars; and ( c ) if the presence of the injured or dead animal is likely to pose any safety hazard to other road users, the driver must as far as the circumstances permit, take reasonable steps to alert other road users of the obstruction and immediately inform a police officer of the obstruction. [19/2019] (3) If in any case owing to the presence of a motor vehicle on a road an accident occurs whereby any person is killed or any damage or injury is caused to any person, vehicle, structure or animal, the driver of the motor vehicle must render any assistance that may be reasonably required by any police officer or in the absence of any police officer any assistance that may reasonably be in the power of the driver to render. (4) When owing to the presence of a motor vehicle on a road an accident occurs in consequence of which any person is killed or seriously injured or serious damage is caused to any vehicle or structure, a person must not, except under the authority of a police officer, move or otherwise interfere with any vehicle involved in the accident or any part of the vehicle or do any other act so as to destroy or alter any evidence of the accident except that — ( a ) a vehicle or any part of the vehicle may be moved so far as may be necessary to extricate persons or animals involved, remove mails, prevent fire or prevent damage or obstruction to the public; and ( b ) goods or passengers baggage may be removed from a vehicle under the supervision of a police officer. (5) Subsection (4) does not apply where it is urgently necessary to remove any seriously injured person to hospital and no suitable means of conveyance other than a vehicle involved in the accident is at hand. (6) In this section, “particulars”, in relation to a driver of a motor vehicle, means the name and address of the driver of the motor vehicle, the name and address of the owner of the motor vehicle, and the identification marks of the motor vehicle. [28/2014; 19/2019] (7) If any person fails to comply with any of the provisions of this section, he or she shall be guilty of an offence. (8) Any person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (7) arising from his or her failure to comply with subsection (3) shall, if he or she had in driving or attempting to drive a motor vehicle at the time of the accident mentioned in that subsection caused any serious injury or death to another person, be liable on conviction — ( a ) to a fine not exceeding $3,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both; and ( b ) in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. [10/2017] (9) Where a person is convicted of an offence under subsection (7) arising from his or her failure to comply with subsection (3), the court convicting him or her shall — ( a ) if satisfied that he or she had in driving or attempting to drive a motor vehicle at the time of the accident mentioned in subsection (3) caused any serious injury or death to another person; and ( b ) unless the court for special reasons thinks fit to order otherwise, make an order disqualifying him or her from holding or obtaining a driving licence — ( c ) for a period of not less than 12 months from the date of his or her conviction or, where he or she is sentenced to imprisonment, from the date of his or her release from prison; or ( d ) for any longer period that the court thinks fit. (10) Where at one trial the driver of a motor vehicle is convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for — ( a ) an offence involving the use of the motor vehicle by him or her whereby any serious injury or death is caused to another person; and ( b ) an offence under subsection (7) arising from his or her failure to comply with subsection (3), the court before which he or she is convicted is to order that the sentences for those offences run consecutively. (11) Any police officer may arrest without warrant any person who is reasonably suspected of having failed to comply with subsection (3).


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s85
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 85
title: Inquiry into accident
content:
85. —(1) The Deputy Commissioner of Police may by written notice require the person alleged to have been driving or in charge of any vehicle at the time of the occurrence of any accident in which the vehicle was concerned or the commission of any offence connected with the driving of the vehicle to attend before him or her at the time and place stated in the notice for the purpose of inquiry into the accident. (2) The person must attend and must answer truly all questions relating to the occurrence or offence put to the person by the Deputy Commissioner of Police except that the person may decline to answer any question the answer to which would have a tendency to expose the person to a criminal charge or to a penalty or forfeiture. (3) No such answer may in any case be used in evidence in any proceedings, civil or criminal, except proceedings against the person on a charge of an offence under subsection (5). (4) The person must, if so required by the Deputy Commissioner of Police, produce his or her driving licence. (5) Any person who, without reasonable cause, fails to comply with any of the requirements of this section shall be guilty of an offence. Division 3 &#x2014; Miscellaneous


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s86
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 86
title: Power of Authority to authorise carriage of greater weights on specified roads
content:
86. —(1) The Authority may, subject to any conditions that it thinks fit, grant a permit in respect of any trailer specified in the permit drawn by a heavy locomotive or a light locomotive on any road or bridge to carry weights specified in the permit even though when conveying those weights the trailer does not comply with any rules as to the weight laden of trailers or as to the maximum weight which may be transmitted to the road or any part thereof by trailers. (2) Where such a permit is given, it shall not, so long as the conditions (if any) attached to the permit are complied with, be an offence in the case of any such trailer to carry on that road or bridge weights authorised by the permit by reason only that the trailer when conveying them does not comply with those rules.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s87
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 87
title: Power to order production of vehicle and licence
content:
87. —(1) The Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar may by written notice require the owner of any licensed vehicle to produce either or both the vehicle or the licence relating thereto (if not issued in electronic form) for an inspection at such time and place and by such person as may be specified in the notice. [10/2017] (2) [ Deleted by Act 38 of 2018 ] (3) If any owner required under this section to produce any vehicle or licence fails to do so, the owner shall be guilty of an offence unless the owner proves that owing to a mechanical breakdown or other sufficient reason (the proof whereof lies on the owner), the vehicle or licence cannot be produced as required.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s88
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 88
title: Fee for inspection of vehicle
content:
88. —(1) A fee may be levied for the inspection of a vehicle under section 87. (2) An additional fee may be levied for any further inspection of the vehicle where the vehicle is found, after a previous inspection, not to comply with any prescribed requirement relating to its construction or condition, or to any identification mark or sign carried by or fixed on it or the seal of that mark or sign, or to any marking on it. [4/2006] (3) Any fee payable under subsection (1) or (2) must be paid by the owner of the vehicle in respect of which it is levied. (4) This section applies to any vehicles that may be prescribed.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s90
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 90
title: Test of satisfactory condition of vehicle
content:
90. —(1) The Authority may make rules for the examination of any motor vehicle and for the issue, where the vehicle is found on the examination to comply with the prescribed requirements relating to its construction and condition, to the identification marks and signs carried by or fixed on it and the seals of those marks and signs, and to the markings on it, of a certificate (called in this Act a test certificate) that at the date of the examination those requirements were complied with. [4/2006] (1A) An examination under this section of a motor vehicle for the purposes of the issue of a test certificate in respect of the motor vehicle may include the examiner accepting, in lieu of an examination, any certificate that — ( a ) is issued by another person or authority as are prescribed; and ( b ) concerns the prescribed requirements relating to the construction, equipment and condition of the motor vehicle, to the identification marks and signs carried by or fixed on the motor vehicle and the seals of those marks and signs, and to the markings on the motor vehicle. [10/2017] (2) An examination for the purposes of this section must be carried out by a person authorised by the Registrar (called in this section an authorised examiner). (3) Where a test certificate is refused, the authorised examiner must specify the grounds of the refusal, and a person aggrieved by the refusal may appeal to the Registrar, and on the appeal the Registrar must cause a further examination to be made and may issue or refuse to issue a test certificate. (4) The Authority may make rules for the purpose of giving effect to this section and, in particular, as to — ( a ) the authorisation of an authorised examiner, the conditions to be complied with by an authorised examiner and the withdrawal of the authorisation; ( b ) the manner in which, the conditions under which and the apparatus with which an examination of a motor vehicle is to be carried out, and the maintenance of that apparatus in an efficient state; ( c ) the inspection of premises at which and the apparatus with which an examination of a motor vehicle is being, or is to be, carried out; ( d ) the fee to be paid for the examination of a motor vehicle; ( e ) the additional fee to be paid for any further examination of a motor vehicle where the vehicle is found, after a previous examination, not to comply with any prescribed requirement mentioned in subsection (1); ( f ) the manner in which an application may be made for the examination of a motor vehicle; ( g ) the manner in which and time within which an appeal may be brought under subsection (3); ( h ) the fee to be paid on an appeal under subsection (3) and the repayment of the fee or part thereof where it appears to the Registrar that there were substantial grounds for the appeal; ( i ) the form of, and particulars to be contained in, a test certificate; ( j ) the issue of a copy of a test certificate that is lost or defaced and the fee payable therefor; ( k ) the keeping by an authorised examiner of a register of test certificates in the prescribed form and containing the prescribed particulars, and the inspection of such register by such person and in such circumstances as may be prescribed; ( l ) the keeping of records by an authorised examiner and the furnishing of returns and information to the Registrar by the authorised examiner; and ( m ) the submission to the Authority of documents specified by the Authority in support of any matter examined. [4/2006] (5) Rules made under this section may make different provisions in respect of different vehicles or classes of vehicles.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s91
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 91
title: Vehicle without test certificate cannot be used
content:
91. —(1) A person who uses on a road at any time, or causes or permits to be so used, a motor vehicle in respect of which there is no test certificate shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $200. (2) This section applies to such motor vehicles with effect from such dates as may be prescribed.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s92
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 92
title: Power to inspect premises
content:
92. —(1) Any police officer may, for the purpose of examining any vehicle in respect of which he or she has reason to believe that an offence under this Act has been committed, enter at any time any place in which he or she suspects that the vehicle is kept. (2) Any police officer in conducting an investigation into any seizable offence in connection with which a vehicle is suspected to be concerned may enter any place to search for and examine that vehicle. (3) If any person obstructs any police officer in the exercise of the police officer’s powers and duty under this section, that person shall be guilty of an offence.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s93
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 93
title: Power to examine vehicles
content:
93. —(1) Any police officer in uniform or an outsourced enforcement officer may, for the purpose of ensuring that any vehicle or trailer that is being used on a road complies with this Act or the rules, at any time — ( a ) examine the vehicle or trailer or the licence relating thereto; or ( b ) order the owner or driver of the vehicle or trailer to deliver the same for an inspection by such person and at such time and place as the police officer or outsourced enforcement officer (as the case may be) may specify. [10/2017; 38/2018] (2) Any person who obstructs a police officer or an outsourced enforcement officer (as the case may be) in the exercise of his or her powers under subsection (1)( a ) or fails to comply with any order given by the police officer or outsourced enforcement officer (as the case may be) under subsection (1)( b ) shall be guilty of an offence. [38/2018]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s94
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 94
title: Weighing of vehicles
content:
94. —(1) Subject to the provisions of this Act and the rules, it is lawful for any police officer authorised in writing in that behalf by the Deputy Commissioner of Police to require the person in charge of any motor vehicle — ( a ) to allow the motor vehicle or any trailer drawn thereby to be weighed laden or unladen and the weight transmitted to the road by any part of the motor vehicle or trailer laden or unladen in contact with the road to be tested; and ( b ) for the purpose of paragraph ( a ) to immediately proceed to a weighbridge or other machine for weighing vehicles. [10/2017] (2) If any person in charge of a motor vehicle refuses or neglects to comply with any requirement under subsection (1), the person shall be guilty of an offence. (3) Subject to the provisions of this Act and the rules, it is lawful for any police officer so authorised to require the person in charge of the motor vehicle to unload the motor vehicle or trailer for the purpose of being weighed unladen. [10/2017] (4) Where a motor vehicle or trailer is weighed under this section, a certificate of weight must be given to the person in charge of the motor vehicle by the person who carried out the weighing of the vehicle.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s95
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 95
title: Power to seize vehicles
content:
95. —(1) Where a police officer, the Registrar or an authorised officer has reason to believe that a vehicle is a vehicle in connection with which an offence under this Act and the rules has been or is being committed or a vehicle that has been or is being used in contravention of the conditions of any licence issued in respect thereof under this Act, the police officer, Registrar or authorised officer, on production of his or her authority, may — ( a ) seize the vehicle and take it to a place of safety; or ( b ) require the owner, driver or person in charge of the vehicle to take the vehicle and any trailer attached thereto to a specified place of safety. [10/2017] (2) The power conferred on a police officer, the Registrar or an authorised officer under subsection (1)( a ) may be exercised whether or not the owner, driver or person in charge of the vehicle is present at the time of its seizure. (3) Any vehicle which is taken to a place of safety under subsection (1) must be detained there until it is released by order of a Magistrate or the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar. (4) In this section, “authorised officer” means any employee of the Authority who is authorised in writing by the Registrar to act under this section. (5) Any person who refuses or neglects to comply with any requirement under subsection (1)( b ) shall be guilty of an offence. (6) Any unauthorised person removing or causing to be removed such vehicle or trailer from the place of safety pending the order of a Magistrate or the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar shall be guilty of an offence. (7) If the owner of the vehicle or trailer is convicted of or has been permitted to compound an offence under this Act or the rules, the expenses incurred by the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar in removing, seizing, detaining, storing and disposing the vehicle under this section are recoverable by or on behalf of the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar and are, in case of dispute or neglect to pay, to be summarily ascertained by a Magistrate’s Court and may be recovered in the same manner as if they were fines imposed by that Court. [10/2017; 38/2018] (8) Where any vehicle or trailer is detained under this section, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar must with all reasonable despatch give notice to the owner (if known) of the seizure in a manner allowed under section 131A. [38/2018] (9) If the vehicle or trailer is not claimed by its owner within one month of the date of its detention, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar thereafter and after giving one month’s notice in the Gazette of his or her intention to do so may sell by public auction or otherwise dispose of the vehicle or trailer. (10) The proceeds (if any) from the sale or disposal of the vehicle or trailer must be applied in payment of — ( a ) firstly, any licence fees which may be due in respect of the vehicle and of any charges incurred in removing, seizing, detaining, storing and disposing the vehicle under this section; and ( b ) secondly, any damage caused to property of the Government by the unlawful use of the vehicle or trailer, and the surplus (if any) must be paid to the owner of the vehicle or trailer, or if not claimed by the owner of the vehicle or trailer within 12 months after the date of the sale or disposal, is forfeited to the Government. [38/2018]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s95A
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 95A
title:
Power to immobilise or seize and detain vehicle belonging to person against whom warrant of arrest is in force

content:
95A. —(1) Where a vehicle which is being used or parked on a road or in a parking place is registered in the name of a person against whom a warrant of arrest is in force, a police officer or an employee of the Authority may — ( a ) immobilise the vehicle or cause the vehicle to be immobilised, if it is stationary; or ( b ) seize the vehicle and detain it at a place of safety or cause the vehicle to be seized and detained at a place of safety, and the vehicle must remain so immobilised or detained at the risk of the owner thereof until it is released by order of a Magistrate, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar. (2) The powers conferred by subsection (1) on a police officer may also be exercised by the police officer in respect of any vehicle which is registered in the name of a person against whom a warrant of arrest is in force and which is being used or parked in a public place. (3) Without affecting subsections (1) and (2) but subject to subsection (4), where a police officer, in attempting to execute a warrant of arrest at any private premises, finds at those private premises any vehicle which is registered in the name of the person against whom the warrant of arrest has been issued, the police officer may — ( a ) immobilise the vehicle or cause the vehicle to be immobilised, if it is stationary; or ( b ) seize the vehicle and detain it at a place of safety or cause the vehicle to be seized and detained at a place of safety, and the vehicle must remain so immobilised or detained at the risk of the owner thereof until it is released by order of a Magistrate, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar. (4) Nothing in subsection (3) authorises a police officer to immobilise or seize and detain any vehicle which the police officer finds at any private premises unless, despite all reasonable effort, the police officer is unable at the private premises to effect the arrest of the person against whom the warrant of arrest has been issued. (5) For the purposes of subsections (1), (2) and (3) — ( a ) a police officer or an employee of the Authority may require any person who is driving or who is in charge of the vehicle — (i) to stop the vehicle; (ii) to take the vehicle to any place of safety specified by the police officer or employee of the Authority; or (iii) to render such other cooperation as the police officer or employee of the Authority may reasonably require; and ( b ) a Magistrate, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar may — (i) refuse to order the release of any vehicle that has been immobilised or seized and detained under either of those subsections until the person in whose name the vehicle is registered has been arrested in connection with the warrant of arrest in force against him or her or has surrendered himself or herself to a police officer or the warrant of arrest in force against him or her has been cancelled by a court; and (ii) require the person to whom the vehicle is released to pay any charges prescribed for the release of the vehicle. (6) Where a police officer or an employee of the Authority has immobilised or seized and detained a vehicle under this section, he or she must with all reasonable despatch notify the person in whose name the vehicle is registered of the immobilisation or seizure — ( a ) of the procedure by which the person may secure the release of the vehicle; and ( b ) that unless within 3 months of the date specified in the notification the person surrenders himself or herself to a police officer in connection with the warrant of arrest in force against him or her, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority may proceed to sell or dispose of the vehicle. [24/2010] (7) The notification under subsection (6) may be given — ( a ) where the vehicle has been immobilised, by affixing a notice onto the windscreen or any other conspicuous part of the vehicle; or ( b ) where the vehicle has been seized and detained, in a manner allowed under section 131A. [24/2010; 38/2018] (8) Any person who — ( a ) without the authority of a police officer or an employee of the Authority removes or tampers with any notice affixed onto a vehicle under subsection (7)( a ); or ( b ) without the authority of a Magistrate, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar — (i) removes or tampers with any device or appliance which has been fixed to a vehicle by a police officer or an employee of the Authority for the purpose of immobilising it pursuant to this section; or (ii) removes any vehicle from the place at which it has been immobilised or from the place of safety where it is being detained or causes the vehicle to be so removed, shall be guilty of an offence. [45/99] (9) If upon the expiry of 3 months from the date specified in the notification given under subsection (6) the person in whose name the vehicle is registered has not surrendered himself or herself to a police officer or has not been arrested in connection with the warrant of arrest in force against him or her, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority, after giving one month’s notice in the Gazette of the Deputy Commissioner of Police’s or the Authority’s intention to do so, may sell the vehicle by public auction or otherwise dispose of the vehicle in any manner that the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority thinks fit. [24/2010] (10) The proceeds (if any) from the sale or disposal of the vehicle must be applied in payment of — ( a ) any taxes, fees or charges under this Act or the rules which may be due from the person in whose name the vehicle is registered; and ( b ) any charges incurred in carrying out the provisions of this section, and the surplus (if any) must be paid to the person in whose name the vehicle is registered, or if not claimed by the person within 12 months after the date of the sale or disposal, is forfeited to the Government. [10/2017] (11) Any person who obstructs or hinders the Authority or any employee of the Authority, the Deputy Commissioner of Police or any police officer acting in the discharge of his or her duty under this section shall be guilty of an offence. (12) The Authority or any employee of the Authority, the Deputy Commissioner of Police and any police officer shall not be liable for any damage to or loss of any vehicle or the contents thereof which is not wilfully or negligently caused by them in the exercise of their powers under this section. (13) In this section — “immobilise”, in relation to a vehicle, means to prevent the removal of the vehicle by fixing to the vehicle a device or appliance which is — ( a ) designed or adapted for the purpose of preventing the removal of the vehicle; and ( b ) approved by the Authority or the Deputy Commissioner of Police for use for the purpose of this section; “warrant of arrest” means a warrant of arrest issued by a court against a person in connection with any offence committed by the person under — ( a ) this Act or the rules; or ( b ) the Parking Places Act 1974 or any rules made under that Act. [24/2010; 10/2017]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s95B
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 95B
title: Forfeiture by Authority of seized non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycles, etc.
content:
95B. —(1) Without affecting section 95 or 95A, an order for the forfeiture of a vehicle seized or taken to a place of safety under section 95 or 95A may be made by the Authority if it is satisfied that — ( a ) the vehicle is a non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, a non‑compliant personal mobility device or a non‑compliant mobility vehicle; ( b ) an offence under section 5, 5A, 5B or 10 or any rules made under section 6 has been committed and that the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, non‑compliant personal mobility device or non‑compliant mobility vehicle (as the case may be) was the subject matter, or was used in the commission, of the offence; ( ba ) at the end of 30 days after the date of the seizure or taking to a place of safety, no claim to the vehicle is earlier made in the prescribed manner to the Authority by a person who is not the person from whom the vehicle was seized or required to take the vehicle to a place of safety (or the latter person’s agent); and ( c ) a person is convicted of the offence, or a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence has that offence compounded under section 135. [10/2017; 26/2020] (2) Despite subsection (1), the Authority may at once order the forfeiture of a vehicle seized or taken to a place of safety under section 95 or 95A — ( a ) that is a non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, non‑compliant personal mobility device or non‑compliant mobility vehicle; and ( b ) that the Authority considers is of such a nature or in such condition that it would be dangerous for the Authority to retain custody, or its detention in a place of safety materially increases the likelihood of an outbreak of fire at the place of safety. [26/2020] (3) Upon receipt of a claim mentioned in subsection (1)( ba ), the Authority may direct that the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, non‑compliant personal mobility device or non‑compliant mobility vehicle be released or may refer the matter by information to a Magistrate. [10/2017; 26/2020] (4) The Magistrate is to, on receipt of an information under subsection (3), or on the written application of the Public Prosecutor, hold an inquiry and proceed to determine the matter, and — ( a ) must order the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, the non‑compliant personal mobility device or the non‑compliant mobility vehicle (as the case may be) to be forfeited on proof that the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, the non‑compliant personal mobility device or the non‑compliant mobility vehicle was used in the commission of an offence under section 5, 5A, 5B or 10 or any rules made under section 6; or ( b ) may, in the absence of that proof, order the release of the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, the non‑compliant personal mobility device or the non‑compliant mobility vehicle, as the case may be. [10/2017; 26/2020] (5) In any proceedings under subsection (4), the burden of proof lies on the person asserting that the person is the owner of the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, the non‑compliant personal mobility device or the non‑compliant mobility vehicle concerned, and on the person from whom the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, the non‑compliant personal mobility device or the non‑compliant mobility vehicle was seized, as the case may be. [10/2017; 26/2020] (6) In any proceedings in any court under subsection (4) in respect of the forfeiture of any vehicle seized in the exercise or the purported exercise of any power conferred under section 95 or 95A, no person is entitled to the costs of the proceedings or to any damages or other relief except an order for the return of the vehicle, unless the seizure was made without reasonable or probable cause. [10/2017] (7) Where any non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, non‑compliant personal mobility device or non‑compliant mobility vehicle is forfeited by the Authority under this section, the Authority may, after giving one month’s notice in the Gazette of the Authority’s intention to do so — ( a ) sell by public auction or tender the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, non-compliant personal mobility device or non-compliant mobility vehicle and any uncollected item left in or on it; and a purchaser of any vehicle, article, item or thing sold in accordance with this paragraph acquires good title to that vehicle, article, item or thing; or ( b ) destroy or otherwise dispose of the non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, non-compliant personal mobility device or non-compliant mobility vehicle, article, item or thing, as the case may be. [10/2017; 26/2020] (7A) However, the Authority may direct that a non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle, non‑compliant personal mobility device or non‑compliant mobility vehicle forfeited by the Authority under subsection (2) and which is the subject of a notice under subsection (7) be returned to a person if — ( a ) before the end of the period of the notice in subsection (7), the Authority receives from that person a written objection to the intended sale, destruction or disposal of the vehicle and showing good cause why possession of the vehicle should be returned to the person; and ( b ) there is no reasonable cause for the Authority to believe that an offence under this Act has been committed and the vehicle was the subject matter, or was used in the commission, of the offence. [26/2020] (8) The proceeds of a sale by public auction or tender of any vehicle, article, item or thing under subsection (7) must be applied as follows: ( a ) firstly, in payment of the expenses occasioned by the sale; ( b ) secondly, in payment of storage or other expenses incurred by the Authority in relation to the vehicle, article, item or thing; ( c ) thirdly, by payment of the balance into the Consolidated Fund. [10/2017] (9) In this section — “non‑compliant mobility vehicle” has the meaning given by the Active Mobility Act 2017; “non‑compliant personal mobility device” means a personal mobility device the construction, weight or accessories of which do not comply with the requirements as to construction, weight and accessories prescribed under the Active Mobility Act 2017 either for all personal mobility devices generally or for the particular type of that personal mobility device; “non‑compliant power‑assisted bicycle” means a power‑assisted bicycle the construction, weight or accessories of which do not comply with the requirements as to construction, weight and accessories prescribed under section 6 or the rules made under that section either for all power‑assisted bicycles generally or for the particular type of that power‑assisted bicycle. [10/2017; 26/2020]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s96
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 96
title: Taking of motor vehicle without owner’s consent
content:
96. —(1) Every person who takes and drives away any motor vehicle without having either the consent of the owner thereof or other lawful authority shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months. (2) If an accused satisfies the court that the accused acted in the reasonable belief that the accused had lawful authority or in the reasonable belief that the owner would, in the circumstances of the case, have given the owner’s consent if the owner had been asked therefor, the accused shall not be convicted of the offence under subsection (1). (3) If on the trial of any person for the theft of a motor vehicle the court is of opinion that the accused was not guilty of theft but was guilty of an offence under this section, the court may convict the accused under this section. (4) Any police officer may arrest without warrant any person reasonably suspected by the police officer of having committed or of attempting to commit an offence under this section.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s97
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 97
title: Restriction on persons taking hold of motor vehicle in motion
content:
97. —(1) If any person, otherwise than with lawful authority or reasonable cause, takes or retains hold of or gets on to a motor vehicle or trailer while it is in motion on any road for the purpose of his or her being drawn or carried, the person shall be guilty of an offence. (2) If, while a motor vehicle is on a road or on a parking place where the public may park motor vehicles, any person otherwise than with lawful authority or with reasonable cause gets on to or moves or tampers with the vehicle, the person shall be guilty of an offence. (3) If any person loiters in or near a road or parking place where the public may park motor vehicles for the purpose of importuning or importunes any other person in respect of the watching or cleaning of any motor vehicle during the absence of its driver, the person so loitering or importuning shall be guilty of an offence. (4) Any police officer may arrest without warrant any person reasonably suspected by the police officer of having committed or of attempting to commit an offence under this section.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s98
chapter: PART 4 - GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
section: 98
title: Application to vehicles belonging to Government and armed forces
content:
98. —(1) This Part subject as otherwise provided applies to vehicles, trailers and persons in the service of the Government or of any visiting force lawfully present in Singapore. (2) For the purpose of proceedings for an offence in connection with any such vehicle or trailer against any person other than the driver of the vehicle, the person nominated in that behalf by the department in whose service the vehicle or trailer is used is deemed to be the person actually responsible unless it is shown to the satisfaction of the court that the driver only was responsible. (3) In the case of motor vehicles owned by the Government or by any visiting force lawfully present in Singapore and used for naval, military or air force purposes or in the case of motor vehicles so used while being driven by persons for the time being subject to the orders of any member of the armed forces in Singapore, the Authority may by rules, subject to any conditions that may be specified in the rules, vary in relation to any of those vehicles while being driven as aforesaid the provisions of this Act or any rule, order or notification imposing a speed limit on motor vehicles and the provisions of this Part which respectively — ( a ) impose restrictions on persons below 21 years of age with respect to the driving of heavy locomotives, light locomotives, motor tractors or heavy motor cars; or ( b ) regulate the number of trailers which may be drawn by motor vehicles.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s100
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 100
title: Classification and descriptions of public service vehicles
content:
100. —(1) The classification and descriptions of public service vehicles for the purpose of this Act and the rules are set out in the Second Schedule. [10/2017] (2) The Authority may by order in the Gazette , add to, amend or vary the Second Schedule. (3) The Authority may, by rules made under section 111, subdivide any class of public service vehicles as set out in the Second Schedule, and any reference in this Act or the rules to a class of public service vehicles includes a reference to any subdivision of such class. [10/2017] (4) Despite the classification and descriptions of public service vehicles in the Second Schedule, the Authority may permit any class of public service vehicles to be used for any prescribed purpose.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s101
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 101
title: Prohibition of use of unlicensed public service vehicles
content:
101. —(1) Subject to the provisions of this Part, a person must not use a motor vehicle which is not a proscribed vehicle, or cause or permit a motor vehicle which is not a proscribed vehicle to be used, as a public service vehicle unless there is in force, in respect of the vehicle, a valid licence issued under this Part authorising such use, or otherwise than in accordance with the licence and any conditions attached thereto. [20/2019] (1A) For the purposes of subsection (1), use of a motor vehicle as a private hire car includes a motor car that — ( a ) is in use in connection with a hiring to provide an on‑demand passenger transport service; or ( b ) is immediately available to a provider of a ride‑hail service to take or facilitate the taking of bookings for an on‑demand passenger transport service provided using that vehicle (whether immediately or at a later time). [10/2017; 20/2019] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $3,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. (3) A person shall not be convicted of an offence under this section if the person proves to the satisfaction of the court that the person used the motor vehicle, the subject of the charge, as a public service vehicle in an emergency for the purpose of conveying a sick or injured person to hospital or to bring medical aid to that person or for the purpose of making a report to a police station and that the person had made all reasonable efforts to hire a public service vehicle for the purpose of the journey. (4) A public service vehicle licence is in addition to any other licence issued under this Act and the Point‑to‑Point Passenger Transport Industry Act 2019. [20/2019] (5) Any motor vehicle in respect of which there has been, or there is reasonable cause to suspect that there has been, committed any offence under this section may be seized by any police officer or the Registrar or any officer authorised in writing in that behalf by the Registrar. (6) When any motor vehicle has been seized under subsection (5), a police officer or the Registrar or an officer authorised in writing in that behalf by the Registrar — ( a ) may temporarily return the motor vehicle to its owner on security being furnished to the satisfaction of the police officer, the Registrar or officer so authorised (as the case may be) that the motor vehicle will be surrendered to him or her on demand; or ( b ) must, upon the direction of the Public Prosecutor, and after making any investigations that are necessary for the purposes of this Act, return the motor vehicle to its owner. (7) Where it is proved to the satisfaction of a court before which the prosecution has been held that a motor vehicle seized under subsection (5) has been used in the commission of an offence under this section, the court, on the written application of the Public Prosecutor, is to make an order for the forfeiture of the motor vehicle, even though no person may have been convicted of an offence. (8) If there be no prosecution with regard to any motor vehicle seized under subsection (5), that vehicle must be released at the end of one month from the date of seizure unless it has sooner been released. (9) A police officer may arrest without warrant any person who has committed or whom the police officer reasonably suspects to have committed an offence under this section. (10) For the purposes of this section, a proscribed vehicle means a vehicle of the construction, type or description or a class of vehicles declared by the Minister, by order in the Gazette , to be proscribed and not likewise declared, by subsequent order in the Gazette , to be not proscribed. [20/2019] (11) An order made under subsection (10) by the Minister may contain any saving, transitional, and other consequential, incidental and supplemental provisions that the Minister considers necessary or expedient for the purposes of this Part. [20/2019] (12) A person commits an offence if a person uses or causes or permits a proscribed vehicle to be used as a public service vehicle. [20/2019] (13) A person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (12) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $3,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [20/2019]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s102
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 102
title: Issue of public service vehicle licences
content:
102. —(1) The Registrar may, on application made to him or her in the prescribed manner and on payment of the prescribed fee and subject to any rules that may be prescribed, issue public service vehicle licences. (2) The Registrar must not issue a public service vehicle licence to any person who is a minor or in respect of any vehicle which does not comply with such conditions as to construction, fitness and equipment or otherwise as may be prescribed.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s102A
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 102A
title: Modification of public service vehicle licence conditions
content:
102A. —(1) Subject to this section, the Authority may at any time modify the conditions of a public service vehicle licence. [37/2012] (2) Before modifying any conditions of a public service vehicle licence under subsection (1), the Authority must give notice to the holder of the licence — ( a ) stating that the Authority proposes to make the modification in the manner specified in the notice; and ( b ) specifying the time (not being less than 28 days after the date of service of the notice on the holder of a licence) within which written representations with respect to the proposed modification may be made. [37/2012] (3) Upon receipt of any written representation within the time specified under subsection (2)( b ), the Authority must consider the representation and may — ( a ) reject the representation; ( b ) amend the proposed modification in any manner that it thinks fit having regard to the representation; or ( c ) withdraw the proposed modification. [37/2012] (4) Subject to subsection (6), if the Authority rejects any written representation under subsection (3)( a ) or amends any proposed modification to the conditions of a public service vehicle licence under subsection (3)( b ), the Authority must issue a notice to the holder of the licence stating that the modification as specified in the notice under this subsection takes effect on a date specified in that notice by the Authority. [37/2012] (5) Subject to subsection (6), if no written representation is received by the Authority within the time specified under subsection (2)( b ) or if any written representation made under subsection (2)( b ) is subsequently withdrawn before any decision is made under subsection (3), the Authority must issue a notice to the holder of the licence stating that the modification as specified in the notice under this subsection takes effect on a date specified in that notice by the Authority. [37/2012] (6) Any decision to modify the conditions of a public service vehicle licence does not take effect — ( a ) during the period for appeals mentioned in section 102B(1); and ( b ) where the holder of the licence has appealed against the modification, until the determination of the appeal. [37/2012]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s102B
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 102B
title: Appeal to Minister
content:
102B. —(1) A holder of a public service vehicle licence who is aggrieved by any decision to modify the conditions of the holder’s licence under section 102A may, within 14 days after receiving the notice mentioned in section 102A(4), appeal to the Minister. [37/2012] (2) The Minister may determine an appeal under this section by confirming, varying or reversing any decision of the Authority or amending any licence condition affecting the licensee. [37/2012] (3) The decision of the Minister in any appeal is final. [37/2012]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s103
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 103
title: Maximum number of new public service vehicle licences
content:
103. —(1) Subject to subsection (3), the Authority may, in respect of any period, by determination fix the maximum number of new public service vehicle licences which may be issued under section 102(1) during that period, and the Registrar must comply with that determination. [23/2013] (2) The maximum number of new public service vehicle licences may be fixed by the Authority in one or more of the following terms: ( a ) for public service vehicles of any class; ( b ) for a particular person or class of persons; ( c ) for any period not exceeding one year. [23/2013] (3) In determining under subsection (1) the maximum number of new taxi licences which may be issued to a street‑hail service licensee during any period that may be determined by the Authority, the Authority may take into consideration all relevant matters, including the contravention before that period by the street‑hail service licensee of any service standard condition applicable to that licensee. [23/2013; 20/2019] (4) Before taking into consideration any matter mentioned in subsection (3), the Authority must give the street‑hail service licensee concerned written notice of its intention to do so and a reasonable opportunity to submit reasons, within the period specified in that notice, as to why the matter should not be taken into consideration. [23/2013; 20/2019] (5) The Authority must, as soon as practicable after making a determination under subsection (1), provide a copy of the determination to the Registrar and — ( a ) in the case where the determination applies to a particular person or class of persons, provide a copy of the determination to that person or everyone in that class of persons; or ( b ) in any other case, publish in the Gazette , or in one or more local daily newspapers as the Authority considers appropriate, a notice of the making of the determination. [23/2013] (6) In this section — “new”, in relation to a public service vehicle licence, does not include the renewal of an existing public service vehicle licence; “service standard condition” means a code of practice about performance standards relating to the provision of street‑hail services and the quality of other aspects of the provision of a street‑hail service under the Point‑to‑Point Passenger Transport Industry Act 2019; “taxi licence” means a public service vehicle licence which authorises a motor vehicle to be used as a taxi. [23/2013; 20/2019]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s104
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 104
title: Transfer of public service vehicle licences
content:
104. —(1) The Registrar may permit the transfer of any public service vehicle licence in such manner and on payment of such fee as may be prescribed. (2) No such transfer may take place without the written permission of the Registrar.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s105
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 105
title: Markings of public service vehicles
content:
105. —(1) Every public service vehicle licensed under this Part must have affixed thereto such plate or plates and such other markings for the purpose of identifying such vehicle as a public service vehicle as may be prescribed. [10/2017] (2) On the expiry, suspension or revocation of any public service vehicle licence, the licence together with all plates or other markings issued in connection therewith must be returned to the Registrar within 10 days after the expiry, suspension or revocation. (3) Any person who omits to return any such licence, plate or other marking shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $500. (4) Any person displaying any plate or marking mentioned in subsection (1), or any plate or marking falsely purporting to have been issued under this Part, on any vehicle in respect of which the appropriate public service vehicle licence is not in force shall be guilty of an offence.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s106
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 106
title: Rates of hire
content:
106. —(1) The owner, driver or conductor of a public service vehicle is entitled to demand and take any rates of hire or fares that the Minister may prescribe. (2) Except as otherwise provided, the prescription of any rates of hire or fares does not prevent an owner, driver or conductor from entering into a contract to receive a lower rate of hire or fare than that prescribed. (3) If any dispute arises as to a rate or fare calculated according to distance, the dispute may be referred to the Registrar or to the officer in charge of any police station whose decision is final, and any certificate issued by the Registrar or the police officer with regard thereto is admissible in evidence. (4) The owner, driver or conductor of a public service vehicle who demands or takes or attempts to take any money in excess of those rates or fares shall be guilty of an offence. (5) Any person who refuses to pay the owner, driver or conductor (as the case may be) the prescribed rate of hire or the prescribed fare when lawfully demanded shall be guilty of an offence. (6) This section does not apply to omnibuses, taxis and private hire cars to the extent that fares for the provision of bus services and ride‑hail services and street‑hail services using those vehicles are regulated by or under the Public Transport Council Act 1987. [20/2019]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s107
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 107
title: Responsibility of owner of public service vehicles
content:
107. —(1) The owner of a public service vehicle is, unless the owner satisfies the court that the owner took every reasonable precaution to avoid the commission thereof, responsible for every offence committed under this Act or the rules in connection with the use of the vehicle and may, in the discretion of the Registrar, be prosecuted for the offence either in addition to or instead of the driver or conductor, as the case may be. [10/2017] (2) When the driver or conductor of any public service vehicle is reasonably believed to be guilty of an offence under this Act or the rules, the owner of the vehicle and any other person who was or should have been in charge of the vehicle at or about the relevant time must give to the Registrar or to any police officer any information that the Registrar or the police officer may require of the owner or other person concerning the identity and address of the person believed to be guilty of the offence. [10/2017] (3) If any person fails to do so within 7 days of the date on which the information was required of that person under subsection (2), unless the person shows to the satisfaction of the court that the person did not know and could not with reasonable diligence have ascertained the information required, the person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $100. (4) Despite anything in any other written law, any information given under subsection (2) by any person charged with any offence under this Act or the rules may be used as evidence at the hearing of the charge. [10/2017]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s108
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 108
title: Revocation and suspension of licences
content:
108. The Registrar may at any time suspend or revoke a public service vehicle licence if — ( a ) owing to any defects in the vehicle in respect of which the licence is issued, the vehicle is or is likely to become unfit for service; ( aa ) the vehicle in respect of which the licence is issued is proscribed under section 101(10); ( b ) having regard to the conduct of the holder of the licence or to the manner in which the vehicle is being used, it appears to the Registrar that the licence should be suspended or revoked; ( c ) in the case of a public service vehicle licence issued in respect of a taxi, the holder of the licence — (i) has attained 63 years of age; (ii) holds more than one public service vehicle licence issued in respect of a taxi; or (iii) has ceased to carry on his or her vocation as a taxi‑driver; or ( d ) the licensee has contravened any of the provisions of this Act or the rules. [10/2017; 20/2019]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s109
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 109
title: Public stands
content:
109. The Authority may provide, appoint and regulate the use of any public stands for any class of public service vehicle that it thinks fit, and on the application of or with the consent of the owner of any private property may regulate the use of public stands provided on the private property.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s110
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 110
title: Vocational licences
content:
110. —(1) A person must not — ( a ) drive or act as a conductor of a public service vehicle on a road unless he or she holds a vocational licence granted by the Registrar under this Part for those purposes; or ( b ) employ or permit any person who is not so licensed to drive or act as a conductor of a public service vehicle. [37/2012] (2) The Registrar may, on application made to him or her in the prescribed manner and on payment of the prescribed fee and subject to any rules that may be prescribed, grant vocational licences. (2A) The Registrar must not grant a vocational licence unless he or she is satisfied that the applicant for the licence is of the minimum age as prescribed for that class of public service vehicle and fulfils any other conditions that may be prescribed. (3) A vocational licence to drive a public service vehicle may limit the authorisation of the holder of the licence to driving, or acting as a conductor of, only one or more classes of public service vehicles specified in the licence. [10/2017] (4) The Registrar may suspend or revoke, in whole or in part, a vocational licence on the ground that the holder of the licence — ( a ) is contravening or not complying with, or has contravened or failed to comply with, any of the conditions of the licence, or any provision of this Act or rules under this Part applicable to the holder of the licence as such; or ( b ) is not a fit or proper person to hold the licence because of his or her conduct, after taking into consideration the total number of demerit points accumulated by the holder of the licence under those rules in respect of the licence or another licence, or his or her physical condition. [10/2017] (5) Where the Registrar refuses to grant or suspends or revokes a vocational licence, the applicant or licence holder (as the case may be) may appeal to the Minister, and on such appeal, the Minister, after such inquiry, if any, as the Minister may consider necessary, may make such order as the Minister thinks fit, and any order so made is binding on the Registrar and on the appellant.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s110A
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 110A
title: General suspension of participating bookable drivers
content:
110A. —(1) The Registrar may in the circumstances in subsection (2), by a general suspension order served on persons mentioned in subsection (3), direct that every bookable vehicle driver who is a participating bookable driver of the same designated exempt ride‑hail service operator stop providing, during a blackout period, on‑demand passenger transport services the booking of which is taken or facilitated by that designated exempt ride‑hail service operator. [10/2017; 20/2019] (2) A general suspension order may be made where the Registrar is satisfied that — ( a ) one of the participating bookable drivers of a designated exempt ride‑hail service operator has been convicted of a relevant offence in the course of being a participating bookable driver of the designated exempt ride‑hail service operator; and ( b ) within a period of 12 months before the commission of the relevant offence in paragraph ( a ), 2 or more other participating bookable drivers of the same designated exempt ride‑hail service operator have also been convicted of a relevant offence each in the course of being a participating bookable driver of that designated exempt ride‑hail service operator, regardless of any general suspension order earlier served in respect of that same designated exempt ride‑hail service operator or that a blackout period for any earlier general suspension order is current. [10/2017; 20/2019] (3) A general suspension order relating to a designated exempt ride‑hail service operator must be given to — ( a ) the class comprising every participating bookable driver of the same designated exempt ride‑hail service operator concerned; and ( b ) the designated exempt ride‑hail service operator. [10/2017; 20/2019] (4) A general suspension order may be made under subsection (1) only after giving the designated exempt ride‑hail service operator concerned a reasonable opportunity to be heard. [10/2017; 20/2019] (5) In determining whether a driver has been convicted of a relevant offence, the Registrar may reckon any offer of composition under section 135 for a relevant offence that is accepted by the driver in relation to that offence as if that driver had been convicted of that relevant offence. [10/2017] (6) However, where a driver has been convicted of a relevant offence, and it is open to the driver to appeal against the conviction (either with the permission of the court or without such permission), the Registrar, in determining whether a driver has been convicted of a relevant offence, must disregard the conviction until — ( a ) no further appeal is open to the driver; or ( b ) by reason of the end of any period for entering an appeal or a notice of appeal, or the refusal of permission to appeal or for any other reason, it ceases to be open for the driver to appeal. [10/2017] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (7) A general suspension order that is addressed to a class of persons is sufficiently served if it is published both — ( a ) in a daily newspaper circulating in Singapore or in any other news media that, in the opinion of the Authority, will be most likely to bring the direction to the attention of the persons who belong to the class; and ( b ) on the Authority’s official website. [10/2017] (8) A general suspension order that is served in accordance with subsection (7) takes effect at the beginning of the day after the date on which both paragraphs ( a ) and ( b ) of subsection (7) have been complied with. [10/2017] (9) A participating bookable driver of a designated exempt ride‑hail service operator who — ( a ) is in the class of participating bookable drivers served with a general suspension order (in accordance with subsection (7)) directing him or her to stop providing any on‑demand passenger transport service the booking of which is taken or facilitated by that designated exempt ride‑hail service operator; and ( b ) provides any on‑demand passenger transport service the booking of which is taken or facilitated by that designated exempt ride‑hail service operator during the blackout period for that general suspension order, shall be guilty of an offence. [20/2019] (10) It is not a defence in any proceeding for an offence under subsection (9) that the accused holds a vocational licence granted under section 110 authorising him or her to drive a public service vehicle. [10/2017; 20/2019]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s110B
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 110B
title: Interpretation of sections 110A and 111
content:
110B. In sections 110A and 111 — “blackout period”, for a general suspension order, means a period after the general suspension order takes effect, of a duration that is fixed and specified by the Registrar in the order, being a period not exceeding one month; “bookable vehicle” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Point‑to‑Point Passenger Transport Industry Act 2019; “designated exempt ride‑hail service operator” means a person who is an exempt ride‑hail service operator and is prescribed by rules under section 111 to be designated by the Authority for the purposes of this definition; “participating bookable driver”, for a designated exempt ride-hail service operator, means a driver who has a participating driver agreement with the operator, and it is immaterial whether — ( a ) the driver is an employee or agent of the designated exempt ride-hail service operator; or ( b ) where the designated exempt ride‑hail service operator is a platform operator, the driver is a platform worker of the operator; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “participating driver agreement”, in relation to a designated exempt ride‑hail service operator providing a ride-hail service, means an agreement or arrangement between the designated exempt ride‑hail service operator and a driver of a bookable vehicle under which — ( a ) the designated exempt ride‑hail service operator agrees to — (i) take or facilitate any booking by or on behalf of a passenger for bookable vehicles to be made available in providing on‑demand passenger transport services (whether immediately or at a later time) to the passenger; and (ii) communicate the booking to participating bookable drivers; and ( b ) the driver agrees to carry out the on‑demand passenger transport service in the booking by transporting the passenger for hire or reward, using a bookable vehicle, and it does not matter — ( c ) whether or not — (i) the driver is an employee or agent of the designated exempt ride‑hail service operator; or (ii) where the designated exempt ride‑hail service operator is a platform operator, the driver is a platform worker of that operator; or ( d ) whether the vehicle is hired from that operator; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “platform operator” has the meaning given by section 4 of the Platform Workers Act 2024; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “platform worker” has the meaning given by section 5(1) of the Platform Workers Act 2024; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/01/2025] “relevant offence” means any of the following offences committed on or after 1 July 2017: ( a ) an offence under section 101(2) involving any private hire car; ( b ) an offence under section 131 for contravening section 110(1)( a ) involving any private hire car; ( c ) an offence under section 3 of the Motor Vehicles (Third‑Party Risks and Compensation) Act 1960 involving any private hire car. [10/2017; 20/2019]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s111
chapter: PART 5 - PUBLIC SERVICE VEHICLES
section: 111
title: Rules for purposes of this Part
content:
111. —(1) The Authority may make any rules as it may consider expedient for the purposes of this Part. [10/2017] (2) Any rules made under subsection (1) may provide that any contravention of any provision of the rules shall be an offence punishable with a fine not exceeding $10,000. [20/2019]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s112
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 112
title: Issue by Minister of highway code for guidance of users of roads
content:
112. —(1) The Minister may prepare a code (called in this section the highway code) comprising directions that appear to the Minister to be proper for the guidance of persons using roads and may revise the code by revoking, varying, amending or adding to the provisions thereof in any manner that he or she thinks fit. (2) The highway code and any revision thereof must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette . (3) Subject to subsections (1) and (2), the Minister may cause the code and every revised edition of the code to be printed and issued to the public either without charge or at the price he or she thinks fit. (4) The Minister may take any other steps that he or she thinks fit for securing that the provisions of the code are brought to the notice of the public. (5) A failure on the part of any person to observe any provision of the highway code shall not of itself render that person liable to criminal proceedings of any kind, but the failure may, in any proceedings whether civil or criminal and including proceedings for an offence under this Act, be relied upon by any party to the proceedings as tending to establish or to negative any liability which is in question in those proceedings.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s113
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 113
title: Power to restrict use of vehicles on specified roads
content:
113. —(1) The Deputy Commissioner of Police, with the concurrence of the Minister, may by order in the Gazette prohibit or restrict, subject to any exceptions and conditions as to occasional user or otherwise that may be specified in the order, the driving of vehicles or of any specified class or description of vehicles on any specified road within Singapore in any case in which he or she is satisfied that — ( a ) the vehicles cannot be used or cannot without restriction be used on that road without endangering the safety of the vehicles or the persons therein or of other persons using the road; or ( b ) the road is unsuitable for use or for unrestricted use by the vehicles. (2) The Deputy Commissioner of Police, with the concurrence of the Minister, may make an order under this section, not inconsistent with the rules, for any of the following purposes: ( a ) the specification of the routes to be followed by vehicles; ( b ) the prohibition or restriction of the use of specified roads by vehicles of any specified class or description either generally or during particular hours; ( c ) the prohibition of the driving of vehicles on any specified road otherwise than in a specified direction; ( d ) otherwise in relation to the regulation of traffic; ( e ) the prohibition or regulation of the use of any road or any part thereof for the display, hire or sale of any vehicle or animal. (3) No order may be made under subsection (2) with respect to any road which would have the effect of preventing such access as may reasonably be required for vehicles of any class or description to any premises situated on or adjacent to the road. (4) An order made under this section and expressed to be a temporary order remains in force for any period not exceeding 3 months that may be specified therein. (5) An order not expressed to be temporary must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette and may be annulled or amended by a resolution of Parliament. (6) Any person who uses a vehicle or causes or permits a vehicle to be used in contravention of an order made under this section shall be guilty of an offence.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s114
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 114
title: Traffic regulation on special roads
content:
114. —(1) The Minister may make rules to prohibit or restrict the use of any special road by any traffic or class of traffic subject to any conditions or exceptions that may be prescribed. (2) Rules made under this section may make provision with respect to special roads generally, or may make different provision with respect to special roads provided for the use of different classes of traffic, or may make provision with respect to any particular special road. (3) Rules made under this section may, in particular — ( a ) regulate the manner in which and the conditions subject to which special roads may be used by traffic of any class; ( b ) authorise, or enable the Deputy Commissioner of Police to authorise, the use of special roads, on any occasion or in an emergency or for the purpose of crossing, or for the purpose of securing access to premises abutting on or adjacent to the special roads by any traffic; and ( c ) relax, or enable the Deputy Commissioner of Police to relax, any prohibition or restriction imposed by the rules. (4) In this section — “special road” means any road specified in the rules made under this section to be a special road, and includes any part of a special road; “traffic” includes pedestrians; “use”, in relation to a road, includes crossing.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s114A
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 114A
title: Regulation of use of excluded vehicles on expressways
content:
114A. —(1) The Minister may make rules to prohibit, restrict or regulate the use of any excluded vehicle on an expressway. [24/2010] (2) Rules made under subsection (1) may — ( a ) require the owner or driver of any excluded vehicle to — (i) obtain a permit from the Authority before using the excluded vehicle on an expressway; (ii) comply with any conditions that may be imposed by the Authority when granting the permit; and (iii) comply with any directions that the Authority or an employee of the Authority may give regarding the use of the excluded vehicle on an expressway, or the inspection of the permit granted to the owner or driver; ( b ) authorise, or empower the Authority or an employee of the Authority to authorise, the use of an excluded vehicle on any expressway on any occasion or in an emergency or for the purpose of crossing, or for the purpose of securing access by that excluded vehicle to any premises abutting on or adjacent to the expressway; ( c ) relax, or empower the Authority or an employee of the Authority to relax, in a particular case any prohibition or restriction imposed by those rules; and ( d ) prescribe the form and manner in which an application for a permit mentioned in paragraph ( a ) is to be made. [24/2010] (3) In this section — “excluded vehicle” means a vehicle which is prescribed by rules made under subsection (1) to be an excluded vehicle for the purpose of this section; “expressway” means any road that is prescribed by rules made under subsection (1) to be an expressway for the purpose of this section; “use”, in relation to an expressway, includes crossing. [24/2010]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s115
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 115
title: Power of Authority temporarily to prohibit or restrict traffic on roads
content:
115. —(1) Subject to this section, if the Authority is satisfied that traffic on any road should, by reason of any construction works or works of repair being required or being in progress on, over or under the road, be restricted or prohibited, the Authority may, if it thinks fit, restrict or prohibit the use of that road or any part thereof by vehicles or by vehicles of any particular class or description to such extent and subject to such conditions or exceptions as the Authority may consider necessary. [24/2010] (2) The Authority must cause a notice to be issued to the general public or to any persons determined by the Authority, informing them of the prohibition or restriction and of the alternative route or routes (if any) available for traffic. [24/2010] (3) A notice under subsection (2) must be issued in such form and manner and for such period as the Authority thinks fit. [24/2010] (4) So long as any restriction or prohibition made under this section is in force, a notice stating the effect thereof and describing any alternative route or routes available for traffic must be kept posted in a conspicuous manner at each end of the part of the road to which the restriction or prohibition relates and at the points at which it will be necessary for vehicles to diverge from the road. (5) The Authority may at any time by notice restrict or prohibit temporarily the use of any road or part thereof by vehicles or by vehicles of any particular class or description where, owing to the likelihood of danger to the public or of serious damage to the road or part thereof, it appears to the Authority to be necessary that the restriction or prohibition should come into force without delay. [24/2010] (6) The notice must describe the alternative route or routes (if any) available for traffic and must be issued in such form and manner and for such period as the Authority thinks fit. [24/2010] (7) Where the Authority has issued a notice under subsection (6), the Authority may, before the end of the period referred to in that subsection, proceed to make a restriction or prohibition under subsection (1) with respect to the same road or part thereof. [24/2010] (7A) For the purposes of subsection (1), any person who intends to carry out any construction works or works of repair on, over or under the road must give notice to the Authority in the prescribed form and manner, and within the prescribed time before the start of the works, failing which the person shall be guilty of an offence. [24/2010] (8) Any person who uses or causes or permits the use of a vehicle in contravention of any restriction or prohibition imposed under this section shall be guilty of an offence. (9) The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, make rules for carrying out or giving effect to this section, and in particular, for prescribing — ( a ) the form and manner in which, and the period within which, a notice mentioned in subsection (7A) is to be given to the Authority; ( b ) the documents, information and indemnity to be given to the Authority together with the notice referred to in subsection (7A); ( c ) the duties of — (i) the person carrying out any construction works or works of repair on, over or under any road or part thereof; or (ii) the person for whom the works are being carried out, in relation to the restriction or prohibition of the use of that road or part thereof by vehicles or by vehicles of any particular class or description; and ( d ) the penalties (not exceeding those provided by section 131) for any breach or failure to comply with the rules. [24/2010] (10) Where any construction works or works of repair are being carried out on, over or under any road or part thereof, an employee of the Authority, may at any time without notice, enter upon the site of the works to — ( a ) inspect the measures that have been put in place for the regulation or diversion of traffic in connection with the restriction or prohibition of the use of that road or part thereof arising from such works, in order to ensure that the measures are suitable and adequate; and ( b ) give any directions that the employee of the Authority thinks necessary to the person carrying out the works or for whom the works are being carried out in relation to the restriction or prohibition of the use of that road or part thereof by vehicles or by vehicles of any particular class or description. [24/2010] (11) A person shall be guilty of an offence if the person — ( a ) refuses to give access to or obstructs or hinders an employee of the Authority who is carrying out any inspection under subsection (10)( a ); or ( b ) fails to comply with any direction given to the person by an employee of the Authority under subsection (10)( b ). [24/2010]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s116
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 116
title: Restriction of competitions and speed trials
content:
116. —(1) No competition or trial of speed involving the use of vehicles may take place on a road except under, and in accordance with the conditions of, a permit granted by the Deputy Commissioner of Police. [24/2010] (2) An application for a permit mentioned in subsection (1) must — ( a ) be made to the Deputy Commissioner of Police in such form or manner, and not less than such period before the date of the competition or trial of speed, as the Deputy Commissioner of Police may require; and ( b ) be accompanied by such fee (if any) as the Minister may prescribe. [24/2010] (3) Upon receiving an application under subsection (2), the Deputy Commissioner of Police may — ( a ) grant the permit applied for — (i) in such form and manner as the Deputy Commissioner of Police may determine; and (ii) subject to any conditions that the Deputy Commissioner of Police thinks fit to impose; or ( b ) refuse to grant the permit. [24/2010] (4) [ Deleted by Act 24 of 2010 ] (5) [ Deleted by Act 24 of 2010 ] (6) [ Deleted by Act 24 of 2010 ] (7) Any person who promotes or takes part in any competition or trial of speed that is in contravention of subsection (1) and any driver or person in charge of any vehicle used in or taking part in any such competition or trial of speed shall be guilty of an offence and shall on conviction be punished with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months and shall also be punished with a fine not exceeding $5,000 and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years and with a fine not exceeding $10,000. [24/2010; 12/2021] (8) Any police officer may arrest without warrant any person committing an offence under subsection (7) and may seize and detain for the purposes of proceedings under this Act any vehicle used in or taking part in any competition or trial of speed that is in contravention of subsection (1). [24/2010] (9) A person convicted of an offence under subsection (7) shall, unless the court for any special reason thinks fit to order otherwise and without prejudice to the power of the court to order a longer period of disqualification, be disqualified from holding or obtaining a driving licence for a period of not less than 12 months starting on the date of the person’s conviction or, if the person is sentenced to imprisonment, on the date of the person’s release from prison. [Act 2 of 2025 wef 01/01/2026]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s117
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 117
title: Court to order forfeiture of vehicle
content:
117. —(1) Where it is proved to the satisfaction of a court that a vehicle has been used in the commission of an offence under section 116(7), and that the vehicle has been seized by the police, the court, on the written application of the Public Prosecutor, is to make an order for the forfeiture of the vehicle even though no person may have been convicted of that offence. (2) An order for the forfeiture or for the release of a vehicle liable to forfeiture under this section may be made by the court before which the prosecution with regard to an offence under section 116(7) has been or will be held. (3) If there be no prosecution with regard to an offence under section 116(7), the vehicle seized under section 116(8) must be forfeited at the expiry of one month from the date of the seizure unless a claim thereto is made before that date. Any person asserting that the person is the owner of the vehicle may personally, or by the person’s agent authorised in writing, give written notice to the Commissioner of Police that the person claims the vehicle. (4) Upon receipt of a notice under subsection (3), the Commissioner of Police may direct that the vehicle be released or may refer the matter by information to a Magistrate. (5) The Magistrate, on receipt of an information under subsection (4), or on the written application of the Public Prosecutor, is to hold an inquiry and proceed to determine the matter and is to, on proof that the vehicle was used in the commission of an offence under section 116(7), order the vehicle to be forfeited, or may in the absence of such proof order its release. (6) No person is, in any proceedings in any court in respect of the seizure of any vehicle seized in exercise or the purported exercise of any power conferred under this section, entitled to the costs of the proceedings or to any damages or other relief, other than an order for the return of the vehicle, unless the seizure was made without reasonable or probable cause. (7) Despite subsections (1) and (3), a court need not make an order for the forfeiture of a vehicle that has been seized by the police if it is proved to the satisfaction of the court that the person who committed the offence under section 116(7) involving the vehicle — ( a ) is not the owner of the vehicle; and ( b ) had used the vehicle without the consent of the owner. [12/2021]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s118
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 118
title: Power to prohibit or restrict use of vehicles on certain bridges
content:
118. —(1) When the Authority is satisfied that any bridge over which a road passes is insufficient to carry vehicles of which the weights or axle weights as hereinafter defined exceed certain limits, the Authority may by a conspicuous notice placed in a proper position at each end of the bridge prohibit the use of the bridge either — ( a ) by any vehicle of which the weight exceeds a maximum weight specified in the notice; or ( b ) by any vehicle of which — (i) the weight exceeds a maximum weight so specified; or (ii) any axle weight exceeds a maximum axle weight so specified. (2) The notice may as regards both weight of vehicle and axle weight specify different maximum weights in relation to a vehicle travelling at a speed less than a speed specified in the notice and in relation to a vehicle travelling at that speed or any greater speed. (3) In this section — ( a ) “placed in a proper position” means placed in such a position either on or near the bridge or on or near the road leading to the bridge as to be visible at a reasonable distance from the bridge to the drivers of vehicles approaching it; ( b ) “weight” means the actual weight of the vehicle at the time including the weight of every person and thing carried by it; and ( c ) the weight transmitted by a vehicle to any transverse strip of the road surface 152.4 centimetres in breadth is taken as being an “axle weight” of that vehicle and for the purposes of this paragraph a vehicle and any trailer drawn thereby is deemed to be a single vehicle. (4) The fact that a prohibition mentioned in subsection (1) has been made by the Authority and has been notified in the manner prescribed in that subsection must be published in the Gazette . (5) Any omission to so publish the prohibition and notification does not affect the validity of the prohibition or notification. (6) If without the consent of the Authority, a vehicle is driven across a bridge in contravention of this section, any person who so drives it or causes or permits it to be so driven shall, without prejudice to any civil liability incurred by the person in the case of damage being caused to the bridge or otherwise, be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $400 and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $1,000. (7) If, in any proceedings under this section, the prosecutor satisfies the court that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the weight of the vehicle exceeded the maximum weight specified in the notice or that any axle weight of the vehicle exceeded the maximum axle weight so specified, the burden lies on the defendant to prove that the weight of the vehicle or every axle weight of the vehicle (as the case may be) did not exceed the maximum weight or maximum axle weight.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s119
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 119
title: Power to place traffic signs
content:
119. —(1) The Authority may cause or permit traffic signs to be drawn, placed or erected and maintained on or near any road, and any signs so drawn, placed or erected are subject to and must be in conformity with any general or special directions that the Minister may give. (2) Traffic signs must be of the prescribed size, colour and type except where the Authority, with the approval of the Minister, authorises the placing or retention of a sign of another character. (3) No traffic signs may be drawn or placed on or near any road except under and in accordance with subsections (1) and (2). (4) The Authority must, by written notice, require the owner or occupier of any land on which there is any traffic sign or any object which so closely resembles a traffic sign that it might reasonably be taken to be such a sign to remove it and if any person fails to comply with the notice, the Authority may cause the removal to be effected with as little damage as may be and the expense incurred in doing so may be recovered as a civil debt from the person so in default. (5) Subsection (4) does not apply in the case of any sign or object which complies with subsection (2) and the retention of which is expressly authorised by the Authority. (6) The Authority may authorise the entry upon any land and the exercise of any other powers that may be necessary for the purpose of the exercise and performance of its powers and duties under this section. (7) In this Part, “traffic sign” includes all signals, warning sign posts, direction posts, signs, lines or other devices for the guidance or direction of persons using roads, but does not include warning signs or other devices temporarily set up by any Government department to indicate that road work is in progress. (8) Any person wilfully and unlawfully damaging, moving, defacing, altering or otherwise interfering with, any traffic sign shall be guilty of an offence, and any police officer or the Registrar or any officer authorised in writing in that behalf by the Registrar on production of his or her authority may without warrant arrest any person found committing the offence. (9) The Authority, with the approval of the Minister, may make rules to prescribe the size, colour and type of traffic signs to be drawn or placed on or near roads.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s120
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 120
title: Duty to comply with traffic directions and traffic signs
content:
120. —(1) Where a police officer, an employee of the Authority or a security officer, who is in uniform, is for the time being engaged in the regulation of traffic on a road — ( a ) any person driving or propelling any vehicle must stop the vehicle or make it proceed in or keep to a particular line of traffic when directed to do so by the police officer, employee of the Authority or security officer (as the case may be) in the execution of his or her duty; and ( b ) any pedestrian must comply with any direction given by the police officer, employee of the Authority or security officer (as the case may be) in the execution of his or her duty, either to pedestrians or to pedestrians and other traffic. [24/2010] (2) Where a police officer or a security officer, who is in uniform, is for the time being engaged in the regulation of traffic on a road at any place where there are traffic light signals regulating the movement of traffic, any person driving a vehicle must comply with the directions given by the police officer or security officer even though the traffic light signals indicate otherwise. [24/2010] (3) Where any traffic sign, being a sign for regulating the movement of traffic or indicating the route to be followed by traffic, has been lawfully placed on or near any road pursuant to section 119, any person driving or propelling any vehicle must comply with the indication given by the sign. [24/2010] (4) Any person who fails to comply with subsection (1), (2) or (3) shall be guilty of an offence. [24/2010] (5) In any proceedings for an offence under subsection (3), insofar as it is necessary to establish the offence charged, it is presumed until the contrary is proved that the sign was of the prescribed size, colour and type and that it was lawfully placed under section 119. [24/2010]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s121
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 121
title: Pedestrian crossings
content:
121. —(1) Crossings for pedestrians (called in this section crossings) may be established on roads, or on subways constructed under roads, or on bridges constructed over roads, in accordance with this section. (2) The Minister may make rules with respect to the precedence of vehicles and pedestrians respectively and generally with respect to the movement of traffic (including pedestrians) at and in the vicinity of crossings. (3) Without limiting subsection (2), rules made thereunder may be made prohibiting pedestrian traffic on the carriageway within 100 metres of a crossing, and with respect to the indication of the limits of a crossing, or of any other matter whatsoever relating to the crossing, by marks or devices on or near the roadway or otherwise, and generally with respect to the erection of traffic signs in connection with a crossing. (4) Different rules may be made under this section in relation to different conditions and, in particular, different rules may be made in relation to crossings in the vicinity of, and at a distance from, a junction of roads, and to traffic which is controlled by the police, and by traffic signals, and by different kinds of traffic signals, and which is not controlled. (5) Rules may be made under this section applying only to a particular crossing or particular crossings specified in the rules. (6) Any person who contravenes any of the rules made under this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) if the offence was committed by the person in his or her capacity as the driver of a vehicle, to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months; and ( b ) in any other case, to a fine not exceeding $100.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s122
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 122
title: Leaving vehicles in positions likely to cause danger, obstruction or undue inconvenience
content:
122. Except as otherwise provided in section 84(4), if any person in charge of a vehicle causes or permits the vehicle or any trailer drawn thereby to remain at rest on any road in such a position or in such condition or in such circumstances as to be likely to cause danger, obstruction or undue inconvenience to other users of the road or to traffic, the person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both and, in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [10/2017]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s123
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 123
title: Removal or immobilisation of abandoned or illegally parked vehicles, etc.
content:
123. —(1) Where a vehicle — ( a ) is parked or permitted to stand on any road in contravention of any provision of this Act or the rules or in such a manner as to constitute a danger or unreasonable obstruction to traffic or persons using the road; or ( b ) appears to have been abandoned on a road, an enforcement officer who is in uniform may — ( c ) require the owner, driver or other person in control or in charge of the vehicle to remove the vehicle; ( d ) remove the vehicle (including any trailer drawn or any load carried thereby) to any place that the enforcement officer thinks fit and detain it at that place; or ( e ) immobilise the vehicle. [24/2010; 10/2017] (2) Where an enforcement officer has removed and detained, or has immobilised, any vehicle under subsection (1), the enforcement officer must, with all reasonable despatch, notify the owner of the vehicle (if known) as to the procedure by which the owner may secure the release of the vehicle. [24/2010; 38/2018] (3) The notification under subsection (2) may be given — ( a ) where the vehicle has been removed and detained, in any manner the enforcement officer thinks expedient; or ( b ) where the vehicle has been immobilised, by affixing a notice onto the windscreen or any other conspicuous part of the vehicle. [24/2010; 38/2018] (4) No vehicle which has been removed and detained, or immobilised, under this section may be released to the owner of the vehicle except — ( a ) by or under the direction of a Magistrate or the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar; and ( b ) upon the owner of the vehicle having paid the costs of the removal and detention, or the immobilisation, of the vehicle, and any other charges that may be prescribed, and the vehicle remains at the risk of the owner of the vehicle until all the costs and charges have been paid. [24/2010] (5) A person shall be guilty of an offence if the person — ( a ) without reasonable excuse, fails to remove the person’s vehicle when required to do so by an enforcement officer under subsection (1)( c ); or ( b ) without being authorised to do so by a Magistrate or the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar, removes, attempts to remove or tampers with — (i) any notice that has been affixed to a vehicle under subsection (3)( b ); (ii) any vehicle from the place at which it is being detained under this section; or (iii) the immobilisation device that has been fixed to a vehicle under this section. [24/2010] (6) Where the owner or driver of a vehicle which has been immobilised under this section does not appear to secure the release of the vehicle within the time stipulated in the notice mentioned in subsection (3)( b ), an enforcement officer may remove the vehicle (including any trailer drawn or any load carried thereby) to any place that he or she thinks fit and detain it at that place, and must give notice to the owner of the vehicle (if known) in accordance with subsection (3)( a ) as to the procedure by which the owner may secure the release of the vehicle. [24/2010; 38/2018] (7) Where any vehicle which has been removed and detained, or immobilised, under this section is not claimed by its owner within 3 months from the date on which it was so removed and detained or immobilised (as the case may be), the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar may, after giving due notice in the Gazette and after giving at least one month’s written notice to the owner (if the name and address of the owner are known to the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Registrar), sell the vehicle by public auction or otherwise dispose of the vehicle. [24/2010] (8) The proceeds from the sale or disposal of the vehicle must be applied in the payment of the costs incurred in carrying out the provisions of this section and any other charges that may be prescribed, and the surplus (if any) must be paid to the owner of the vehicle or, if not claimed by the owner within 12 months, is forfeited to the Government. [24/2010] (9) The enforcement officer who removes and detains, or who immobilises, a vehicle under this section, the Deputy Commissioner of Police, the Registrar, the Authority or any person who assists the enforcement officer to remove and detain, or to immobilise, the vehicle shall not be liable for any damage to or loss of the vehicle or the contents thereof not caused wilfully or negligently by the enforcement officer, the Deputy Commissioner of Police, the Registrar, the Authority or the person assisting the enforcement officer in the exercise of the powers under this section. [24/2010] (10) In this section — “enforcement officer” means a police officer or an employee of the Authority; “immobilise”, in relation to a vehicle, means to prevent the removal of the vehicle by fixing to the vehicle a device or appliance which is designed or adapted for the purpose of preventing the removal of the vehicle. [24/2010]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s123A
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 123A
title: Removal of stationary vehicles from expressways
content:
123A. —(1) Without affecting section 123, an employee of the Authority or an agent authorised by the Authority may remove any stationary vehicle from an expressway. [28/2001] (1A) Any person who refuses to allow the employee or agent to exercise his or her power under subsection (1) or who obstructs the exercise of the power by the employee or agent shall be guilty of an offence. [4/2006] (2) An employee or authorised agent of the Authority who has removed any vehicle from an expressway under subsection (1) must take the vehicle to a parking place that is near to that part of the expressway from which the vehicle was removed. (3) A vehicle which has been removed from an expressway and taken to a parking place under this section must remain at the parking place at the risk of the owner of the vehicle, and the owner is responsible for any parking charges incurred in respect of that vehicle while it remains at that parking place. (4) An employee or authorised agent of the Authority who has removed a vehicle from an expressway and taken it to a parking place under this section must with all reasonable despatch give to the owner of the vehicle (if the owner’s name and address are known) written notice of the removal and the location of the parking place to which the vehicle has been taken, and must in the notice inform the owner of the procedure by which the owner may claim the vehicle. (5) Any person who without the authority of an employee of the Authority removes any vehicle from a parking place to which it has been taken under subsection (2) or otherwise tampers with the vehicle shall be guilty of an offence. (6) Where a vehicle has been removed from an expressway and taken to a parking place under this section, neither the Authority nor any of its employees or authorised agents who effected the removal shall be liable for any damage to or loss of the vehicle or the contents thereof not caused wilfully or negligently by the Authority or by any of its employees or authorised agents in the exercise of their powers under this section or by any person acting under the direction of any employee or authorised agent of the Authority. (7) The costs and expenses (as determined by the Authority) of removing any vehicle and of taking the vehicle to a parking place under this section must be borne by the owner of the vehicle and if the costs and expenses are not paid upon demand therefor, they may be recovered from the owner of the vehicle as a debt due to the Authority. (8) If a vehicle is not claimed by its owner within one month of the date on which it was taken to a parking place under subsection (2), the Authority, after giving one month’s notice in the Gazette of its intention to do so, may sell the vehicle by public auction or otherwise dispose of the vehicle. (9) The proceeds (if any) from the sale or disposal of any vehicle under subsection (8) must be applied in payment of — ( a ) firstly, any charges incurred in carrying out the provisions of this section; and ( b ) secondly, any damage that may have been caused to any property of the Government by any unlawful use of the vehicle, and the surplus (if any) must be paid to the owner of the vehicle or, if not claimed by the owner of the vehicle within 12 months after the date of the sale or disposal, is forfeited to the Government. (10) The Authority may waive, in whole or in part, the costs and expenses of the removal of a vehicle mentioned in subsection (7). (11) Except as provided in subsection (1), any person who, without the prior authorisation of the Authority, tows any stationary vehicle from a tunnel forming part of an expressway shall be guilty of an offence. (12) In this section — “expressway” means any road which is prescribed by the Minister by order in the Gazette to be an expressway for the purposes of this section; “parking charges” means the charges which are fixed or deemed fixed under section 9 of the Parking Places Act 1974 as being payable by the owner of a vehicle for the use of any parking place. [38/2018]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s124
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 124
title: Provisions with respect to stretching of ropes, etc., across roads
content:
124. Any person who for any purpose places or causes to be placed any rope, wire, chain, tackle or similar apparatus across a road or any part thereof in such a manner as to be likely to cause danger to persons using the road shall, unless the person proves that the person had a lawful right or excuse to do so and that the person had taken all necessary means to give adequate warning of the danger, be guilty of an offence.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s125
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 125
title: Application to vehicles and drivers in the service of Government
content:
125. —(1) This Part, except as otherwise provided, applies to vehicles and persons in the service of the Government. (2) For the purpose of proceedings for an offence in connection with any such vehicle against any person other than the driver of the vehicle, the person nominated in that behalf by the department in whose service the vehicle is used is deemed to be the person actually responsible, unless it is shown to the satisfaction of the court that the driver only was responsible.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s126
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 126
title: Goods vehicles not to be used for passengers
content:
126. —(1) Any person driving or using any goods vehicle who carries any person therein or thereon or causes or permits any person to ride therein or thereon shall be guilty of an offence unless he or she proves that — ( a ) the person so carried is in the employment of the owner or hirer of the vehicle and is proceeding on his or her employer’s business and is carried in accordance with rules prescribed under section 77(6); or ( b ) the person so carried is a sick or injured person carried in a case of emergency. [4/2006] (2) The owner of the goods vehicle shall in all cases also be liable for the act equally with and independently of the person actually driving or using the goods vehicle unless the owner proves that the owner had taken every reasonable precaution to prevent the commission of any offence under this section. (3) [ Deleted by Act 4 of 2006 ] (4) [ Deleted by Act 4 of 2006 ] (5) Any person who while being carried on or being permitted to ride on a goods vehicle — ( a ) fails to sit on a seat in or at any place on the vehicle as directed by the driver or other person in charge of the vehicle; or ( b ) fails to comply with any directions that are given by the driver or other person in charge of the vehicle regarding his or her personal safety, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $500.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s127
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 127
title: Power of arrest, stopping and detention
content:
127. —(1) A police officer in uniform may stop and arrest any person, not being the driver of a motor vehicle, who within the police officer’s view commits an offence under this Act or the rules. [10/2017] (2) The person must not be arrested if he or she satisfies the police officer as to his or her name and residence in Singapore and that he or she does not intend to abscond. (3) A police officer may detain any bicycle or tricycle in respect of which an offence has been committed within the police officer’s view. (4) A police officer in uniform may stop any motor vehicle the driver of which has committed or is suspected of having committed an offence under this Act or the rules. [10/2017] (5) Any person driving a motor vehicle must stop the motor vehicle on being so required by a police officer in uniform, and if the person fails to do so he or she shall be guilty of an offence. (6) A police officer in uniform may, except as hereinafter provided, arrest without warrant any person in charge of or driving a motor vehicle who has committed or is suspected of having committed an offence under this Act or the rules. [10/2017] (7) The power of arrest under subsection (6) must not be exercised if either — ( a ) the person on the demand of the police officer produces his or her driving licence so as to enable the police officer to ascertain his or her name and address, the date of issue and the authority by which it was issued; or ( b ) the person, not being a paid driver or the driver of a motor vehicle used for the carriage of passengers for hire or reward or for the carriage of goods, gives the police officer his or her name and his or her address within Singapore. (8) If the police officer has reason to suspect that a name or address so ascertained or given is false, the police officer may, despite anything to the contrary in subsection (7), exercise the power of arrest under subsection (6). (9) The Registrar or any officer authorised in writing by the Registrar in that behalf on production of that authority or any police officer may stop any vehicle other than a motor vehicle, and any police officer in uniform may stop any motor vehicle, for the purpose of examining the licence of the vehicle. (10) Any person driving a vehicle must stop the vehicle on being so required by the Registrar or the officer under subsection (9), and if the person fails to do so the person shall be guilty of an offence. (11) Any police officer in uniform may, when exercising any of the powers conferred by subsection (4), (6) or (9), require any person, who appears to the police officer to be or to have been a passenger in the motor vehicle in relation to which the police officer is exercising those powers, to furnish to the police officer the person’s name and address. (12) When any person who is mentioned in subsection (11) refuses on the demand of the police officer in uniform to give his or her name and address, he or she may be arrested by the police officer in order that his or her name and address may be ascertained, and he or she must, within 24 hours from the arrest, be taken before a Magistrate’s Court, unless before that time his or her name and address are ascertained, in which case the person must be immediately released on his or her executing a bond with or without sureties for his or her appearance before a Magistrate’s Court, if so required. (13) When any person is taken before a Magistrate’s Court under subsection (12), the Court is to require him or her to execute a bond with or without a surety for his or her appearance before a Magistrate’s Court, if so required.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s127A
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 127A
title: Power to require evidence of identity in certain cases
content:
127A. —(1) If any person commits a prescribed offence in the view of the Registrar or an authorised officer, the Registrar or authorised officer may require the person to furnish evidence of his or her identity and the person must thereupon furnish any evidence of his or her identity that may be required by the Registrar or authorised officer. (2) Any person who — ( a ) refuses to furnish any evidence of identity required of him or her by the Registrar or an authorised officer under subsection (1); or ( b ) wilfully furnishes to the Registrar or authorised officer any information that is false, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $500. (3) If any person refuses to furnish any evidence of his or her identity when required to do so under this section or if the Registrar or an authorised officer has reason to believe that any information furnished by the person is false, the Registrar or authorised officer may without warrant arrest the person. (4) No person arrested under subsection (3) may be detained longer than is necessary for bringing the person before a court unless the order of a court for his or her detention is obtained. (5) In this section — “authorised officer” means any employee of the Authority or any other person who is duly authorised by the Registrar in writing to exercise the powers conferred on an authorised officer under this section; “prescribed offence” means any offence under this Act or the rules that is prescribed by the Minister as an offence to which this section applies. (6) For the purpose of this section, the Registrar may, with the written approval of the Minister, authorise any employee of any omnibus operator to exercise the powers of an authorised officer under this section in respect of any prescribed offence that is committed within a bus interchange or on an omnibus.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s127B
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 127B
title: Screening, etc., bus passengers and entrants to bus interchanges
content:
127B. —(1) It is a condition of entry to any bus or bus interchange that a bus passenger of the bus or an entrant to the bus interchange must, if asked by a police officer or an approved person anywhere in or in the immediate vicinity of the bus or bus interchange, do one or more of the following for the purpose of ensuring the security or safety of persons who are or may be on board the bus or at the bus interchange: ( a ) undergo any form of security screening mentioned in subsection (2); ( b ) undergo a frisk search; ( c ) permit an inspection to be made of the personal property of the bus passenger or entrant; ( d ) permit a search through any bag, container or other receptacle or any garments removed in accordance with subsection (2). [12/2021] (2) To ensure the security or safety of persons who are or may be on board a bus or at any bus interchange, a police officer or an approved person may ask a bus passenger of the bus or an entrant to the bus interchange to do one or more of the following: ( a ) walk through a screening detector; ( b ) pass the personal property of the bus passenger or entrant through an X‑ray machine; ( c ) allow the police officer or approved person to pass a hand‑held scanner in close proximity to the personal property of the bus passenger or entrant; ( d ) allow the police officer or approved person to inspect the personal property of the bus passenger or entrant; ( e ) produce or empty the contents of any bag, container or other receptacle in the possession or apparently in the immediate control of the bus passenger or entrant; ( f ) turn out the bus passenger’s or entrant’s pockets or remove all articles from the bus passenger’s or entrant’s clothing, and allow the police officer or approved person to inspect them; ( g ) remove any coat, jacket, gloves, shoes or hat or any other thing worn or carried by the bus passenger or entrant, which may be conveniently removed and that is specified by the police officer or approved person, and allow the police officer or approved person to inspect the coat, jacket, gloves, shoes or hat or other thing; ( h ) open an article for inspection and allow the police officer or approved person to inspect it. [12/2021] (3) To ensure the security or safety of persons who are or may be on board a bus or at any bus interchange, a police officer or a senior approved person may also ask a bus passenger of the bus or an entrant to the bus interchange to do one or more of the following: ( a ) undergo a frisk search; ( b ) allow the police officer or senior approved person to pass a hand‑held scanner in close proximity to the bus passenger or entrant. [12/2021] (4) To avoid doubt, a police officer or an approved person may make a request to a bus passenger of a bus or an entrant to a bus interchange to do anything under subsection (2)( d ), ( e ), ( f ), ( g ) or ( h ) if the police officer or approved person (as the case may be) reasonably considers it necessary to make such a request under that provision, whether or not the bus passenger or entrant or the personal property of the bus passenger or entrant has been subjected to screening or a frisk search under subsection (2)( a ), ( b ) or ( c ) or (3). [12/2021] (5) Without limiting subsection (6), where a bus passenger of a bus or an entrant to a bus interchange refuses — ( a ) to permit to be screened or inspected under subsection (2) or (3) by a police officer or an approved person — (i) the personal property of the bus passenger or entrant; or (ii) any bag, container or other receptacle in the possession or apparently in the immediate control of the bus passenger or entrant; ( b ) to allow a police officer or an approved person under subsection (2) or (3) to pass a hand‑held scanner in close proximity to the bus passenger or entrant or personal property of the bus passenger or entrant; or ( c ) to undergo a frisk search under subsection (3) by a police officer or a senior approved person, the police officer or approved person (as the case may be) may order the bus passenger or entrant to immediately leave the bus or bus interchange (as the case may be) and with that personal property, bag, container or receptacle, as the case may be. [12/2021] (6) An individual commits an offence if the individual, without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails to comply with any request or order of a police officer or an approved person under subsection (2), (3) or (5). [12/2021] (7) An individual who is guilty of an offence under subsection (6) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000. [12/2021] (8) However, it is not an offence under subsection (6) for any individual to refuse to comply with any request or order made or given by — ( a ) a police officer who is not in uniform and who fails to declare his or her office; or ( b ) an approved person who fails to declare his or her office and, in the case of an outsourced enforcement officer, who also refuses to produce his or her identification card on demand being made by that individual. [12/2021] (9) In this section and section 127C — “approved person”, in relation to any bus or bus interchange, means any of the following individuals who is authorised by the Authority in writing to exercise any power under this section at or in relation to the bus or bus interchange concerned: ( a ) an officer or employee of the Authority; ( b ) a member of an auxiliary police force in uniform; ( c ) an employee of — (i) a bus operator holding a Class 1 bus service licence (within the meaning of the Bus Services Industry Act 2015) to provide a bus service using the bus; or (ii) a bus interchange operator holding a bus interchange licence (within the meaning of the Bus Services Industry Act 2015) to operate the bus interchange; ( d ) a security officer (within the meaning of the Private Security Industry Act 2007) engaged by the bus operator or bus interchange operator mentioned in paragraph ( c ); ( e ) an outsourced enforcement officer; “bus interchange” means a terminal or station with purpose‑built facilities for the commencement or termination of one or more bus services and for the boarding or alighting of bus passengers; “bus passenger”, in relation to any bus, means an individual carried on board the bus, and includes — ( a ) an individual boarding or intending to board the bus for the purpose of travelling on board the bus as a passenger; and ( b ) a driver, fare collector or an inspector while carrying out work or on duty on board the bus in that capacity, or intending to board the bus for the purpose of carrying out that work or duty; “entrant”, in relation to any bus interchange, means an individual who is about to enter the bus interchange, and includes an individual who is within the bus interchange, whether or not a bus passenger; “frisk search” means a search of an individual conducted by quickly running the hands over the individual’s outer clothing; “hand‑held scanner” means a device that may be passed over or around an individual or an individual’s personal property to detect metal, dangerous objects or explosive or other hazardous substances; “identification card”, in relation to an outsourced enforcement officer, means an identification card issued under section 11(3) of the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995 to the officer; “inspecting an article” includes handling the article, opening it and examining or moving its contents; “personal property”, in relation to an individual, means things carried by the individual or things apparently in the immediate control of the individual, but does not include clothing being worn by the individual; “senior approved person”, in relation to any bus or bus interchange, means an approved person who is authorised by the Authority in writing to exercise any power under this section at or in relation to the bus or bus interchange concerned, as follows: ( a ) a member of an auxiliary police force in uniform; ( b ) a security officer (within the meaning of the Private Security Industry Act 2007) engaged by — (i) a bus operator holding a Class 1 bus service licence (within the meaning of the Bus Services Industry Act 2015) to provide a bus service using the bus; or (ii) a bus interchange operator holding a bus interchange licence (within the meaning of the Bus Services Industry Act 2015) to operate the bus interchange; ( c ) an outsourced enforcement officer. [12/2021]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s127C
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 127C
title: Bringing dangerous items into bus or bus interchange
content:
127C. —(1) It is also a condition of entry to any bus or bus interchange that a bus passenger of the bus or an entrant to the bus interchange must not take into or possess when on board the bus or in the bus interchange a dangerous item. [12/2021] (2) A bus passenger of a bus or an entrant to a bus interchange must not take a dangerous item on board the bus or into the bus interchange unless the bus passenger or entrant (as the case may be) has the express permission of a police officer or an approved person to do so. [12/2021] (3) An individual who contravenes subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000. [12/2021] (4) However, it is not an offence under subsection (3) if the individual disposes of the dangerous item before boarding the bus or entering the bus interchange. [12/2021] (5) In this section, “dangerous item” means any of the following: ( a ) any pistol, gun, stun gun, taser, firearm or other object or a thing that, if used in the way for which it is or was designed or adapted, is or was capable of being aimed at a target and causing hurt or injury — (i) by propelling a bullet, shot or other projectile; or (ii) by discharging any corrosive substance or poison, by means of a burning propellant, compressed air or other compressed gas, or an explosive force (however caused); ( b ) a marine flare and signal, landing flare, highway fuse, smoke generator, distress signal or other pyrotechnic device intended for signalling, warning, rescue or similar purposes; ( c ) a firework, grenade, ammunition or any explosive device or explosive substance; ( d ) an axe, or a sword, dagger, spear or spearhead; ( e ) any petroleum or any substance prescribed to be a flammable material for the purposes of the Fire Safety Act 1993; ( f ) a hazardous substance or corrosive substance; ( g ) any other article or substance which is capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment and is prescribed under section 140 by the Minister as a dangerous item. [12/2021]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s128
chapter: PART 6 - PROVISIONS AS TO USE OF HIGHWAYS
section: 128
title: Police officer not in uniform to produce identification card
content:
128. —(1) Every police officer when acting against any person under this Act must, if not in uniform, on demand declare his or her office and produce to the person against whom he or she is acting any identification card that the Commissioner of Police may direct to be carried by police officers. (2) It shall not be an offence for any person to refuse to comply with any request, demand or order made by any police officer not in uniform who fails to declare his or her office and produce his or her identification card on demand being made by the person.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s129
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 129
title: False statements, forging of licences, etc.
content:
129. —(1) If any person — ( a ) in relation to an application made under this Act or the rules for registration or the cancellation of the registration of a vehicle, the grant of any approval, permit or licence to the person or any other person, or for the purpose of preventing the grant or variation of any approval, permit or licence or of procuring the imposition of any condition or limitation in relation to any approval, permit or licence, makes or causes to be made any statement or declaration which is false or in any material respect misleading; ( b ) furnishes or causes to be furnished any particulars in connection with a change of the registration of any vehicle which to the person’s knowledge are false or in any material respect misleading; or ( c ) makes or causes to be made any entry in a record, register or other document required to be kept under this Act and the rules which to the person’s knowledge is false or in any material respect misleading, the person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [4/2006; 10/2017] (2) If any person — ( a ) forges or alters or defaces or mutilates or uses or lends to, or allows to be used by, any other person, any mark, plate or document which is required under this Act to be carried on a vehicle or trailer, or any licence issued under this Act; ( b ) makes or has in the person’s possession any mark, plate or document so closely resembling a licence or any mark, plate or document as aforesaid as to be calculated to deceive; ( c ) alters any entry made in a record, register or other document kept under this Act or the rules; ( d ) exhibits upon any vehicle or trailer any licence or identification mark, plate or document which has been forged, altered, defaced, mutilated or added to or any colourable imitation of a licence, mark, plate or document which is required under this Act to be carried on a vehicle or trailer; ( e ) transfers or affixes to any vehicle or trailer for which it was not issued any licence, identification mark, plate or document which is required under this Act to be carried on a vehicle or trailer; or ( f ) uses any forged, altered, defaced or mutilated driving licence or any driving licence to which any addition not authorised by this Act has been made, the person shall, unless the person establishes to the satisfaction of the court that the person acted without intent to deceive, be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to be punished as follows: ( g ) in the case of a person who is convicted for the first time of an offence under subsection (2)( a ) or ( d ) in connection with the alteration of a supplementary licence issued under section 11A — with a fine not exceeding $10,000; ( h ) in the case of a person who is convicted of a second or subsequent offence under subsection (2)( a ) or ( d ) in connection with the alteration of a supplementary licence issued under section 11A — with a fine not exceeding $20,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or with both; ( i ) in any other case — with a fine not exceeding $5,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or with both. [4/2006; 10/2017] (3) Despite the provisions of any written law to the contrary, a District Court or Magistrate’s Court has jurisdiction to try any offence under this section and to impose the maximum penalty prescribed therefor. (4) Subsection (2), with the necessary modifications, applies in relation to a document evidencing the appointment of an officer for the purposes of this Act as it applies in relation to a licence. (5) If any police officer or the Registrar or officer authorised by the Registrar in writing has reasonable cause to believe that a document carried on a motor vehicle or any licence or record or other document produced to him or her pursuant to the provisions of this Act is a document in relation to which an offence under this section has been committed, he or she may seize the document. (6) When any document is seized under this section, the driver or the owner of the vehicle must, if the document is still detained and neither of them has previously been charged with an offence under this section, be summoned before a District Court or Magistrate’s Court to account for the driver’s or owner’s possession of or the presence on the vehicle of the document. (7) The District Court or Magistrate’s Court is to make such order respecting the disposal of the document and award such costs as the justice of the case may require. (8) In subsections (5), (6) and (7), “document” includes a plate and the power to seize includes power to detach from the vehicle.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s130
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 130
title: Presumptions
content:
130. In any proceedings for an offence under Part 5, insofar as it may be necessary to establish the offence charged, it is presumed until the contrary is proved — ( a ) that any conveyance of persons or goods in a motor vehicle was for hire or reward; ( b ) that the passengers carried in a motor vehicle were being carried in consideration of separate payments made by them; ( c ) that a vehicle is not a vehicle in relation to which any licence under Part 5 has been granted; ( d ) that any person is not the holder of a licence granted under the provisions of Part 5 in respect of a motor vehicle; ( e ) that any person is the owner of a motor vehicle; and ( f ) that any person is the holder of a licence granted under Part 5.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s131
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 131
title: Offences and penalties
content:
131. —(1) A person who without lawful excuse — ( a ) refuses or neglects to do anything the person is by this Act or the rules required to do; ( b ) fails to comply with the requirements of any notice served on the person under this Act or the rules; or ( c ) acts in contravention of any provision of this Act or the rules, shall be guilty of an offence. [10/2017] (2) Any person who, under this section or any other provision of this Act or the rules, is guilty of an offence shall be liable on conviction, where no special penalty is provided — ( a ) in the case of a first offence — to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both; and ( b ) in the case of a second or subsequent offence — to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [10/2017]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s131A
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 131A
title: Service of summonses and other documents
content:
131A. —(1) Every summons issued for an offence under this Act or the rules, and every notice, order or other document required or authorised to be given or served under this Act or the rules may be served on any person — ( a ) by delivering it to the person or to some adult member or employee of his or her family at his or her usual or last known place of residence or any address furnished by the person; ( b ) by leaving it at the usual or last known place of residence or place of business of the person in a cover addressed to the person or any address furnished by the person; ( c ) by sending it by normal post or registered post in a prepaid letter addressed to the person at the person’s usual or last known place of residence or business or any address furnished by the person; or ( d ) in the case of a notice to be served on a person whose usual or last known place of residence or business cannot, with reasonable diligence, be ascertained, by publication of the notice in the Gazette . [37/2012; 10/2017] (1A) In addition, and subject to subsection (2B), a notice, order or document (other than a summons) required or authorised to be given or served under this Act or any subsidiary legislation made under this Act on an individual, a partnership, a body corporate or an unincorporated association may be given or served — ( a ) by sending it by email to the email address of the individual, partnership, body corporate or unincorporated association, as the case may be; ( b ) by sending it by fax to whichever of the following is applicable: (i) the fax number last known to the Authority as the fax number for the service of notices, orders or documents on the individual; (ii) the fax number used at the partnership’s business address; (iii) the fax number used at the body corporate’s or unincorporated association’s registered office or principal office in Singapore; ( c ) by giving an electronic notice to the individual, partnership, body corporate or unincorporated association (called in this section an addressee) by the addressee’s chosen means of notification, stating that the notice, order or document is available and how the addressee may use the addressee’s chosen means of access to access the contents of that notice, order or document; or ( d ) by any other method authorised by the rules for the service of notices, orders or documents of that kind if the recipient consents (expressly or impliedly) to service of a notice, order or document of that kind in that way. [38/2018] [Act 2 of 2025 wef 12/06/2025] (1B) In addition, and subject to subsection (2C), a summons issued for an offence under this Act or the rules may be served on an individual, a partnership, a body corporate or an unincorporated association by sending it by email to the email address of the individual, partnership, body corporate or unincorporated association (as the case may be) as specified in accordance with subsection (2C). [Act 2 of 2025 wef 12/06/2025] (2) Where any summons, notice, order or document is served on any person by registered post, it is deemed to have been served within the time as it would take to arrive in the ordinary course of transmission and in proving service of the same it is sufficient to prove that the envelope containing the summons, notice, order or document was properly addressed, stamped and posted by registered post. (2A) Service of a notice, order or document under subsection (1A)( a ) or ( b ), or a summons under subsection (1B), takes effect — ( a ) if the notice, order or document, or the summons, is sent by email, at the time that the email becomes capable of being retrieved by the person; or [Act 2 of 2025 wef 12/06/2025] ( b ) if the notice, order or document is sent by fax and a notification of successful transmission is received, on the day of transmission. [38/2018] [Act 2 of 2025 wef 12/06/2025] (2B) However, service of any notice, order or document under this Act or any subsidiary legislation made under this Act on a person by email or by an electronic notice at the person’s chosen means of notification may be effected only with the person’s prior consent (express or implied) to service in that way. [38/2018] (2C) A summons may be served by email as mentioned in subsection (1B) only if — ( a ) any of the following persons (as the case may be) gives prior written consent for the summons to be served in that manner: (i) the person on whom the summons is to be served; (ii) the director, manager or secretary or other similar officer of a body corporate on whom the summons is to be served; (iii) any of the partners or the secretary or other similar officer of a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership) on whom the summons is to be served; (iv) the president, secretary or any member of the committee of an unincorporated association (or any person holding a position analogous to that of the president, secretary or member of the committee) on whom the summons is to be served; and ( b ) that person specifies in that written consent the email address to which the summons is to be sent. [Act 2 of 2025 wef 12/06/2025] (3) All notices, orders and other documents which the Registrar is empowered to give by this Act or the rules may be given by any officer duly authorised by the Registrar. [10/2017] (4) Subsections (1) and (1B) do not apply to any summons in connection with any offence punishable with imprisonment and the summons must be served in the manner prescribed by the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 for the service of summonses under that Code. [37/2012] [Act 2 of 2025 wef 12/06/2025] (5) In this section — “business address” or “place of business” means — ( a ) in the case of an individual, the individual’s usual or last known place of business in Singapore; or ( b ) in the case of a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), the partnership’s principal or last known place of business in Singapore; “chosen means of access”, for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a notice, order or document required or authorised to be given or served under this Act or any subsidiary legislation made under this Act, means an electronic means the addressee agrees with the person giving or serving the notice, order or document as the means by which the addressee may access the contents of that notice, order or document; “chosen means of notification”, for an addressee on whom is or is to be given or served a notice, order or document required or authorised to be given or served under this Act or any subsidiary legislation made under this Act, means an electronic means that the addressee nominates to the person giving or serving the notice, order or document as the means by which the addressee may be notified that such a notice, order or document has been given or served on the addressee; “email address” means the last email address given by the addressee concerned to the person giving or serving a notice, order or document as the email address for the service of notices, orders or documents under this Act or any subsidiary legislation made under this Act. [38/2018]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s131B
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 131B
title: Offences by bodies corporate, etc.
content:
131B. —(1) Where an offence under this Act committed by a body corporate is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer; or ( b ) to be attributable to any act or default on the officer’s part, the officer as well as the body corporate shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. [24/2010] (2) Where the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, subsection (1) applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a member in connection with the member’s functions of management as if the member were a director of the body corporate. [24/2010] (3) Where an offence under this Act committed by a partnership is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of a partner; or ( b ) to be attributable to any act or default on the partner’s part, the partner as well as the partnership shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. [24/2010] (4) Where an offence under this Act committed by a limited liability partnership is proved to have been committed with the consent or connivance of, or to be attributable to any neglect on the part of, a partner or manager of the limited liability partnership, the partner or manager (as the case may be) as well as the partnership shall be guilty of that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. [24/2010] (5) Where an offence under this Act committed by an unincorporated association (other than a partnership) is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer of the unincorporated association or a member of its governing body; or ( b ) to be attributable to any act or default on the part of such an officer or a member, the officer or member as well as the unincorporated association shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. [24/2010] (6) In this section — “body corporate” and “partnership” exclude a limited liability partnership within the meaning of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; “officer” — ( a ) in relation to a body corporate, means any director, member of the committee of management, chief executive officer, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; and ( b ) in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary, or any member of the committee of the unincorporated association, or any person holding a position analogous to that of the president, secretary or member of the committee and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner. [24/2010] (7) The appropriate Minister may make rules to provide for the application of any provision of this section, with any modifications that the appropriate Minister considers appropriate, to any body corporate, limited liability partnership or unincorporated association formed or recognised under the law of a territory outside Singapore. [24/2010] 132. [ Repealed by Act 12 of 2021 ]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s133
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 133
title: Traffic ticket notice
content:
133. —(1) Where a police officer or an employee of the Authority authorised in that behalf has reasonable grounds for believing that a person has committed an offence under this Act or the rules, he or she may, in lieu of applying to a court for a summons, immediately serve upon that person a notice, requiring that person to attend at the court described, at the hour and on the date specified in the notice. [28/2014; 10/2017] (2) A duplicate of the notice must be prepared by the police officer and, if so required by a court, produced to the court. (3) The notice may be served on the person alleged to have committed the offence in the manner provided by section 131A. (4) On an accused person appearing before a court pursuant to the notice, the court is to take cognizance of the offence alleged and is to proceed as though the accused person were produced before it pursuant to section 153 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010. [15/2010] (5) If a person, upon whom the notice has been served in the manner provided by section 131A, fails to appear before a court in person or by counsel in accordance therewith, the court may, if satisfied that the notice was duly served, issue a warrant for the arrest of the person unless in the case of an offence which may be compounded that person has before that date been permitted to compound the offence. (6) Upon a person arrested pursuant to a warrant issued under subsection (5) being produced before it, a court is to proceed as though he or she were produced before it under section 153 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010. [Act 31 of 2022 wef 01/11/2022] (7) A notice served under subsection (1) may, at any time before the date specified in the notice, be cancelled by — ( a ) a police officer not below the rank of sergeant specially authorised by a Deputy Commissioner of Police; or ( b ) an employee of the Authority specially authorised in person by the Registrar of Vehicles appointed under section 9(1). [23/2013; 28/2014; 12/2021]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s134
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 134
title: Forms of notices for purposes of section 133
content:
134. Each of the following may design and utilise forms of notices for the purposes of section 133: ( a ) the Deputy Commissioner of Police; ( b ) the Registrar of Vehicles. [28/2014; 12/2021]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s135
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 135
title: Composition of offences
content:
135. —(1) A relevant authorised officer may compound any offence under this Act or the rules that is prescribed as a compoundable offence, by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: ( a ) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; ( b ) $5,000. [10/2017] (1A) On payment of the composition sum under subsection (1), no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. [10/2017] (1B) In this section, “relevant authorised officer” means any of the following: ( a ) the Deputy Commissioner of Police designated by the Commissioner of Police for the purposes of this section; ( b ) a police officer not below the rank of sergeant specially authorised for the purposes of this section by the Deputy Commissioner of Police mentioned in paragraph ( a ); [Act 2 of 2025 wef 12/06/2025] ( c ) the Registrar of Vehicles appointed under section 9(1); ( d ) an employee of the Authority specially authorised by name for the purposes of this section in an instrument personally executed by the Registrar of Vehicles mentioned in paragraph ( c ). [10/2017] (2) The appropriate Minister may make rules to prescribe the offences that may be compounded under this section and the conditions subject to which, and the method and procedure by which, the offences may be compounded. (3) All sums collected under this section must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [25/2020]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s136
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 136
title: Payment for licences by cheque
content:
136. —(1) The Registrar may, if he or she thinks fit and subject to the provisions of this Act, grant any licence upon receipt of a cheque for the amount of the fee payable thereon. (2) Where a person pays by cheque the whole or any part of any tax or fee for a licence under this Act or any subsidiary legislation made under the Act, and the cheque is not accepted on presentation or is dishonoured — ( a ) the licence is void as from the date when it was granted or renewed, as the case may be; and ( b ) the Registrar must give the person a dishonour notice in a manner allowed under section 131A. [38/2018] (2A) A dishonour notice must — ( a ) contain a statement to the effect that the cheque was dishonoured or not accepted, as the case may be; ( b ) contain a statement to the effect that the relevant licence is void as from the date when it was granted or renewed, as the case may be; and ( c ) if the licence was not issued in electronic form, require the person to deliver up the licence to the Registrar within a period of 7 days after the date that the dishonour notice is given. [38/2018] (3) If the person fails to comply with the request within the period under subsection (2A)( c ), the person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000. [10/2017; 38/2018] (4) If the licence granted under subsection (1) is in respect of a motor vehicle, the Registrar may on the expiry of the 7 days after the dishonour notice is given, proceed under section 15. [10/2017; 38/2018]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s137
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 137
title: Moneys received under this Act
content:
137. Except as otherwise provided in the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995, all moneys received by the Deputy Commissioner of Police and by the Registrar under this Act must be paid into the Consolidated Fund.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s138
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 138
title: Registrar and Deputy Commissioner of Police to be informed of convictions
content:
138. When during any proceedings leading to the conviction of any person for any criminal offence it comes to the knowledge of the court recording the conviction that the person (whether or not that person is in possession of any licence issued under this Act) is or has been or has acted as the owner, driver or conductor of a public service vehicle, the court is to, if in its opinion the fact of the conviction affects the suitability or otherwise of the person convicted to hold or receive a licence under this Act, immediately send particulars of the conviction and of any sentence passed thereon to the Registrar and the Deputy Commissioner of Police.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s139
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 139
title: Provisions as to evidence
content:
139. —(1) An extract of the records maintained under rules made under section 34(1) certified under the hand of the Registrar, or a licence issued by the Registrar in respect of any vehicle is prima facie evidence of the registration of the vehicle or of the fact that the vehicle was licensed for the period specified in the licence, as the case may be. [4/2006] (2) When in any proceedings for an offence under this Act and the rules it is necessary to prove — ( a ) that a vehicle was, or was not, registered in the name of any person; ( b ) that any person was, or was not, the registered owner of a vehicle; or ( c ) that any person was, or was not, the holder of a licence granted under this Act, a certificate purporting to be signed by the Registrar or the Deputy Commissioner of Police (as the case may be) and certifying the matters aforesaid is admissible as evidence, and constitutes prima facie proof of the facts certified in the certificate, without proof of the signature of the Registrar or the Deputy Commissioner of Police (as the case may be), to the certificate. [10/2017] (3) When in any proceedings for an offence under this Act or the rules any question arises as to whether a vehicle does, or does not, comply with any of the provisions of this Act or the rules relating to the construction, equipment or conditions of use of the vehicle, or to any identification mark or sign carried by or fixed on it or the seal of that mark or sign, or to any marking on it, a certificate from an officer of the Registrar’s office that he or she has examined the vehicle and the result of the examination is admissible in evidence, and is sufficient prima facie evidence of any fact or opinion stated therein relating to the construction, equipment or conditions of use of the vehicle, or to any identification mark or sign carried by or fixed on it or the seal of that mark or sign, or to any marking on it. [4/2006; 10/2017] (4) The officer may not be called for cross-examination on the certificate unless contrary evidence is given which appears to the court to be credible, or unless for any reason the court considers cross-examination to be necessary or desirable in the interests of justice. (5) In any case in which the prosecution intends to give in evidence any such certificate, there must be delivered to the defendant a copy thereof at least 10 clear days before the start of the trial. (6) When in any proceedings it is necessary to prove the weight unladen or laden of any vehicle, or the weight of any load carried on any vehicle, a certificate purporting to be signed by any public officer in charge of the weighbridge or weighing machine on which such vehicle or load was weighed, and certifying the weight of the vehicle or load and that the weighbridge or weighing machine had been examined within the previous 12 months and found to be accurate, is to be accepted by any court as prima facie proof of the facts certified in the certificate. (7) When in any proceedings before any court it is necessary to prove that any police officer, public officer or the Registrar or the Deputy Commissioner of Police (as the case may be) has sent or served, or has received or has not received, any badge, document, licence, notice, plate or other thing, a certificate purporting to be signed by the police officer, public officer or the Registrar or the Deputy Commissioner of Police (as the case may be) and certifying the sending, service, reception or non-reception (as the case may be) of the badge, document, licence, notice, plate or thing, is admissible as evidence, and constitutes prima facie proof of the facts certified in the certificate, without proof of the signature of that certificate. (8) Where in any proceedings for an offence under this Act or the rules relating to the maximum speed at which motor vehicles may be driven it is necessary to prove the speed at which the vehicle has been driven, a certificate, purporting to be signed by a police officer not below the rank of inspector who was in charge of the apparatus, instrument or appliance used to measure, at a distance from such vehicle, the speed at which the vehicle was driven and certifying that the apparatus, instrument or appliance had been examined within the previous 3 months and found to be accurate, is to be accepted by any court as prima facie proof of the facts certified in the certificate. [10/2017]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s139AA
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 139AA
title: Court may take into account compounded offences for purposes of sentencing
content:
139AA. For the purpose of determining the appropriate sentence for an offence committed by a person under this Act, a court may take into account, as an aggravating factor, any offence that has been compounded (on or after 1 November 2019) under this Act before the date of the sentencing. [19/2019; 12/2021]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s139A
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 139A
title: Authentication of documents
content:
139A. Where any notice, order or other document required or authorised by this Act or the rules to be served on any person requires authentication, the signature of the Deputy Commissioner of Police, the Registrar, a police officer or an employee of the Authority or an official facsimile of such signature appended to the notice, order or document is sufficient authentication. [10/2017]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s140
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 140
title: General provisions as to rules
content:
140. —(1) The appropriate Minister may make rules — ( a ) for prescribing the language and script in which any traffic sign, notice, record, application, return or other documents must be written; ( b ) for any purpose for which rules may be made under this Act; ( c ) for prescribing anything that may be prescribed under this Act; ( d ) generally for the purpose of carrying this Act into effect; and ( e ) for prescribing penalties (not exceeding those provided by section 131) for any breach or failure to comply with any such rules. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the appropriate Minister may make rules with respect to any of the following matters or for any of the following purposes: ( a ) regulating the relative position in the roadway of traffic of differing speeds or types; ( b ) prescribing the conditions subject to which and the times at which, articles of exceptionally heavy weight or exceptionally large dimensions may be carried along roads; ( c ) regulating the loads which may be carried on vehicles and prescribing the manner in which vehicles on or passing along a road must be loaded and the precautions to be taken for ensuring the safety of the public in connection therewith; ( d ) prescribing the conditions subject to which, and the times at which, articles may be loaded on to or unloaded from vehicles or vehicles of any particular class or description, while on a road; ( e ) prescribing the precedence to be observed as between traffic proceeding in the same direction, or in opposite directions, or when crossing; ( f ) prescribing the conditions subject to which, and the times at which, horses, cattle, sheep and other animals may be led or driven on or along a road; ( g ) prescribing the conditions subject to which vehicles, or vehicles of any particular class or description, may be left unattended on a road; ( h ) prohibiting animals from being left unattended or not under due control on a road; ( i ) restricting the use of vehicles and animals, of sandwichmen and other persons on roads for the purposes of advertisement of such a nature or in such a manner as to be likely to be a source of danger or to cause obstruction to traffic; ( j ) restricting and regulating the use on roads of vehicles engaged in the erection, placing, removal, alteration or repair of lamps, overhead cables or road or street works; ( k ) restricting or prohibiting the washing of vehicles and animals on any road; ( l ) prescribing the lights to be carried on vehicles other than motor vehicles, or on any particular class or description of such vehicles, including the nature of the lights, the position in which they must be fixed and the period during which they must be lighted; ( m ) prescribing and restricting the number and kind of brakes, bells, horns or other warning instruments to be fitted to vehicles of any particular kind or description; ( n ) prescribing the number of persons who may be carried upon pedal bicycles or pedal tricycles while on any road; ( o ) prescribing the general behaviour of traffic on roads; ( p ) prescribing the fees, costs and charges that may be imposed for the purposes of this Act, where no provision has already been made therefor in any of the foregoing provisions. [24/2010]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s141
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 141
title: Rules to be presented to Parliament
content:
141. —(1) All rules made under this Act must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette . (2) If a resolution is passed pursuant to a motion notice of which has been given for a sitting day not later than the first available sitting day of Parliament next after the expiry of one month from the date when the rules are so presented annulling the rules or any part of the rules as from a specified date, the rules or any part of the rules (as the case may be) thereupon become void as from that date but without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done thereunder or to the making of new rules.


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s142
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 142
title: Power to exempt
content:
142. The appropriate Minister may, by order and either generally or for any period delimited in the order and subject to any conditions that may in the order be stated, exempt from any provision of this Act or the rules any person or class or description of persons or any vehicle or class or description of vehicles. [10/2017]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s142A
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 142A
title: Designation of Minister of State and Parliamentary Secretary to hear appeals
content:
142A. —(1) Where pursuant to any provision of this Act an appeal may be made to the Minister, the appropriate Minister may designate the following persons to hear and determine the appeal in the Minister’s place: ( a ) any Minister of State for his or her Ministry; ( b ) any Parliamentary Secretary to his or her Ministry. [24/2010] (2) In this section, the references to a Minister of State and a Parliamentary Secretary include, respectively, references to a Senior Minister of State and a Senior Parliamentary Secretary. [24/2010]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s142B
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 142B
title: Authorisation of security officers to regulate traffic
content:
142B. —(1) The Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority may, for the purpose of assisting the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority in the regulation of traffic under any provision of this Act, authorise, subject to any restrictions that the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority may impose, any number of security officers that the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority thinks necessary to regulate traffic under that provision. [24/2010] (2) Every security officer who is authorised to regulate traffic pursuant to subsection (1) must, when in uniform and while carrying out his or her duties in regulating traffic under any provision of this Act, comply with any directions that the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority (as the case may be) may give. [24/2010]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s143
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 143
title: Regulation of traffic in connection with events, etc.
content:
143. —(1) Except as otherwise provided by rules made under subsection (11), a person must not conduct any event on any road or part thereof unless the person has obtained a permit from the Deputy Commissioner of Police under this section authorising the person to use that road or part thereof for the conduct of the event. [24/2010] (2) The Deputy Commissioner of Police may, on his or her own motion, or upon granting a permit mentioned in subsection (1), issue police orders to — ( a ) close any road or part thereof to traffic to such extent, for such period and subject to such conditions as may be specified in the order; and ( b ) prescribe — (i) the routes, entrances and exits by which vehicles or pedestrians are to approach or leave the venue of an event or any place of assembly or public resort; (ii) where and the order in which vehicles are to park at or around the venue of an event or any place of assembly or public resort; (iii) one or more parking places upon any land at or around any venue, place of assembly or public resort that is in private ownership, if the owner or occupier of the land consents; and (iv) any other matters that may be necessary or incidental to the closure of any road or part thereof under paragraph ( a ). [24/2010] (3) An application for a permit mentioned in subsection (1) must — ( a ) be made to the Deputy Commissioner of Police in such form or manner, and not less than such period before the date of the event, as the Deputy Commissioner of Police may require; and ( b ) be accompanied by such fee (if any) as the Minister may prescribe. [24/2010] (4) Upon receiving an application under subsection (3), the Deputy Commissioner of Police may, after consulting the Authority — ( a ) grant the permit applied for — (i) in the form and manner that the Deputy Commissioner of Police may determine; and (ii) subject to any conditions that the Deputy Commissioner of Police and the Authority may each think fit to impose; or ( b ) refuse to grant the permit. [24/2010] (5) The conditions which may be imposed under subsection (4)( a )(ii) include conditions requiring the person to whom the permit is granted, at the person’s own expense — ( a ) to publish, in such form and manner and for such period as the Deputy Commissioner of Police may require, a notice informing the general public or such persons as the Deputy Commissioner of Police thinks fit of — (i) the closure of any road or part thereof under subsection (2); and (ii) the alternative route or routes (if any) that are available for vehicles or pedestrians; ( b ) to post conspicuously at any part of any road, and for such period as the Deputy Commissioner of Police may require, such notices and signs as the Deputy Commissioner of Police may specify to inform motorists and pedestrians of — (i) the closure of any road or part thereof under subsection (2); and (ii) the alternative route or routes (if any) that are available for vehicles or pedestrians; ( c ) to place such signs, barriers and barricades at such places and for such period as the Deputy Commissioner of Police may require; and ( d ) to engage a sufficient number of auxiliary police officers or security officers to regulate traffic on any road or at or around the venue of the event to which the permit relates in accordance with any directions that the Deputy Commissioner of Police may give. [24/2010] (6) Without affecting subsection (5), the Deputy Commissioner of Police may take any measures that he or she thinks fit to implement any police order issued under subsection (2) and may deploy police officers, auxiliary police officers and security officers to regulate traffic on any road or at or around any venue affected by the police order. [24/2010] (7) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [24/2010] (8) If the person to whom a permit is granted under this section fails to comply with any condition imposed by the Deputy Commissioner of Police or the Authority (as the case may be) under subsection (4)( a )(ii), that person shall be guilty of an offence, and the Deputy Commissioner of Police may revoke the permit granted to that person. [24/2010] (9) If any person neglects or refuses to stop a vehicle or to make it proceed in or keep to a particular line of traffic or neglects or refuses himself or herself to proceed in or keep to a particular line of traffic when directed to do so by a police officer, an auxiliary police officer or a security officer, who is in uniform and who is engaged or deployed to regulate traffic for the purpose of this section, that person shall be guilty of an offence. [24/2010] (10) Police orders issued under this section must be published in the Gazette and may be published in any other manner that the Deputy Commissioner of Police thinks fit. [24/2010] (11) The Minister may make rules to prescribe the types of event to which subsection (1) does not apply and to make provisions subject to which any road or part thereof may be used for the conduct of any such event. [24/2010] (12) In this section, “event” means — ( a ) any sporting event (such as a marathon, a walkathon, a triathlon or a cycling rally); or ( b ) any procession, parade, celebration, ceremony, gathering, activity or event, that is to be conducted mainly or partly on a road or any part thereof, and includes a competition or trial of speed involving the use of vehicles mentioned in section 116. [24/2010]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s144
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 144
title: Property left in public service vehicles
content:
144. —(1) Every driver or conductor of a public service vehicle must immediately deposit at a place prescribed by the Authority all money or other property left in any public service vehicle of which he or she is in charge and not claimed by the owner thereof. [4/2006] (2) Any driver or conductor who neglects or omits to so deposit all money or other property shall be guilty of an offence. (3) The Authority may make rules — ( a ) to prescribe one or more places for the purposes of subsection (1); and ( b ) for the disposal of money or other property deposited under subsection (1). [4/2006]


document_id: rta-1961
provision_ref: s145
chapter: PART 7 - MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
section: 145
title: Protection from personal liability
content:
145. No liability shall lie against any member, officer or employee of the Authority or any other person acting under the direction of the Authority for anything done or intended to be done with reasonable care and in good faith in the execution or purported execution of this Act. [38/2018]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act — “Authority” means the Land Transport Authority of Singapore established under the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995; “business trust” and “trustee-manager” have the meanings given by section 2 of the Business Trusts Act 2004; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “competent authority” means the competent authority appointed under section 5 of the Planning Act 1998 in respect of the development of land; “construction”, in relation to a railway, includes — ( a ) the reconstruction or realignment of the railway; ( b ) permanently improving the railway or otherwise bringing it to a higher standard, and any associated investigative and engineering studies, but does not include the planning, maintenance and management of the railway; [ Deleted by Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025 ] “corporation” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “designated entity” means a designated equity interest holder or a designated operating entity; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “designated equity interest holder” means an entity that has been designated as a designated equity interest holder under section 21E; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “designated operating entity” means an entity that has been designated as a designated operating entity under section 21E; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “effective designation date”, in relation to a designated entity, means the date specified under section 21E(3) as the date on which the designation of that entity as a designated operating entity or designated equity interest holder (as the case may be) takes effect; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “entity” means any sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation or other body of persons, whether corporate or unincorporate, and includes a business trust; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “essential transport service” means — ( a ) the service of operating or maintaining any rapid transit system; or ( b ) any service specified or described in the Schedule which is necessary — (i) for the continuity of; or (ii) for supporting, the operation of any rapid transit system; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] “land” includes and may, where the context so requires, have any one or more of the following meanings separately: ( a ) land of any tenure and so much of the airspace above the surface as may be reasonably used or enjoyed by any owner thereof, and so much of the subterranean space below the surface as is reasonably necessary for the use and enjoyment of the land, whether or not held apart from the surface; ( b ) the whole or part of any building or other erection or fixture on land; ( c ) where an undivided share of a leasehold interest in land has appurtenant to it rights to the exclusive use and occupation of a building or part thereof on such land, such share in the land and all rights appurtenant thereto; ( d ) any other estate, right, share or interest in land; “licensee” means a company which is licensed under this Act to operate any rapid transit system; “maintenance” includes the detection and rectification of any faults; “outsourced enforcement officer”, in relation to any provision of this Act or regulations made under this Act, means an individual who — ( a ) is appointed under section 11 of the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995; ( b ) is authorised by or under that Act to exercise any powers under any provision of this Act or regulations made under this Act, as the case may be; and ( c ) is acting within that authorisation; “railway” means a network or system of fixed horizontal rails, tracks, grooves or other guide-ways on, under or above the ground along which a train moves or runs, and includes all tunnels, viaducts, bridges, crossings, stabling yards, depots, stations and other infrastructures constructed or intended to be constructed for any railway and any extensions thereto; “railway area” means the land delineated as such in plans and maps prepared under section 3(1) or (3); “railway commuter facility” means — ( a ) a pedestrian facility (such as ramps, overhead bridges, footpaths, escalators, stairs and lifts) for or connected or facilitating access to the railway comprised in any rapid transit system; ( b ) a bicycle parking facility or vehicle set down facility for intending passengers of the railway comprised in any rapid transit system; or ( c ) any other similar structure or facility that integrates a rapid transit system with developments surrounding the rapid transit system by facilitating better access for passengers to residences, employment, markets, services and recreation; “railway premises” means any area, space or building owned or occupied by the Authority which is designed, equipped or set apart for the carriage of passengers by train or for affording facilities incidental to the carriage of passengers by train (but not any railway commuter facility unless expressly included) and includes any train on such premises; “rapid transit system” means any railway line, or a combination of 2 or more railway lines, and any part thereof comprised in that line or those lines set up or intended to be set up under this Act to meet the transport requirements of the public and includes the Mass Rapid Transit system set up under the repealed Act; “repealed Act” means the repealed Mass Rapid Transit Corporation Act (Cap. 172, 1988 Revised Edition); “train” includes a carriage, tram, car or other vehicle for the carriage of passengers on a railway. [21/2010; 9/2014; 11/2015; 38/2018] [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 3
title: Preparation and promulgation of plans and maps
content:
3. —(1) The Authority must, with the approval of the competent authority, cause plans and maps to be prepared in such detail and with such markings and endorsements thereon as are sufficient to delineate the railway area, being that area within which land may be acquired or rights in, under or over land may be exercised by the Authority under this Act for the purposes of and incidental to any railway. (2) A copy of every plan and map prepared for the purposes of subsection (1) and signed by an authorised officer of the Authority must be — ( a ) deposited with the competent authority; and ( b ) available for inspection by the public free of charge at the office of the Authority, during the hours when that office is normally open to the public. (3) Any plan or map prepared for the purposes of subsection (1) and any marking or endorsement on any such plan or map may be amended and any plan or map may be replaced by a substitute plan or map, but the Authority must as soon as possible cause to be likewise amended, or replaced with the substitute plan or map, every copy mentioned in subsection (2) and certify the amendment or substitution in any manner that the Authority thinks sufficient. (4) The Authority must, within 21 days of the deposit of a copy of a plan or map with the competent authority or of any amendment to that copy or the deposit of a substitute plan or map, cause a notice of such deposit or amendment to be published in the Gazette containing — ( a ) a general description of the plan or map or of the nature and extent of the amendment or substitution; and ( b ) particulars of the places and times at which a copy of the plan or map, or details of the amendment or a copy of the substitute plan or map may be inspected by the public in conformity with subsection (2). (5) No person has a right of objection to the delineation of land in any plan or map prepared for the purposes of subsection (1) or to any amendment thereto or substitute plan or map prepared under subsection (3), and the fact that land is therein delineated as being within the railway area is for all purposes conclusive evidence that the land may be required to be acquired or that rights in, under or over the land may need to be exercised by the Authority for the purposes of and incidental to any railway.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 4
title: Power to enter State land to lay and operate railway
content:
4. —(1) For the purpose of constructing, maintaining and operating any railway, the Authority or any person authorised by the Authority may — ( a ) at any reasonable time, enter upon any State land within or adjoining the railway area; and ( b ) subject to the approval of the Commissioner of Lands, lay, construct and operate the railway on, under or over the State land and do all things as are reasonably necessary for the laying, construction, maintenance and operation of the railway. [9/2014; 21/2018] (2) In addition to subsection (1), the Authority may, at any reasonable time, enter upon any State land that is within or adjoining any railway area, and do all things as are reasonably necessary for the construction and maintenance of railway commuter facilities on, under or over that land. [9/2014] (3) To avoid doubt, nothing in subsection (2) derogates from any power of the Authority to construct and maintain any street, road structure or road related facility under the Street Works Act 1995. [9/2014]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 5
title: Power to enter private land to lay railway
content:
5. —(1) The Authority or any person authorised by the Authority has the right to enter upon and take possession of any land or part thereof not being State land within or adjoining the railway area not being land belonging to or acquired by the Authority and lay and construct any railway on, under or over the land and do all things as are reasonably necessary for the purpose of laying and constructing the railway. (2) The Authority or a person authorised by the Authority must not exercise the right conferred by subsection (1) unless the Authority has given at least 2 months’ notice of its intention to exercise the right conferred by that subsection upon every owner and occupier of the land. [12/2015] (3) A notice mentioned in subsection (2) must — ( a ) give a brief description of the works which the Authority proposes to carry out on the land; ( b ) state the estimated period (if any) during which the Authority intends to occupy or take possession of the land; ( c ) describe the area or extent of the land needed for the carrying out of the works mentioned in paragraph ( a ); and ( d ) state that any person entitled to payment of any compensation under the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995 may serve a written claim on the Authority. (4) The ownership of anything is not altered by reason only that it is placed in, under, over or affixed to any land in exercise of a right conferred upon the Authority by this section. (5) Any person authorised under this section to enter upon any land must, if so required by the owner or occupier, produce evidence of the person’s authority before entering the land. [9/2014] (6) Any person who refuses to give access to, or obstructs, hinders or delays, an agent or employee of the Authority at any time in the exercise of his or her authority shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000. [9/2014] (7) In this section, a reference to entry on land includes the digging or boring of a tunnel under the land and the erection of any structure over or under the land.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 6
title: Creation of rights in, under or over land
content:
6. —(1) From the date of publication in the Gazette of a notice of creation of a right under this section, the Authority or any person authorised by the Authority may, at any reasonable time and for the purposes of and incidental to the operation of a railway specified therein, enter upon such land within the railway area as described in the notice, not being State land or land belonging to or acquired by the Authority, and exercise such permanent rights in, under or over such land or such rights of temporary occupation of the land as may be specified in the notice. (2) A notice of creation of a right under this section must — ( a ) be made by the Authority; ( b ) describe the right in, under or over land or the right of temporary occupation and the area of land subject to such right; and ( c ) state particulars of the places and times at which a copy of a plan of the area of land subject to such right may be inspected. (3) Any right described in a notice of creation of a right under this section must be limited to a right conferring the rights and powers that are necessary or convenient for the operation of any railway and for all purposes connected with or incidental to such operation.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 7
title: Owners who suffer substantial impairment in rights in land may require their land to be acquired
content:
7. —(1) The owner of any land temporary possession of which is or has been taken in accordance with section 5 may, by written notice given to the Authority, request the Government to acquire under the Land Acquisition Act 1966 — ( a ) the land; and ( b ) any other land of the owner related to the land in paragraph ( a ), if the owner considers that the owner suffers substantial impairment of the owner’s rights in the lands in paragraphs ( a ) and ( b ) because of the taking of that temporary possession. [12/2015] (2) If there is more than one owner of the land concerned, the notice under this section must be given by all the owners. [12/2015] (3) Any notice under this section is irrevocable once given to the Authority. [12/2015] (4) For the purposes of this section and section 7A, land (called the A land) is related to other land temporary possession of which is or has been taken in accordance with section 5 (called in this section and section 7A the temporarily occupied land) if the A land is the remainder of a parcel of land part of which is the temporarily occupied land. [12/2015] (5) In this section and section 7A — “owner”, in relation to any land, means — ( a ) a person who has the fee simple estate in the land; ( b ) a person who is the grantee or lessee under a State title for the land; ( c ) a person who has become entitled to exercise a power of sale of the land; or ( d ) a person in occupation of the land under a tenancy the term of which exceeds 7 years; “parcel of land” means the whole area of land that — ( a ) is the subject of a separate certificate of title registered under the Land Titles Act 1993; or ( b ) is a lot in a lawful division of land and capable of being separately held by any owner, and where a single building is erected on 2 or more such adjoining lands or lots mentioned in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ), includes the area comprised in those lands or lots, as the case may be. [12/2015]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s7A
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 7A
title: Owner-initiated acquisition
content:
7A. —(1) Upon the Authority receiving a notice under section 7(1) in relation to any temporarily occupied land, and any other land related to the temporarily occupied land, the President is to proceed under the Land Acquisition Act 1966 to acquire that land as if those lands were the subject of a notice under section 49 of that Act. [12/2015] (2) The provisions of sections 49 and 49A of the Land Acquisition Act 1966 apply (so far as relevant) to any land that is the subject of a notice under section 7(1) with the following exceptions, modifications and adaptations: ( a ) any reference in those sections to any land that is the subject of a notice under section 49(1) of the Land Acquisition Act 1966 must be read as a reference to the land that is the subject of a notice under section 7(1); ( b ) any reference in those sections to land temporary possession of which is or has been taken under section 42 of the Land Acquisition Act 1966 must be read as a reference to any land temporary possession of which is or has been taken in accordance with section 5; ( c ) any reference in those sections to an owner of land must be read as a reference to an owner of land mentioned in section 7; ( d ) any reference in section 49A of the Land Acquisition Act 1966 to a claim period for any land temporary possession of which is or has been taken in accordance with a direction under section 42 of the Land Acquisition Act 1966 must be read as a reference to one year starting from either of the following dates: (i) the date of the notice under section 5 relating to that land; (ii) the date of the expiry of the term of temporary possession in a notice under section 5 for the temporary occupation of the land, or the date the land is returned to the owner if earlier; ( e ) any other exceptions, modifications and adaptations that the differences between them necessarily require. [12/2015] (3) All compensation for the acquisition under the Land Acquisition Act 1966 of any land that is the subject of a notice under section 7 is to be paid out of the funds of the Authority. [12/2015]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 8
title: Power of entry
content:
8. Where in respect of any land notice has been published in the Gazette in accordance with section 5 of the Land Acquisition Act 1966 but the land has not vested in the State or notice has been given by the Authority under section 5(2) of its intention to lay and construct any railway on, over or under any land, the Authority, or any person acting under its authority, may after giving at least 14 days’ notice in writing to the owner or occupier enter upon that land and any adjoining land within the railway area at all reasonable times for the purpose of — ( a ) surveying and taking levels of the firstmentioned land; ( b ) setting out the line of any works; ( c ) digging or boring into the soil for the purpose of determining whether the soil is suitable for laying the railway on, over or under the land; or ( d ) inspecting any object or structure mentioned in section 11.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 9
title: Power to enter land for inspection and survey, etc.
content:
9. —(1) The Authority, or any person acting under its authority, may enter any land or building situated wholly or partly within the railway area or wholly or partly within 150 metres thereof in order to carry out — ( a ) any inspection or survey which is reasonably necessary to ascertain the condition of the land or building prior to or during the construction of any railway and to carry out all reasonably necessary work of a preventive or remedial nature; and ( b ) any inspection or maintenance of the railway which has been laid by the Authority on, under or over the land or building and to carry out any work and do all things necessary for the purpose of maintaining the railway causing as little damage as possible and paying compensation to any person affected for any damage that may be caused. (2) A person must not, for the purposes of subsection (1), enter any land or building which is occupied without giving the owner and the occupier at least 7 days’ notice of the person’s intention to do so unless — ( a ) the Authority is of the opinion that an emergency exists which necessitates immediate entry; or ( b ) the entry is required only for the purpose of an inspection or a survey. (3) A notice of entry referred to in subsection (2) — ( a ) must describe the purpose of the entry and the nature of any work to be carried out; and ( b ) is deemed to be given to and received by an owner or occupier if a written notice is affixed to a conspicuous part of the land or building to be entered. (4) In subsection (1), “work of a preventive or remedial nature” means the underpinning or strengthening of any land or building and other work thereon intended to render it reasonably safe or to repair or detect damage caused in the course of the construction or operation of any railway. (5) The decision of the Authority that any work is of a preventive or remedial nature or that such work or any inspection or survey is reasonably necessary is final. (6) The Authority, or any person acting under its authority, may — ( a ) as the occasion requires, enter and reinspect and re‑survey any land or building in respect of which any of the powers contained in subsection (1) have been exercised; and ( b ) in relation to that land or building, exercise those powers as often as the occasion requires. (7) Any person authorised under this section to enter upon any land or building must, if so required by the owner or occupier, produce evidence of the person’s authority before so entering it. (8) Any person who refuses to give access to, or obstructs, hinders or delays, an agent or employee of the Authority at any time in the exercise of his or her authority shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000. [9/2014]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 10
title: Utility services
content:
10. —(1) The Authority may serve notice on the owner or supplier of any gas, electricity, water, telecommunication, sewerage or drainage services to — ( a ) alter the course or position of any wire, line, cable, pipe, tube, casing, duct, post, structure or other apparatus which belongs to or is maintained by that owner or supplier; and ( b ) repair any street surface thereby disturbed, if in the opinion of the Authority the alteration is required for the purposes of the construction, operation, maintenance or improvement of any railway. (2) A notice under subsection (1) must — ( a ) specify the apparatus or structure to which the notice applies and set out the requirements of the Authority as to the alteration of its course or position and the repair of any street surface; ( b ) stipulate the period within which such work must be carried out; ( c ) be served upon the owner or supplier at least one month before the commencement of that period; and ( d ) state that any person entitled to compensation under this Act may serve a written claim upon the Authority.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 2 - PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 11
title: Removal of projections or obstructions
content:
11. —(1) The Authority may give notice to the owner of any land or building in the railway area requiring the owner to remove any object or structure described in the notice which is erected on or attached to, or projects from, the land or building if in the opinion of the Authority the removal of the object or structure is required for the purposes of the construction of any railway. (2) A notice under subsection (1) may be given to the owner of the land or building and is deemed to have been received by the owner if it is affixed to some conspicuous part of the land or building to or from which the object or structure is erected or attached or projects from. (3) A notice under subsection (1) must — ( a ) describe the object or structure to be removed; ( b ) stipulate the period within which the work of removal must be carried out; ( c ) be given to the owner of the land or building not later than 28 days before the commencement of that period; and ( d ) state that any person entitled to compensation under the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995 may serve a written claim upon the Authority. (4) If the owner of the land or building does not comply with a notice given to the owner under subsection (1), any person authorised in that behalf by the Authority may enter the land or building, together with any other persons that the person authorised thinks necessary, and remove the object or structure described in the notice or cause it to be removed by those other persons.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s11A
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 11A
title: General considerations
content:
11A. In the exercise of its functions and powers under this Part, the Authority must have regard to the need for — ( a ) an integrated public transport system in Singapore, including the integration of the rapid transit systems with other modes of transport and surrounding developments; ( b ) reliable, seamless and convenient travel within the public transport system and enhanced passenger services; ( c ) network-wide efficient and coordinated movements of passengers on rapid transit systems; ( d ) sustainability, adequacy and optimisation of capacity across the network of rapid transit systems; and ( e ) safety and security of life and property on the rapid transit systems. [21/2010]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 12
title: Operating rapid transit system without licence
content:
12. —(1) Only the Authority or a person licensed by the Authority may operate any rapid transit system. (2) Any person who operates any rapid transit system in contravention of subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $5,000 for every day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 13
title: Licence to operate rapid transit system
content:
13. —(1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Authority may grant to any company a licence to operate any rapid transit system specified therein for such period as may be specified in the licence. (2) Every licensee is authorised under this Act to operate any rapid transit system for the period specified in the licence unless the licence is earlier revoked, cancelled or suspended under the provisions of this Act. (3) The fee for a licence to operate any rapid transit system is such amount as may be prescribed.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s13A
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 13A
title: Licence charge
content:
13A. —(1) In addition to the licence fee payable under section 13(3), a charge is payable by every person who is granted a licence on or after 13 September 2010, which is the amount determined by the Authority and specified in the licence, after taking into account — ( a ) the relative viability of operating and maintaining that rapid transit system in the network of rapid transit systems; ( b ) the long-term operational and maintenance needs of the railway network and the long‑term sustainability of each rapid transit system comprised in the network of rapid transit systems; and ( c ) the benefits and burdens that the operation and maintenance of that rapid transit system is likely to bring to and impose on the network of rapid transit systems. [21/2010] (2) A person who is to be granted a licence on or after 13 September 2010 must ordinarily be selected by the Authority from among those who submit tenders in response to an invitation to tender under this section for the right to operate (or to secure that a wholly‑owned subsidiary thereof operates) a rapid transit system under that licence. [21/2010] (3) Any such invitation to tender must specify that an applicant who tenders for a licence must state the amount (by reference to quantity or method or otherwise) that the applicant (or a wholly‑owned subsidiary thereof) is willing to pay for the grant of a licence (called in this Part a cash‑bid), in addition to the charge determined under subsection (1); and that cash‑bid is payable, together with the charge determined under subsection (1), by the applicant or its wholly‑owned subsidiary if the applicant or its wholly‑owned subsidiary (as the case may be) is granted a licence. [21/2010]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 14
title: Matters to be considered by Authority in granting licence
content:
14. In exercising its discretion to grant a licence to operate any rapid transit system, the Authority must have regard to the financial standing of the applicant and its ability to maintain an adequate, satisfactory, safe and efficient service.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 15
title: Conditions of licence
content:
15. —(1) In granting a licence to operate any rapid transit system, the Authority may impose any conditions that it thinks fit, and may, in particular, impose conditions relating to — ( a ) the extent, hours and general level of services; ( b ) the security and safety of persons using or engaged in work on the rapid transit system; ( c ) the maintenance and operation of the railway relating to the rapid transit system; ( d ) the deposit of security or bank guarantee to the satisfaction of the Authority for the due performance by the licensee of all or any obligations imposed upon it by the licence or by this Act; ( e ) the control and restriction, directly or indirectly, on the creation, holding or disposal of shares in the licensee or its shareholders, or of interests in the undertaking of the licensee or any part thereof; ( f ) the restriction on the carrying on by the licensee of any trade or business not related to the activity which the licensee is authorised by its licence to carry on; and ( g ) the standards of performance to be complied by the licensee in the maintenance or operation of the rapid transit system or the provision of rapid transit system services. [21/2010; 9/2014] (2) Without limiting subsection (1), conditions included in a licence to operate a rapid transit system — ( a ) may require the licensee to enter into any agreement with any person for such purposes as may be specified in the conditions of the licence, such as but not limited to any matter which is dealt with (whether in the same or different manner) by an access contract; ( b ) may include provision for determining the terms on which such agreements are to be entered into, which may be such conditions as may be agreed to by the licensee and such other persons or, in default of agreement, as may be determined by the Authority; ( c ) may include conditions which must be complied with before the licence can be transferred or assigned; ( d ) may require the licensee — (i) to comply with any requirements from time to time imposed by the Authority (or a person nominated by the Authority for this purpose) with respect to the matters concerning the operation or maintenance of the rapid transit system that are specified, or are of a description specified, in the licence; (ii) except insofar as the Authority (or a person nominated by the Authority for this purpose) consents to the licensee doing or not doing them, to do, or not to do, the things that are specified, or are of a description specified, in the licence; (iii) to refer for determination by a person nominated by the Authority for this purpose the questions arising under the licence that are specified, or are of a description specified, in the licence; or (iv) to furnish to the Authority (or a person nominated by the Authority for this purpose) any documents or other information that the Authority may require for the purpose of exercising any functions conferred or imposed on the Authority or person under or by virtue of the licence or this Act; ( e ) may contain provision for the conditions to cease to have effect or be modified at the times, in the manner and in the circumstances specified in or determined by or under the conditions; and any provision included by virtue of this paragraph in a licence has effect in addition to section 16 with respect to the modification of the conditions of a licence; ( f ) may require the licensee — (i) to operate or maintain any extension of the rapid transit system or part thereof; or (ii) to maintain any railway commuter facility within the vicinity of a station that is part of the rapid transit system, and any other premises, facilities and structures used as, or for the purposes of, or otherwise reasonably necessary for or incidental to operating the rapid transit system; ( g ) may require the licensee to acquire from such person as may be specified in the licence, and to use, such property or rights as may be so specified, or to undertake such liabilities as may be so specified; ( h ) may require the licensee to prepare itself to deal with any plague or epidemic, fire, flood, earthquake or disaster (natural or otherwise) or any public emergency; and ( i ) may require the licensee to provide travel information systems and directional signs for the purpose of ensuring integration of the rapid transit system with transport services and facilities and developments surrounding the rapid transit systems operated by the licensee so as to enhance railway passenger services. [21/2010; 9/2014] (3) In this section — “access contract” means — ( a ) a contract under which a person, and so far as may be appropriate, an associate of that person, obtains permission from a facility owner to use the facility owner’s railway facility; or ( b ) a contract conferring an option to require a facility owner to secure that a person, and so far as may be appropriate, an associate of that person, obtains permission from the facility owner to use the facility owner’s railway facility; “associate”, in relation to any person, includes — ( a ) any employee, agent or independent contractor of the person; ( b ) any passenger of the person; ( c ) any person engaged in the provision of goods or services to or for the person; or ( d ) any other person who deals or has business with the person; “facility owner” means any person (other than the Authority or the Government) — ( a ) who has an estate or interest in, or right over, any track, station or depot of a rapid transit system; and ( b ) whose permission to use that track, station or depot is needed by another before that other may use it; “railway facility” means a track, station or depot of a rapid transit system. [21/2010]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 16
title: Modification of terms and conditions of licence
content:
16. —(1) Subject to this section, the Authority may add to, delete or modify the terms or conditions of a licence granted under section 13. (2) Before making any addition, deletion or modification to the terms or conditions of a licence under subsection (1), the Authority must give notice to the licensee — ( a ) stating that it proposes to make the addition, deletion or modification in the manner specified in the notice; and ( b ) specifying the time (being at least 28 days from the date of service of notice on the licensee) within which the licensee may make written representations to the Authority with respect to the proposed addition, deletion or modification. (3) Upon receipt of any written representation mentioned in subsection (2)( b ), the Authority must consider such representation and may — ( a ) reject the representation; ( b ) amend the proposed addition, deletion or modification in the manner that it thinks fit having regard to the representation; or ( c ) withdraw the proposed addition, deletion or modification. (4) Where the Authority rejects any written representation under subsection (3)( a ) or amends any proposed addition, deletion or modification to the terms or conditions of a licence under subsection (3)( b ), the Authority must issue a direction in writing to the licensee requiring the licensee, within the time specified by the Authority, to give effect to the addition, deletion or modification specified in the notice or as amended by the Authority, as the case may be. (5) The Authority must not enforce its direction — ( a ) during the period prescribed for the purposes of section 28(3); and [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( b ) while the appeal of the licensee is under consideration by the Minister. (6) If no written representation is received by the Authority within the time specified under subsection (2)( b ) or if any written representation made under that subsection is subsequently withdrawn, the Authority may immediately carry out the addition, deletion or modification to the terms or conditions of the licence as specified in the notice given to the licensee under subsection (2).


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s16A
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 16A
title: Restrictions on acquisition of essential operating assets
content:
16A. —(1) A person must not acquire, on or after 13 September 2010, any essential operating asset of a rapid transit system, or an interest in an essential operating asset of a rapid transit system (whether or not the acquisition is by way of the enforcement of a loan security) unless — ( a ) the person is a licensee authorised by licence to operate that rapid transit system; or ( b ) the Authority consents in writing to the acquisition. [21/2010] (2) Any acquisition, or a purported acquisition, on or after 13 September 2010, of any essential operating asset of a rapid transit system or part thereof, or an interest in an essential operating asset of a rapid transit system or part thereof, in contravention of subsection (1) is void. [21/2010] (3) In this section, “essential operating asset”, in relation to any rapid transit system, means any land, plant, equipment, machinery or other property which — ( a ) is used or intended to be used (and whether or not it is also used for other purposes) by the licensee authorised by a licence to operate that rapid transit system; and ( b ) is designated by or under the licence to be an essential operating asset. [21/2010]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s16B
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 16B
title: Restrictions on transfer, etc., and surrender of licences
content:
16B. —(1) Every licence is not capable of being transferred or assigned unless — ( a ) the licence contains a condition authorising the transfer or assignment; and ( b ) the Authority consents in writing to the transfer or assignment. [21/2010] (2) Any consent under subsection (1) may be given subject to compliance with such conditions as the Authority thinks fit to impose, which may, subject to section 16, include conditions modifying, or requiring or otherwise providing for the making of modifications to, the conditions of the licence. [21/2010] (3) A transfer or an assignment, or a purported transfer or assignment, of a licence is void — ( a ) if the licence is not capable of transfer or assignment; ( b ) if the transfer or assignment, or purported transfer or assignment, is in breach of a condition of the licence; or ( c ) if there has, before the transfer or assignment or purported transfer or assignment, been a contravention of a condition subject to compliance with which the consent required by subsection (1) is given. [21/2010] (4) Every licence is not capable of being surrendered without the written consent of the Authority, and any surrender or purported surrender of a licence is void if it is without such consent. [21/2010]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 17
title: Codes of practice
content:
17. —(1) The Authority may issue or approve and from time to time modify codes of practice in connection with — ( a ) the maintenance or operation of rapid transit systems and any equipment relating thereto; ( b ) the provision of services for the carriage of passengers on a rapid transit system; ( c ) the conduct of licensees; ( d ) the security and safety of persons who use or who are engaged in any work on the rapid transit system; and ( e ) the measures necessary for licensees to deal with any plague or epidemic, fire, flood, earthquake or disaster (natural or otherwise) or other public emergency. [21/2010] (2) Every licensee must comply with any code of practice issued or approved by the Authority under subsection (1), except that if any provision in any such code of practice is inconsistent with this Act, that provision does not have effect to the extent of the inconsistency. (3) The Authority may, if the circumstances so warrant, exempt any licensee from any provision in any code of practice, whether unconditionally or subject to any conditions that the Authority thinks fit to impose, and whether permanently or for such time as the Authority may specify. (4) Any code of practice issued or approved by the Authority is deemed not to be subsidiary legislation.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 18
title: Directions affecting licensees
content:
18. —(1) The Authority may give directions to be observed by licensees for or in respect of the following matters: ( a ) the extent, hours and general level of the services to be provided by licensees; ( b ) the extension of the operating hours of the services provided by the licensees; ( c ) the maintenance and operation of the rapid transit system; ( d ) the provision of travel information systems and directional signs for the purpose of ensuring integration of rapid transit systems with transport services and facilities and developments surrounding the respective rapid transit systems operated by licensees so as to enhance railway passenger services; ( e ) the security and safety of persons who use or who are engaged in any work on the rapid transit system; and ( f ) any other matters affecting the interests of the public in connection with the services provided by licensees. [21/2010] (2) Any direction given under subsection (1) — ( a ) may require the licensee concerned (according to the circumstances of the case) to do, or to refrain from doing, the things that are specified, or are of a description specified, in the direction; ( b ) takes effect at the time, being the earliest practicable time, that is determined by or under that direction; and ( c ) may be revoked at any time by the Authority. (3) Before giving any direction to any licensee under subsection (1), the Authority — ( a ) must give notice to the licensee — (i) informing the licensee of the proposed direction and setting out its effect; and (ii) specifying the time within which representations or objections to the proposed direction may be made by the licensee in connection with the proposed direction, unless the Authority, in respect of any particular direction, considers that it is not practicable or desirable that such notice be given; and ( b ) must consider any representations or objections which are duly made by the licensee under paragraph ( a )(ii). (4) Every licensee must comply with every direction given to it by the Authority under this section.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s18A
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 18A
title: Appointment and removal of director, etc., of licensee
content:
18A. —(1) A licensee must not — ( a ) appoint or re‑appoint an individual as its chief executive officer, its director or the chairperson of its board of directors; or ( b ) remove its chief executive officer or the chairperson of its board of directors or any of its directors, unless the licensee has obtained the approval of the Authority to do so. [9/2014] (1A) The Authority may — ( a ) grant an approval under this section subject to any conditions that the Authority considers appropriate to impose; and ( b ) at any time add to, vary or revoke any condition so imposed. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (2) Where a licensee, in contravention of subsection (1), does any of the following without the approval of the Authority: ( a ) appoints or re‑appoints an individual as its chief executive officer, its director or the chairperson of its board of directors; ( b ) removes its chief executive officer or the chairperson of its board of directors or any of its directors, the Authority may issue a direction to the licensee to do either of the following, whichever being applicable, and the licensee must comply with the direction: ( c ) to remove that individual from his or her appointment as the chief executive officer or a director or the chairperson of the board of directors of the licensee, as the case may be; ( d ) to reinstate the individual as the chief executive officer or a director or the chairperson of the board of directors of the licensee, as the case may be. [9/2014] (3) Where at any time the Authority is satisfied that it is necessary or desirable to act for the purpose of the proper administration of the licensee’s business of operating a rapid transit system, the Authority may issue a direction to the licensee to appoint an individual as an additional director of the licensee, and the licensee must comply with the direction. [9/2014] (4) Before issuing any direction to any licensee under subsection (2) or (3), the Authority must give notice to the licensee — ( a ) informing the licensee of the proposed direction and setting out its effect; and ( b ) specifying the time within which representations or objections to the proposed direction may be made by the licensee in connection with the proposed direction, unless the Authority, in respect of any particular direction, considers that it is not practicable or desirable that the notice be given. [9/2014] (5) The Authority must consider any representations or objections which are duly made by the licensee in connection with a proposed direction following a notice under subsection (4). [9/2014] (6) This section has effect despite the provisions of any other written law and the provisions of the memorandum or articles of association, or other constitution, of the licensee, and nothing in section 152 of the Companies Act 1967 prevents the Authority from exercising any power under this section. [9/2014] (7) Nothing in subsections (2) to (6) is to be taken as depriving an individual who is removed under any of those provisions of compensation or damages payable to him or her in respect of the termination of his or her appointment as a chief executive officer, director or chairperson of the board of directors. [9/2014] (7A) This section does not apply to or in relation to any licensee that has been designated as a designated operating entity, starting on its effective designation date and while it remains so designated. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] (8) In this section — “chief executive officer”, in relation to a licensee, means any individual (however described by name) who — ( a ) is in the direct employment of, or acting for or by arrangement with, the licensee; and ( b ) is principally responsible for the management and conduct of any type of business of the licensee in Singapore, and includes any individual for the time being performing all or any of the functions or duties of the chief executive officer; “director” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967. [9/2014]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 19
title: Suspension or cancellation of licence, etc.
content:
19. —(1) Subject to subsection (3), if any licensee — ( a ) contravenes or fails to comply with, or fails to secure the compliance by its employees, agents or contractors with, any of the conditions of its licence to operate any rapid transit system or with any provision of this Act which is applicable to the licensee and for which no criminal penalty is prescribed for a contravention of the provision; ( b ) is convicted of any offence under this Act; ( c ) in the opinion of the Authority, fails or is likely to fail to provide and maintain an adequate, safe and satisfactory service; ( d ) fails to comply with any provision of any code of practice issued or approved by the Authority under section 17; ( e ) fails to comply with any direction given by the Authority under section 18 or 18A; ( ea ) fails to comply with any condition of approval under section 18A; [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] ( f ) fails to comply with any provisional order confirmed under section 19A; ( g ) goes into compulsory or voluntary liquidation other than for the purpose of reconstruction or amalgamation; or ( h ) makes any assignment to, or composition with, its creditors, the Authority may, by written notice and without any compensation, do all or any of the following: ( i ) suspend or cancel the licence of the licensee; ( j ) forfeit the whole or any part of any security deposited with the Authority by the licensee or by its bank pursuant to a bank guarantee but not in excess of the maximum amount specified in subsection (2) if the licence is not cancelled; ( k ) require the licensee to pay, within a specified period, a financial penalty of an amount that the Authority thinks fit, which in any case must not exceed the maximum amount specified in subsection (2). [21/2010; 9/2014; 31/2015] (2) For the purposes of requiring a licensee of any rapid transit system to pay a financial penalty under subsection (1)( k ), the maximum amount means the higher of the following amounts: ( a ) $1 million; ( b ) 10% of the licensee’s annual fare revenue that is received — (i) during the licensee’s last‑completed financial year as ascertained from the licensee’s latest audited accounts; and (ii) from the operation of the rapid transit system or, if more than one rapid transit system is the subject of the licensee’s licence, of each rapid transit system. [9/2014] (3) A financial penalty cannot be imposed on a licensee if the sole ground for proceeding under subsection (1) is that, in the opinion of the Authority, the licensee is likely to fail to provide and maintain an adequate, safe and satisfactory service. [31/2015] (4) A financial penalty imposed under subsection (1)( k ) on any licensee must be recovered and collected by the Authority for the purposes of the Public Transport Fund. [31/2015] (5) The whole or part of any financial penalty recovered and collected under subsection (4) from a licensee, and any interest on any financial penalty in arrears, must be paid into the Public Transport Fund established under the Public Transport Council Act 1987. [31/2015] (6) In this section, “annual fare revenue”, in relation to a licensee of a rapid transit system, means the total charges received by the licensee from passengers for travel services provided on any railway comprised in that rapid transit system, less any goods and services tax paid by, the value of any rebate supplied to, and any connection commission paid by, passengers in connection with those travel services. [9/2014]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s19A
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 19A
title: Provisional orders for securing compliance
content:
19A. —(1) Subject to subsections (5) and (6), where it appears to the Authority that — ( a ) a licensee is contravening, or is likely to contravene, any condition of its licence; or ( b ) a licensee has failed to secure the compliance by its employees, agents or contractors with any condition of its licence, and that it is appropriate or requisite that a provisional order be made under this section, the Authority may, instead of taking any decision under section 19, by provisional order make such provision as appears to it requisite for securing compliance with that condition. [21/2010] (2) A provisional order — ( a ) must require the licensee to whom it relates (according to the circumstances of the case) to do, or not to do, the things that are specified, or are of a description specified, in the provisional order; ( b ) takes effect at the time, being the earliest practicable time, that is determined by or under the provisional order; and ( c ) may be revoked at any time by the Authority. [21/2010] (3) In determining whether it is appropriate or requisite that a provisional order be made, the Authority must have regard, in particular, to the extent to which any person is likely to sustain loss or damage in consequence of anything which, in contravention of any condition of a licence, is likely to be done, or omitted to be done, before a decision under section 19 may be made. [21/2010] (4) Subject to subsections (5), (6) and (7), the Authority must, by written notice, confirm a provisional order, with or without modifications, if — ( a ) the Authority is satisfied that the licensee to whom the order relates is contravening, or is likely to contravene any condition of its licence, or has failed to secure the compliance by its employees, agents or contractors with any condition of its licence; and ( b ) the provision made by the order (with any modifications) is requisite for the purpose of securing compliance with that condition. [21/2010] (5) The Authority must not make or confirm a provisional order in relation to a licensee if it is satisfied — ( a ) that the duties imposed on the Authority under this Act or the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995 preclude the making of such an order; ( b ) that the licensee has agreed to take, and is taking, all steps that appear to the Authority for the time being to be appropriate for the licensee to take for the purpose of securing or facilitating compliance with the condition in question; or ( c ) that the contraventions were, or the apprehended contraventions are, of a trivial nature. [21/2010] (6) Before the Authority makes or confirms a provisional order, the Authority must give notice to the licensee concerned — ( a ) stating that the Authority proposes to make or confirm the provisional order and setting out its effect; ( b ) setting out — (i) the relevant condition of the licence for the purpose of securing compliance with which the provisional order is to be made or confirmed; (ii) the acts or omissions which, in the Authority’s opinion, constitute or would constitute contraventions of that condition; and (iii) the other facts which, in the Authority’s opinion, justify the making or confirmation of the provisional order; and ( c ) specifying the period (being at least 28 days from the date of service of the notice) within which representations or objections with respect to the proposed provisional order or proposed confirmation may be made, and must consider any representations or objections which are duly made and not withdrawn. [21/2010] (7) The Authority must not confirm a provisional order with modifications except — ( a ) with the consent of the licensee to whom the provisional order relates; or ( b ) after — (i) serving on that licensee notice under subsection (6) of the proposal to confirm the provisional order with modifications and in that notice, specifying the period (being at least 28 days from the date of service of the notice) within which representations or objections with respect to the proposed modifications may be made; and (ii) considering any representations or objections which are duly made and not withdrawn. [21/2010] (8) In this section, “provisional order” means an order under this section which, if not previously confirmed in accordance with subsection (5), will cease to have effect at the end of the period (not exceeding 3 months) determined by or under the order. [21/2010]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s19B
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 19B
title: Outstanding fees, charges, penalties, etc.
content:
19B. —(1) If — ( a ) any fee imposed under section 13 in respect of a licence or any part thereof is not paid in full by the due date for payment; ( b ) any charge and cash-bid (if any) imposed under section 13A in respect of a licence or any part thereof is not paid in full by the due date for payment; or ( c ) any financial penalty imposed under section 19(1)( k ) in respect of a licensee or any part thereof is not paid in full by the due date for payment, interest at the prescribed rate is payable by the licensee concerned on the outstanding amount of any such fee, charge, cash‑bid or financial penalty. [21/2010] (2) The Authority may recover as a debt in a court of competent jurisdiction any of the following amounts that has become due and payable but has not been paid: ( a ) any fee imposed under section 13 in respect of a licence or any part thereof; ( b ) any charge and cash-bid (if any) imposed under section 13A in respect of a licence or any part thereof; ( c ) any financial penalty imposed under section 19(1)( k ) in respect of a licensee or any part thereof; ( d ) any interest imposed under subsection (1) or any part thereof, and the liability of the licensee concerned to pay is not affected by its licence ceasing (for any reason) to be in force. [21/2010]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 20
title: Restrictions on voluntary winding up, etc., of licensees
content:
20. —(1) Despite any other written law — ( a ) a licensee cannot be wound up without the consent of the Authority; ( b ) a person must not make an application under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967 or section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to a licensee without the consent of the Authority; ( c ) no judicial management order under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 may be made in relation to a licensee without the consent of the Authority; ( d ) no interim judicial manager or judicial manager may be appointed under section 94 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in respect of a licensee without the consent of the Authority; ( e ) a person must not take any step to enforce any security over the property of a licensee unless that person has served 14 days’ notice in writing of that person’s intention to take that step on the Authority; and ( f ) a person must not take any step to execute or enforce any judgment or order of court against a licensee unless that person has served 14 days’ notice in writing of that person’s intention to take that step on the Authority. (2) The Authority must be a party to — ( a ) any proceedings relating to the making of an order under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967 or section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to a licensee; ( b ) any proceedings relating to the making of a judicial management order under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to a licensee; and ( c ) any proceedings under the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 for the winding up of the affairs of a licensee. (3) A court must, when deciding any proceedings mentioned in subsection (2), take into consideration any representations made by the Authority in those proceedings. (4) This section does not apply to or in relation to any licensee that has been designated as a designated operating entity, starting on its effective designation date and while it remains so designated. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 3 - OPERATION OF RAPID TRANSIT SYSTEMS
section: 21
title: Authority to operate rapid transit system
content:
21. If there is for any reason no licensee to operate any rapid transit system, it is the duty of the Authority to operate that rapid transit system having regard to the reasonable requirements of the land transport system in Singapore or the relevant part thereof.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21A
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21A
title: Extraterritorial application of this Part
content:
21A. —(1) Except where otherwise expressly provided, this Part applies to, and in relation to — ( a ) all individuals, whether resident in Singapore or not and whether citizens of Singapore or not; and ( b ) all bodies corporate or unincorporate, whether incorporated, formed, established, or carrying on business in Singapore or not. (2) Every person who, outside Singapore, commits an act or omission that, if committed in Singapore, would constitute an offence under this Part, is deemed to commit the act or omission in Singapore and may be proceeded against, charged, tried and punished accordingly. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21B
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21B
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
21B. —(1) In this Part — “5% controller”, in relation to a designated entity, means a person who, alone or together with that person’s associates — ( a ) holds 5% or more, but less than 25%, of the total equity interests in that designated entity; or ( b ) is in a position to control 5% or more, but less than 25%, of the voting power in that designated entity; “25% controller”, in relation to a designated entity, means a person who, alone or together with that person’s associates — ( a ) holds 25% or more, but less than 50%, of the total equity interests in that designated entity; or ( b ) is in a position to control 25% or more, but less than 50%, of the voting power in that designated entity; “50% controller”, in relation to a designated entity, means a person who, alone or together with that person’s associates — ( a ) holds 50% or more, but less than 75%, of the total equity interests in that designated entity; or ( b ) is in a position to control 50% or more, but less than 75%, of the voting power in that designated entity; “75% controller”, in relation to a designated entity, means a person who, alone or together with that person’s associates — ( a ) holds 75% or more of the total equity interests in that designated entity; or ( b ) is in a position to control 75% or more of the voting power in that designated entity; “acquisition” includes an agreement to acquire, but does not include — ( a ) an acquisition by will or by operation of law; or ( b ) an acquisition by way of enforcement of a loan security; “arrangement” includes any formal or informal scheme, arrangement or understanding, and any trust whether express or implied; “chief executive officer”, in relation to a designated entity or the trustee-manager of a designated entity, means an individual (by whatever name called) who — ( a ) is in the direct employment of, or acting for or by arrangement with, the designated entity or trustee-manager, as the case may be; and ( b ) is principally responsible for the management and conduct of the business of the designated entity or trustee-manager, as the case may be, and includes any individual for the time being performing all or any of the functions of a chief executive officer; “control” includes control as a result of, or by means of, any trust, agreement, arrangement, understanding or practice, whether or not having legal or equitable force and whether or not based on legal or equitable rights; “decrease”, in relation to the holding of equity interests, includes a decrease to a point of nil; “director” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967; “equity interest” — ( a ) in relation to a corporation — means a voting share in that corporation; ( b ) in relation to an entity other than a corporation — means any right or interest, whether legal or equitable, in that entity (by whatever name called) which gives the holder of that right or interest voting power in that entity; and ( c ) in relation to a business trust — means a unit in that business trust; “increase”, in relation to the holding of equity interests, includes an increase from a starting point of nil; “indirect controller”, in relation to a designated entity, means any person, whether acting alone or together with any other person, and whether with or without holding equity interests or controlling the voting power in the designated entity — ( a ) whose directions, instructions or wishes — (i) the directors or other officers of the designated entity; or (ii) the trustee-manager (in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust), is accustomed or under an obligation, whether formal or informal, to act in accordance with; or ( b ) who is in a position to determine the policy of the designated entity, but does not include — ( c ) any person who is — (i) a director or other officer of the designated entity; or (ii) the trustee-manager (in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust); or ( d ) any person whose directions, instructions or wishes — (i) the directors or other officers of the designated entity; or (ii) the trustee-manager (in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust), is accustomed to act in accordance with by reason only that the acting is on advice given by the person in that person’s professional capacity; “limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; “liquidator” includes the Official Receiver when acting as the liquidator of a corporation; “officer”, in relation to a corporation, includes — ( a ) a director or secretary of, or a person employed in an executive capacity by, the corporation; ( b ) any receiver or manager, or any receiver and manager, of any part of the undertaking of the corporation, appointed under a power contained in any instrument or by the General Division of the High Court or by creditors; ( c ) any liquidator of the corporation appointed in a voluntary winding up or by the General Division of the High Court or by creditors; and ( d ) any judicial manager of the corporation appointed under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018; “Official Receiver” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018; “related corporation”, in relation to a corporation, means another corporation that is deemed under section 21D(2) to be related to that corporation; “share”, in relation to a corporation, means a share in the share capital of the corporation and includes stock into which all or any of the share capital of the corporation has been converted; “treasury share” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967; “unit” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Business Trusts Act 2004; “unitholder” means a person who holds units in a business trust; “unregistered company” has the meaning given by section 245(1) of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018; “voting share” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967 but does not include a treasury share. (2) A reference in this Part to the control of a percentage of the voting power in a designated entity is to the control, whether direct or indirect, of that percentage of the total number of votes that might be cast in — ( a ) a general meeting of the designated entity; or ( b ) in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust — a general meeting of the unitholders of the business trust. (3) In ascertaining a person’s control of the percentage of the total number of votes that might be cast at a general meeting mentioned in subsection (2), the number of votes that the person is entitled to cast at the meeting by reason of having been appointed a proxy or representative to vote at the meeting is to be disregarded. (4) In this Part — ( a ) a reference to the chairperson of a board of directors includes an individual (by whatever name called) acting in that capacity; ( b ) a reference to the business or operations of an entity that is a business trust is to the business or operations (as the case may be) carried on by the trustee-manager of the business trust on behalf of the business trust; and ( c ) a reference to a condition imposed by the Authority includes a condition added or varied by the Authority. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21C
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21C
title: What holding an equity interest means
content:
21C. —(1) In this Part, a person holds an equity interest if the person — ( a ) has or is deemed to have an equity interest in accordance with subsections (2) to (8); or ( b ) otherwise has a legal or equitable interest in that equity interest, except for any interest prescribed under section 45 as an interest that is to be disregarded. (2) Subject to subsection (3), a person has an equity interest if the person has authority (whether formal or informal, or express or implied) to dispose of, or to exercise control over the disposal of, that equity interest. (3) It is immaterial that the authority of a person to dispose of, or to exercise control over the disposal of, the equity interest mentioned in subsection (2) is, or is capable of being made, subject to restraint or restriction. (4) It is immaterial, for the purposes of determining whether a person has an equity interest, that the interest cannot be related to a particular share, an interest or a right that gives its holder voting power, or a unit of a business trust, as the case may be. (5) A person is deemed to have an equity interest if — ( a ) any property held in trust consists of or includes the equity interest; and ( b ) the person knows, or has reasonable grounds for believing, that the person has an interest under that trust. (6) A person is also deemed to have an equity interest if that person — ( a ) has entered into a contract to purchase the equity interest; ( b ) has a right, otherwise than by reason of having an interest under a trust, to have the equity interest transferred to (or to the order of) that person, whether the right is exercisable presently or in the future and whether on the fulfilment of a condition or not; ( c ) has the right to acquire the equity interest under an option, whether the right is exercisable presently or in the future and whether on the fulfilment of a condition or not; or ( d ) is entitled (otherwise than by reason of having been appointed a proxy or representative) to vote at — (i) a general meeting of the designated entity; or (ii) in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust — a general meeting of the unitholders of the business trust, to exercise or control the exercise of a right attached to the equity interest, not being an equity interest in which that person has a legal or equitable interest. (7) A person is not to be deemed as not having an equity interest by reason only that the person has the equity interest jointly with another person. (8) An equity interest is not to be disregarded by reason only of — ( a ) its remoteness; ( b ) the manner in which it arose; or ( c ) the fact that the exercise of a right conferred by the equity interest is, or is capable of being made, subject to restraint or restriction. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21D
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21D
title: Meanings of “associate”, “related corporation”, “subsidiary” and “holding company”
content:
21D. —(1) In this Part, a person ( A ) is an associate of another person ( B ) if — ( a ) A is the spouse, or a parent, step-parent or remoter lineal ancestor, or a son, stepson, daughter, stepdaughter or remoter issue, or a brother or sister, of B ; ( b ) A is a partner of B in a partnership or limited liability partnership; ( c ) A is a corporation of which B is an officer; ( d ) B is a corporation of which A is an officer; ( e ) A and B are officers of the same corporation; ( f ) A is an employee of B ; ( g ) B is an employee of A ; ( h ) A and B are employees of the same employer; ( i ) A is the trustee of a discretionary trust where B (or another person who is an associate of B by virtue of any paragraph, except this paragraph and paragraphs ( j ) and ( r )) benefits, or is capable (whether by exercise of a power of appointment or otherwise) of benefitting, under the trust, either directly or through interposed entities or trusts; ( j ) B is the trustee of a discretionary trust where A (or another person who is an associate of A by virtue of any paragraph, except this paragraph and paragraphs ( i ) and ( r )) benefits, or is capable (whether by exercise of a power of appointment or otherwise) of benefitting, under the trust, either directly or through interposed entities or trusts; ( k ) A is a corporation whose directors are accustomed or under an obligation, whether formal or informal, to act in accordance with the directions, instructions or wishes of B or, where B is a corporation, of the directors of B ; ( l ) B is a corporation whose directors are accustomed or under an obligation, whether formal or informal, to act in accordance with the directions, instructions or wishes of A or, where A is a corporation, of the directors of A ; ( m ) A is a person who is accustomed or under an obligation, whether formal or informal, to act in accordance with the directions, instructions or wishes of B or, where B is a corporation, of the directors of B ; ( n ) B is a person who is accustomed or under an obligation, whether formal or informal, to act in accordance with the directions, instructions or wishes of A or, where A is a corporation, of the directors of A ; ( o ) A is a related corporation of B ; ( p ) A is a corporation in which B , alone or together with other associates of B as described in paragraphs ( b ) to ( o ), is in a position to control at least 20% of the voting power in A ; ( q ) B is a corporation in which A , alone or together with other associates of A as described in paragraphs ( b ) to ( o ), is in a position to control at least 20% of the voting power in B ; ( r ) A is a person with whom B enters, or proposes to enter, into an agreement or arrangement (whether oral or in writing and whether express or implied) that relates to any of the following matters: (i) A and B being in a position, by acting together, to control any of the voting power in a designated entity; (ii) A and B acting together with respect to the acquisition, holding or disposal of equity interests or other interests in a designated entity; (iii) the power of A and B , by acting together, to appoint or remove — (A) a director of a designated entity; or (B) in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust — a director of the trustee-manager of the designated entity; (iv) the situation where one or more of the directors of — (A) a designated entity; or (B) in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust — the trustee-manager of the business trust, are accustomed or under an obligation (whether formal or informal) to act in accordance with the directions, instructions or wishes of A and B acting together; ( s ) A controls more than half of the voting power of a holding company of B ; ( t ) B controls more than half of the voting power of a holding company of A ; or ( u ) A is related to B in such other manner as may be prescribed by regulations made under section 45. (2) A corporation ( A ) and another corporation ( B ) are deemed to be related to each other for the purposes of this section where A is — ( a ) the holding company of B ; ( b ) a subsidiary of B ; or ( c ) a subsidiary of the holding company of B . (3) For the purposes of subsection (2), a corporation ( A ) is, subject to subsection (5), deemed to be a subsidiary of another corporation ( B ) if — ( a ) B controls the composition of the board of directors of A ; ( b ) B controls more than half of the voting power of A ; or ( c ) A is a subsidiary of any corporation which is B ’s subsidiary. (4) For the purposes of subsection (3), the composition of A ’s board of directors is deemed to be controlled by B if B , by the exercise of a power exercisable by it without the consent or concurrence of any other person, can appoint or remove all or a majority of the directors, and for the purposes of this provision, B is deemed to have power to make such an appointment if — ( a ) a person cannot be appointed as a director without the exercise in the person’s favour by B of such a power; or ( b ) a person’s appointment as a director follows necessarily from that person being a director or other officer of B . (5) In determining whether one corporation ( A ) is the subsidiary of another corporation ( B ) — ( a ) any shares held or power exercisable by B in a fiduciary capacity is treated as not held or exercisable by B ; ( b ) subject to paragraphs ( c ) and ( d ), any shares held or power exercisable — (i) by any person as a nominee for B (except where B is concerned only in a fiduciary capacity); or (ii) by, or by a nominee for, a subsidiary of B , not being a subsidiary which is concerned only in a fiduciary capacity, is to be treated as being held or exercisable by B ; ( c ) any shares held or power exercisable by any person by virtue of the provisions of any debentures of A , or of a trust deed for securing any issue of such debentures, is to be disregarded; and ( d ) any shares held or power exercisable by, or by a nominee for, B or its subsidiary (not being held or exercisable as mentioned in paragraph ( c )) is to be treated as not held or exercisable by B if the ordinary business of B or its subsidiary (as the case may be) includes the lending of money and the shares are so held or power is so exercisable by way of security only for the purposes of a transaction entered into in the ordinary course of that business. (6) A reference in this section to the holding company of a corporation is to a corporation of which the last mentioned corporation is a subsidiary. (7) For the purposes of this section, the Depository is not to be regarded as a holding company of a corporation by reason only of the shares it holds in that corporation as a bare trustee. (8) Regulations made under section 45 may provide that any person or class of persons are not associates of another person for the purposes of any provision of this Part. (9) In this section — “Depository” has the meaning given by section 81SF of the Securities and Futures Act 2001; “officer”, in relation to a corporation, means a director or secretary of, or any person employed in an executive capacity by, the corporation. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21E
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21E
title: Designation of designated operating entities and designated equity interest holders
content:
21E. —(1) The Authority may by notification in the Gazette — ( a ) designate an entity that provides any essential transport service in Singapore, or any business trust through which any essential transport service is provided in Singapore, as a designated operating entity; or ( b ) designate an entity that holds any equity interest in a designated operating entity as a designated equity interest holder, if the Authority considers that the designation is necessary in the public interest. (2) The Authority must inform the Minister of the Authority’s decision to designate an entity before publishing the notification under subsection (1) but the failure to do so does not invalidate the designation. (3) The notification under subsection (1) — ( a ) must specify the date on which the designation takes effect; and ( b ) must be published in the Gazette at least 14 days before the date that the designation takes effect. (4) The Authority may by notification in the Gazette cancel a designation at any time. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] Division 2 &#x2014; Control of designated entities


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21F
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21F
title: Notice to Authority by 5% controller of designated entity
content:
21F. —(1) If a person becomes a 5% controller of a designated entity on or after the effective designation date as a result of an increase in the holding of equity interest, or in the voting power controlled, by that person or any associate of that person, that person must within 7 days after becoming the 5% controller give written notice to the Authority of that fact. (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. (3) In any proceedings for a contravention of subsection (1), it is a defence for the accused to prove that the accused — ( a ) was not aware of the contravention when it occurred; and ( b ) notified the Authority of the contravention within a period of 14 days after becoming aware of the contravention. (4) In any proceedings for a contravention of subsection (1), it is also a defence for the accused to prove that, though the accused was aware of the contravention — ( a ) the contravention occurred as a result of an increase in the holding of equity interest, or in the voting power controlled, by any of the associates of the accused, in the designated entity; ( b ) the accused has no agreement or arrangement (whether oral or in writing and whether express or implied) with that associate with respect to the acquisition, holding or disposal of equity interests or other interests, or under which they act together in exercising their voting power, in relation to the designated entity; and ( c ) the accused notified the Authority of the contravention within a period of 7 days after the contravention. (5) Except as provided in subsections (3) and (4), it is not a defence in any proceedings for a contravention of subsection (1) to prove that the accused did not intend to or did not knowingly contravene subsection (1). [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21G
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21G
title:
Approvals of Authority in relation to equity interests and control of voting power in designated entities in certain cases

content:
21G. —(1) Except with the prior written approval of the Authority, a person must not — ( a ) as a result of an increase in the holding of equity interest, or in the voting power controlled, by that person or any associate of that person, become a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of a designated entity on or after the effective designation date; or ( b ) as a result of a decrease in the holding of equity interest, or in the voting power controlled, by that person or any associate of that person, cease to be a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of a designated entity on or after the effective designation date. (2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the transaction through which a person becomes a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller, or ceases to be a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller, is entered into before the effective designation date. (3) A person must not become an indirect controller of a designated entity on or after the effective designation date unless the person has obtained the prior written approval of the Authority. (4) The Authority may approve an application under subsection (1)( a ) or (3) if the Authority is satisfied that — ( a ) the person who is to become a 25% controller, 50% controller, 75% controller or indirect controller of a designated entity and every associate of that person known to the Authority, are fit and proper persons; ( b ) the essential transport services provided by the following (whichever is applicable) will continue to be safe, reliable and efficient: (i) the designated operating entity of which the person is to become a 25% controller, 50% controller, 75% controller or indirect controller; (ii) the trustee-manager of the designated operating entity of which the person is to become a 25% controller, 50% controller, 75% controller or indirect controller; (iii) in the case where the person is to become a 25% controller, 50% controller, 75% controller or indirect controller of a designated equity interest holder — the designated operating entity, or the trustee-manager of the designated operating entity, in relation to which the designated equity interest holder is so designated; ( c ) having regard to the influence of the person mentioned in paragraph ( a ) and every associate of that person known to the Authority, the following requirements are met: (i) if the designated entity is a designated operating entity — the designated operating entity or, if the designated operating entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, will continue to conduct the business of the designated operating entity prudently and comply with the provisions of this Act; (ii) if the designated entity is a designated equity interest holder — (A) the designated operating entity in respect of which the designated equity interest holder is so designated or, if that designated operating entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, will continue to conduct the business of the designated operating entity prudently and comply with the provisions of this Act; and (B) the designated equity interest holder or, if the designated equity interest holder is a business trust, its trustee-manager, will continue to comply with the provisions of this Act; and ( d ) it is in the public interest to do so. (5) The Authority may approve an application under subsection (1)( b ) if the Authority is satisfied that — ( a ) the essential transport services provided by the following (whichever is applicable) will continue to be safe, reliable and efficient: (i) the designated operating entity of which the person is a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller; (ii) the trustee‑manager of the designated operating entity of which the person is a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller; (iii) in the case where the person is a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of a designated equity interest holder — the designated operating entity, or the trustee-manager of the designated operating entity, in relation to which the designated equity interest holder is so designated; ( b ) in the case where the person is a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of a designated operating entity — the designated operating entity or, if the designated operating entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, will continue to conduct the business of the designated operating entity prudently and comply with the provisions of this Act; ( c ) in the case where the person is a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of a designated equity interest holder — (i) the designated operating entity in respect of which the designated equity interest holder is so designated or, if that designated operating entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, will continue to conduct the business of the designated operating entity prudently and comply with the provisions of this Act; and (ii) the designated equity interest holder or, if the designated equity interest holder is a business trust, its trustee-manager, will continue to comply with the provisions of this Act; and ( d ) it is in the public interest to do so. (6) The Authority may — ( a ) grant an approval under this section subject to any conditions that the Authority considers appropriate to impose; and ( b ) at any time add to, vary or revoke any condition so imposed. (7) Any condition imposed by the Authority under subsection (6) has effect despite the provisions of any other written law or anything contained in the memorandum or articles of association, limited liability partnership agreement, partnership contract, trust deed or other constitution of the designated entity in relation to which the application for approval under subsection (1) or (3) is made. (8) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) or (3), or who fails to comply with any condition imposed under subsection (6), shall be guilty of an offence. (9) In any proceedings for a contravention of subsection (1), it is a defence for the accused to prove that — ( a ) the accused was not aware of the contravention when it occurred; ( b ) the accused notified the Authority of the contravention within a period of 14 days after becoming aware of the contravention; and ( c ) if the Authority issued any direction under section 21M relating to the contravention — (i) the accused complied with the direction within the period determined by the Authority under that section; or (ii) the period determined by the Authority under that section for compliance with the direction has not expired. (10) In any proceedings for a contravention of subsection (1), it is also a defence for the accused to prove that even though the accused was aware of the contravention — ( a ) the contravention occurred as a result of an increase or a decrease in the holding of equity interest, or in the voting power controlled, by any of the associates of the accused, in the designated entity; ( b ) the accused has no agreement or arrangement (whether oral or in writing and whether express or implied) with that associate with respect to the acquisition, holding or disposal of equity interests or other interests, or under which they act together in exercising their voting power, in relation to the designated entity; ( c ) the accused notified the Authority of the contravention within a period of 7 days after the contravention; and ( d ) if the Authority issued any direction under section 21M relating to the contravention — (i) the accused complied with the direction within the period determined by the Authority under that section; or (ii) the period determined by the Authority under that section for compliance with the direction has not expired. (11) In any proceedings for a contravention of subsection (3), it is a defence for the accused to prove that — ( a ) the accused was not aware of the contravention when it occurred; ( b ) the accused notified the Authority of the contravention within a period of 14 days after the contravention; and ( c ) if the Authority issued any direction under section 21M relating to the contravention — (i) the accused complied with the direction within the period determined by the Authority under that section; or (ii) the period determined by the Authority under that section for compliance with the direction has not expired. (12) Except as provided in subsections (9), (10) and (11), it is not a defence in any proceedings for a contravention of subsection (1) or (3) to prove that the accused did not intend to or did not knowingly contravene subsection (1) or (3). [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21H
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21H
title:
Appointment and removal of chief executive officer, chairperson, director, etc., of designated entity

content:
21H. —(1) A licensee-designated operating entity must not, on or after the effective designation date, appoint or remove an individual as its chief executive officer, the chairperson of its board of directors or any of its directors, unless the licensee-designated operating entity has obtained the prior written approval of the Authority. (2) Each of following persons must not, on or after the effective designation date, appoint or remove an individual as its chief executive officer, or the chairperson of its board of directors unless the person has obtained the prior written approval of the Authority: ( a ) a non-licensee-designated operating entity or, in the case of a non-licensee-designated operating entity that is a business trust, its trustee-manager; ( b ) a designated equity interest holder or, in the case of a designated equity interest holder that is a business trust, its trustee-manager. (3) A person must not, on or after the effective designation date, be appointed as a manager of, or become a partner in, a limited liability partnership that is a designated entity unless the designated entity has obtained the prior written approval of the Authority. (4) A person must not, or after the effective designation date, become a partner in a partnership that is a designated entity unless the person has obtained the prior written approval of the Authority. (5) The Authority may — ( a ) grant an approval under this section subject to any conditions that the Authority considers appropriate to impose; and ( b ) at any time add to, vary or revoke any condition so imposed. (6) Any person who contravenes subsection (1), (2), (3) or (4), or who fails to comply with any condition imposed under subsection (5), shall be guilty of an offence. (7) This section has effect despite the provisions of any other written law or anything contained in the memorandum or articles of association, limited liability partnership agreement, partnership contract, trust deed or other constitution, of the designated entity or the trustee-manager of the designated entity in relation to which the application for approval under subsection (1), (2), (3) or (4) is made. (8) In this section — ( a ) a reference to a “licensee-designated operating entity” is to a designated operating entity that is also a licensee; and ( b ) a reference to a “non-licensee-designated operating entity” is to a designated operating entity that is not a licensee-designated operating entity. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21I
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21I
title: Acquisition of business of designated operating entity as going concern
content:
21I. —(1) A person must not, on or after the effective designation date, acquire as a going concern, the designated operating entity’s business of providing any essential transport service (or any part of such business) unless — ( a ) the person; and ( b ) the designated operating entity or, if the designated operating entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, have obtained the prior written approval of the Authority. (2) An application for the Authority’s approval under subsection (1) must be — ( a ) made jointly by the persons mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) and ( b ); and ( b ) made in such form and manner as the Authority may specify. (3) The Authority may approve an application under subsection (1) if the Authority is satisfied that — ( a ) the person acquiring the business or part is a fit and proper person; ( b ) after the acquisition, the essential transport service mentioned in subsection (1) will continue to be safe, reliable and efficient; ( c ) in the case where after the acquisition, the designated operating entity continues to carry on part of the business mentioned in subsection (1) — the designated operating entity or, if the designated operating entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, will continue to conduct the business of the designated operating entity prudently and comply with the provisions of this Act; and ( d ) it is in the public interest to do so. (4) The Authority may — ( a ) grant an approval under this section subject to any conditions that the Authority considers appropriate to impose; and ( b ) at any time add to, vary or revoke any condition so imposed. (5) This section has effect despite the provisions of any other written law or anything contained in the memorandum or articles of association, limited liability partnership agreement, partnership contract, deed or other constitution, of the designated operating entity. (6) Any person who contravenes subsection (1), or who fails to comply with any condition imposed under subsection (4), shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21J
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21J
title: Occurrence of certain events
content:
21J. —(1) A designated entity or, in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust, its trustee-manager, must notify the Authority of any of the following agreements at least 14 days before entering into the agreement: ( a ) in the case of a designated entity that is a designated operating entity — an agreement for the outsourcing of a material function performed by the designated operating entity in the provision of any essential transport service; ( b ) any agreement prescribed under section 45. (2) Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to any agreement entered into by a designated entity before the expiry of 14 days after the effective designation date. (3) A designated entity or, in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust, its trustee-manager, must notify the Authority of the occurrence of any of the following events within 7 days after becoming aware of the occurrence: ( a ) in the case of a designated entity that is a designated operating entity — (i) any civil or criminal proceedings (whether in Singapore or elsewhere) instituted against the designated entity or, if the designated entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, that materially impedes or impairs the operations of the designated entity carried out in the course of providing any essential transport service; or (ii) any other event or any irregularity that materially impedes or impairs the operations of the designated entity carried out in the course of providing any essential transport service; ( b ) the designated entity or, if the designated entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, being or becoming, or being likely to become, insolvent; ( c ) the designated entity or, if the designated entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager — (i) being wound up or subject to any receivership or judicial management order; or (ii) entering into a compromise or scheme of arrangement; ( d ) in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust — the business trust being wound up or deregistered or the making of an application for the deregistration of the business trust; ( e ) any other event prescribed under section 45. (4) Subsection (3) does not apply where the designated entity or trustee-manager (as the case may be) becomes aware of the occurrence of the event before the effective designation date. (5) The Authority may, upon receiving a notification under subsection (1) or (3) in relation to an agreement or the occurrence of an event, direct the designated entity or trustee-manager in question to submit to the Authority any information or document relating to the agreement or event within the period specified by the Authority. (6) Any person who — ( a ) contravenes subsection (1) or (3); ( b ) fails to comply with a direction of the Authority under subsection (5); or ( c ) submits any false or misleading information or document in compliance or purported compliance with a direction of the Authority under subsection (5), shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21K
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21K
content:
21K. —(1) If a designated entity or, in the case of a designated entity that is a business trust, its trustee-manager, becomes aware that — ( a ) a person has, on or after the effective designation date, become a 5% controller, 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of the designated entity; ( b ) a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of the designated entity has, on or after the effective designation date, ceased to be a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller (as the case may be) of the designated entity; ( c ) a person has, on or after the effective designation date, become an indirect controller of the designated entity; or ( d ) in a case where the designated entity is a designated operating entity — a person has, on or after the effective designation date, acquired, as a going concern, the designated operating entity’s business of providing any essential transport service (or any part of such business), the designated entity or trustee-manager (as the case may be) must inform the Authority in writing within 7 days after becoming aware of that fact. (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21L
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21L
title: Restrictions on voluntary winding up, etc., of designated operating entities
content:
21L. —(1) Despite any other written law — ( a ) a designated operating entity that is a corporation or limited liability partnership cannot be wound up voluntarily without the consent of the Authority; ( b ) a designated operating entity that is a partnership cannot be dissolved — (i) by a partner giving notice to the other partner or partners (as the case may be) of the partner’s intention to dissolve the partnership; or (ii) by the partners agreeing to dissolve the partnership, without the consent of the Authority; ( c ) a designated operating entity that is a business trust cannot be wound up voluntarily without the consent of the Authority; ( d ) a person must not make any application under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967 or section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to a designated operating entity that is a corporation, unless that person has served 14 days’ notice in writing of that person’s intention to make that application on the Authority; ( e ) no judicial management order under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 may be made in relation to a designated operating entity that is a corporation without the consent of the Authority; ( f ) no interim judicial manager or judicial manager may be appointed under section 94 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in respect of a designated operating entity that is a corporation without the consent of the Authority; ( g ) a person must not take any step to enforce any security over — (i) the property of a designated operating entity; or (ii) in the case of a designated operating entity that is a business trust — the trust property of the trust, unless that person has served 14 days’ notice in writing of that person’s intention to take that step on the Authority; and ( h ) a person must not take any step to execute or enforce any judgment or order of court obtained against a designated operating entity unless that person has served 14 days’ notice in writing of that person’s intention to take that step on the Authority. (2) The Authority must be a party to — ( a ) any proceedings relating to the making of an order under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967 or section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to a designated operating entity that is a corporation; ( b ) any proceedings relating to the making of a judicial management order under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to a designated operating entity that is a corporation; ( c ) any proceedings under the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 relating to the winding up of the affairs of a designated operating entity that is a company or an unregistered company; ( d ) any proceedings under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005 relating to the winding up of the affairs of a designated operating entity that is a limited liability partnership; and ( e ) any proceedings before any court for the dissolution, winding up or termination (as the case may be) of any designated operating entity that is an entity not mentioned in paragraph ( c ) or ( d ). (3) A court must, when deciding any proceedings mentioned in subsection (2), take into consideration any representations made by the Minister in those proceedings. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] Division 3 &#x2014; Remedial directions


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21M
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21M
title: Remedial directions relating to section 21G
content:
21M. —(1) Subsection (2), (3) or (4) applies if — ( a ) the Authority is satisfied that a person (called in this section a defaulter) — (i) has contravened section 21G(1) or (3) or failed to comply with a condition imposed on that person under section 21G(7); or (ii) has provided false or misleading information or documents in connection with an application for approval under section 21G(1) or (3); or ( b ) the Authority would not have granted its approval under section 21G(1) or (3) had it been aware, at the time of approval, of circumstances relevant to a defaulter’s application for such approval. (2) Where the defaulter is a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of the designated entity, the Authority may do any one or more of the following: ( a ) direct the defaulter to take such steps as are necessary, within the period specified by the Authority, to cease to be a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller (as the case may be) of the designated entity; ( b ) direct the transfer or disposal of all or any of the equity interests in the designated entity held by the defaulter or any of the defaulter’s associates (called in this section and section 21N the section 21M(2) equity interests), within such time and subject to such conditions as the Authority considers appropriate; ( c ) restrict or prohibit the transfer or disposal of all or any of the section 21M(2) equity interests, subject to any conditions that the Authority considers appropriate; ( d ) make any other direction that the Authority considers appropriate. (3) Where, as a result of a person (called in this subsection the transferee) acquiring any equity interests from the defaulter who is a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller of the designated entity (called in this section and section 21N the section 21M(3) equity interests), the defaulter ceases to be a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller (as the case may be), the Authority may do one or more of the following: ( a ) direct the transferee to take such steps as are necessary, within the period specified by the Authority, to cease to hold all or any of the section 21M(3) equity interests; ( b ) direct the defaulter to take such steps as are necessary within the period specified by the Authority, to resume being a 25% controller, 50% controller or 75% controller (as the case may be) of the designated entity, as the case may be; ( c ) direct the acquisition, transfer or disposal of all or any of the section 21M(3) equity interests within such time and subject to such conditions as the Authority considers appropriate; ( d ) restrict or prohibit the transfer or disposal of all or any of the section 21M(3) equity interests, subject to any conditions that the Authority considers appropriate; ( e ) make any other direction that the Authority considers appropriate. (4) Where the defaulter is an indirect controller of the designated entity, the Authority may do one or both of the following: ( a ) direct the defaulter, or direct the designated entity or, if the designated entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, to take such steps as are necessary, within the period specified by the Authority, to cease to be such an indirect controller or to cause the defaulter to cease to be such an indirect controller; ( b ) make any other direction that the Authority considers appropriate. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21N
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21N
title: Effect of remedial directions issued under section 21M, etc.
content:
21N. —(1) Any direction issued to a person, and any condition imposed, under section 21M(2) or (3) take effect, despite — ( a ) any other written law; ( b ) anything in any listing rules as defined in section 2(1) of the Securities and Futures Act 2001; and ( c ) the provisions of the memorandum or articles of association, limited liability partnership agreement, partnership contract, trust deed or other constitution of the designated entity in question. (2) Without affecting subsection (1), where any direction is issued under section 21M(2) or (3), then, until the direction is carried out or is suspended or revoked — ( a ) the voting rights in respect of the section 21M(2) equity interests or section 21M(3) equity interests that are subject to the direction are not exercisable, unless the Authority expressly permits those rights to be exercised; ( b ) the voting power that the person to whom the direction is issued controls, whether alone or together with that person’s associates, in the designated entity is not exercisable, unless the Authority expressly permits that power to be exercised; ( c ) no equity interest in the designated entity is to be issued or offered (whether by way of dividends or otherwise) in respect of the section 21M(2) equity interests or section 21M(3) equity interests that are subject to the direction, unless the Authority expressly permits that issue or offer; and ( d ) no amount may be paid (whether by way of profits, income or otherwise) in respect of the section 21M(2) equity interests or section 21M(3) equity interests that are subject to the direction, unless the Authority expressly authorises such payment. (3) Subsection (2)( d ) does not apply in the event of the winding up, dissolution, termination or deregistration of the designated entity. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21O
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21O
title: Remedial directions relating to section 21H
content:
21O. —(1) Subsection (2) applies where — ( a ) an individual has been appointed or removed in contravention of section 21H(1) or (2), or a person has been appointed a manager of or becomes a partner in a designated entity in contravention of section 21H(3) or (4); ( b ) any condition of approval imposed under section 21H(5) has not been complied with; ( c ) any of the following persons has provided false or misleading information or documents to the Authority in connection with an application for approval under section 21H(1), (2), (3) or (4): (i) a designated entity; (ii) the trustee-manager of a designated entity; (iii) the person mentioned in section 21H(4); or ( d ) the Authority would not have granted its approval under section 21H(1), (2), (3) or (4) had it been aware, at the time of approval, of circumstances relevant to a person’s application for such approval. (2) The Authority may issue a direction to the designated entity or trustee-manager in question (as the case may be) to do as follows (whichever is applicable): ( a ) remove the individual as the chief executive officer, the chairperson of the board of directors or a director of the designated entity or trustee-manager, as the case may be; ( b ) reinstate the individual as the chief executive officer, the chairperson of the board of directors or a director of the designated entity or trustee-manager, as the case may be; ( c ) remove the person as a manager of or partner in the designated entity. (3) A direction issued under this section (including a direction varied under section 21Q(2)) has effect despite the provisions of any other written law or anything contained in the memorandum or articles of association, limited liability partnership agreement, partnership contract, trust deed or other constitution, of the designated entity or trustee-manager in question. (4) Nothing in subsection (2) is to be taken as depriving a person who is removed under that subsection of compensation or damages payable to that person in respect of the termination of his or her appointment as the chief executive officer, the chairperson of the board of directors or a director, or the person’s removal as a manager or partner. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21P
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21P
title: Remedial directions relating to section 21I
content:
21P. —(1) Subsection (2) applies where — ( a ) a person has contravened section 21I(1); or ( b ) where the Authority has granted its approval under section 21I(1) — (i) any condition of approval imposed under section 21I(4) has not been complied with; (ii) either of the joint applicants mentioned in section 21I(1)( a ) or ( b ) has provided false or misleading information or documents to the Authority in connection with the person’s application for approval under section 21I(1); or (iii) the Authority would not have granted its approval under section 21I(1) had it been aware, at the time of approval, of circumstances relevant to the application for such approval. (2) The Authority may — ( a ) direct the person who has acquired as a going concern the business or part of the business mentioned in section 21I(1) to transfer or dispose of all or any part of the business within such time and subject to such conditions as the Authority considers appropriate; ( b ) prohibit or restrict the transfer or disposal of all or any part of the business; or ( c ) issue any other direction that the Authority considers appropriate. (3) A direction issued under this section (including a direction varied under section 21Q(2)) has effect despite the provisions of any other written law or anything contained in the memorandum or articles of association, limited liability partnership agreement, partnership contract, trust deed or other constitution, of the designated operating entity in question. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21Q
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21Q
title: Other provisions relating to remedial directions
content:
21Q. —(1) Before issuing any direction to a person under section 21M, 21O or 21P, the Authority must — ( a ) unless the Authority decides that it is not practicable or desirable to do so, give the person written notice of the Authority’s intention to issue the direction and specify a date by which the person may make written representations with regard to the direction; and ( b ) consider every written representation from the person received on or before the specified date mentioned in paragraph ( a ). (2) The Authority may, at any time, revoke, vary or discharge, or suspend the operation of, any direction given by it under section 21M, 21O or 21P. (3) Any person who fails to comply with a direction issued by the Authority under section 21M, 21O or 21P (including a direction that is varied under subsection (2)) within the period specified by the Authority shall be guilty of an offence. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] Division 4 &#x2014; Penalties


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s21R
chapter: PART 3A - CONTROL OF DESIGNATED ENTITIES
section: 21R
title: Penalties under this Part
content:
21R. A person guilty of an offence under this Part shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $5,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 4 - SAFETY OF RAILWAY
section: 22
title: Appointment of inspector
content:
22. —(1) The Minister may in writing appoint any person to be an inspector for the purposes of this Part. (2) The powers conferred by section 23 or by any regulations made under this Act may be exercised by an inspector only — ( a ) for the purpose of ensuring the safety of any railway or any part thereof; or ( b ) when an inspector is directed to do so pursuant to such regulations, for the purpose of investigating an accident on any part of any railway, after the railway or the part in question has commenced operation for public use. (3) An inspector may appoint any persons that the inspector considers necessary to assist him or her in the performance of his or her duties and may in writing authorise any such person to exercise any power conferred on the inspector by section 23 or by any regulations made under this Act for any purpose mentioned in subsection (2). (4) When exercising any power, an inspector or a person authorised under subsection (3) must produce to any person who requests him or her to do so evidence of his or her identity and, in the case of an inspector, of his or her appointment or, in the case of a person so authorised, of his or her authority.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 4 - SAFETY OF RAILWAY
section: 23
title: General powers of inspector
content:
23. —(1) An inspector may — ( a ) at all reasonable times, enter upon premises to which this subsection applies; ( b ) carry out on premises to which this subsection applies, or on any machinery, plant or equipment thereon, any tests and inspections that the inspector considers expedient; ( c ) require any person to whom this subsection applies — (i) to do anything which the inspector reasonably considers to be necessary for facilitating any test or inspection; and (ii) to provide the inspector with any information relating to any railway or any machinery, plant or equipment connected with the railway that the inspector may specify, and to answer any question or produce for inspection any document which is necessary for that purpose; and ( d ) take copies of any document produced to the inspector under paragraph ( c )(ii). (2) Subsection (1) applies to — ( a ) any railway premises and the premises of any contractor or subcontractor who is carrying out or has carried out any work on the railway; and ( b ) any employee of the Authority, any licensee, any employee of any licensee, any contractor or subcontractor mentioned in paragraph ( a ) and any employee of that contractor or subcontractor. (3) Any person who — ( a ) without lawful excuse, fails to comply with a requirement under subsection (1)( c ); ( b ) knowingly furnishes to an inspector or a person authorised under section 22(3) acting under subsection (1)( c ) information that is false or misleading in a material particular; or ( c ) obstructs an inspector or a person authorised under section 22(3) in the exercise of his or her powers under subsection (1), shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s23A
chapter: PART 4 - SAFETY OF RAILWAY
section: 23A
title: Screening, etc., train passengers or entrants to railway premises
content:
23A. —(1) It is a condition of entry to any train or railway premises that a train passenger of the train or an entrant to those premises must, if asked by a police officer or an approved person anywhere in or in the immediate vicinity of the train or railway premises, do one or more of the following for the purpose of ensuring the security or safety of persons who are or may be on board the train or on the railway premises: ( a ) undergo any form of security screening mentioned in subsection (2); ( b ) undergo a frisk search; ( c ) permit an inspection to be made of the personal property of the train passenger or entrant; ( d ) permit a search through any bag, container or other receptacle or any garments removed in accordance with subsection (2). [12/2021] (2) To ensure the security or safety of persons who are or may be on board a train or on any railway premises, a police officer or an approved person may ask a train passenger of the train or an entrant to the railway premises to do one or more of the following: ( a ) walk through a screening detector; ( b ) pass the personal property of the train passenger or entrant through an X‑ray machine; ( c ) allow the police officer or approved person to pass a hand‑held scanner in close proximity to the personal property of the train passenger or entrant; ( d ) allow the police officer or approved person to inspect the personal property of the train passenger or entrant; ( e ) produce or empty the contents of any bag, container or other receptacle in the possession or apparently in the immediate control of the train passenger or entrant; ( f ) turn out the train passenger’s or entrant’s pockets or remove all articles from the train passenger’s or entrant’s clothing, and allow the police officer or approved person to inspect them; ( g ) remove any coat, jacket, gloves, shoes or hat or any other thing worn or carried by the train passenger or entrant, which may be conveniently removed if worn and that is specified by the police officer or approved person, and allow the police officer or approved person to inspect the coat, jacket, gloves, shoes or hat or other thing; ( h ) open an article for inspection and allow the police officer or approved person to inspect it. [12/2021] (3) To ensure the security or safety of persons who are or may be on board a train or on any railway premises, a police officer or a senior approved person may also ask a train passenger of the train or an entrant to the railway premises to do one or more of the following: ( a ) undergo a frisk search; ( b ) allow the police officer or senior approved person to pass a hand‑held scanner in close proximity to the train passenger or entrant. [12/2021] (4) To avoid doubt, a police officer or an approved person may make a request to a train passenger of a train or an entrant to a railway premises to do anything under subsection (2)( d ), ( e ), ( f ), ( g ) or ( h ) if the police officer or approved person (as the case may be) reasonably considers it necessary to make such a request under that provision, whether or not the train passenger or entrant or the personal property of the train passenger or entrant has been subjected to screening or a frisk search under subsection (2)( a ), ( b ) or ( c ) or (3). [12/2021] (5) Without limiting subsection (6), where any train passenger of a train or entrant to any railway premises refuses — ( a ) to permit to be screened or inspected under subsection (2) or (3) by a police officer or an approved person — (i) the personal property of the train passenger or entrant; or (ii) any bag, container or other receptacle in the possession or apparently in the immediate control of the train passenger or entrant; ( b ) to allow a police officer or an approved person under subsection (2) or (3) to pass a hand‑held scanner in close proximity to the train passenger or entrant or personal property of the train passenger or entrant; or ( c ) to undergo a frisk search under subsection (3) by a police officer or a senior approved person, the police officer or approved person (as the case may be) may order the train passenger or entrant (as the case may be) to immediately leave the train or railway premises and with that personal property, bag, container or receptacle, as the case may be. [12/2021] (6) An individual commits an offence if the individual, without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails to comply with any request or order of a police officer or an approved person under subsection (2), (3) or (5). [12/2021] (7) An individual who is guilty of an offence under subsection (6) shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000. [12/2021] (8) However, it is not an offence under subsection (6) for any individual to refuse to comply with any request or order made or given by — ( a ) a police officer who is not in uniform and who fails to declare his or her office; or ( b ) an approved person who fails to declare his or her office and, in the case of an outsourced enforcement officer, who also refuses to produce his or her identification card on demand being made by that individual. [12/2021] (9) In this section — “approved person”, in relation to any train or railway premises, means any of the following individuals who is authorised by the Authority in writing to exercise any power under this section at or in relation to the train or those railway premises: ( a ) an officer or employee of the Authority; ( b ) a member of an auxiliary police force in uniform; ( c ) an employee of a licensee authorised to operate a rapid transit system using that train or railway premises; ( d ) a security officer (within the meaning of the Private Security Industry Act 2007) engaged by a licensee mentioned in paragraph ( c ); ( e ) an outsourced enforcement officer; “entrant”, in relation to any railway premises, means an individual who is about to enter the railway premises, and includes an individual who is within the railway premises, whether or not a train passenger; “frisk search” means a search of an individual conducted by quickly running the hands over the individual’s outer clothing; “hand‑held scanner” means a device that may be passed over or around an individual or an individual’s personal property to detect metal, dangerous objects or explosive or other hazardous substances; “identification card”, in relation to an outsourced enforcement officer, means an identification card issued under section 11(3) of the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995 to the officer; “inspecting an article” includes handling the article, opening it and examining or moving its contents; “personal property”, in relation to an individual, means things carried by the individual or things apparently in the immediate control of the individual, but does not include clothing being worn by the individual; “railway premises” includes a bicycle parking facility or vehicle set down facility adjoining the railway premises; “senior approved person”, in relation to any train or railway premises, means an approved person who is authorised by the Authority in writing to exercise any power under this section at or in relation to the train or railway premises concerned, as follows: ( a ) a member of an auxiliary police force in uniform; ( b ) a security officer (within the meaning of the Private Security Industry Act 2007) engaged by a licensee authorised to operate a rapid transit system using that train or railway premises; ( c ) an outsourced enforcement officer; “train passenger”, in relation to any train, means an individual carried on board the train, and includes — ( a ) an individual boarding or intending to board the train for the purpose of travelling on board the train as a passenger; and ( b ) a driver, fare collector or an inspector while carrying out work or on duty on board the train in that capacity, or intending to board the train for the purpose of carrying out that work or duty. [12/2021]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s23B
chapter: PART 4 - SAFETY OF RAILWAY
section: 23B
title: Obstructing railway premises, etc.
content:
23B. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), a person must not cause or allow any small vehicle, article or thing to remain on — ( a ) any part of the railway premises; or ( b ) any part of a bicycle parking facility or vehicle set down facility adjoining the railway premises, so as to create any obstruction or inconvenience to the passage of the public to, from or within the railway premises. [38/2018] (2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the obstruction or inconvenience is authorised or permitted by or under this Act or any other Act, or arises out of a lawful and reasonable use of the railway premises, bicycle parking facility or vehicle set down facility, as the case may be. [38/2018] (3) Where an approved person finds on any part of any railway premises or a bicycle parking facility or vehicle set down facility adjoining the railway premises, any small vehicle, article or thing which has been abandoned, or deposited or left to remain there in contravention of subsection (1), the approved person may move the small vehicle, article or thing, or cause it to be so removed, so that it is no longer an obstruction or inconvenience to other persons on the railway premises. [38/2018] (4) Subject to subsection (5), an approved person must not exercise a power under subsection (3) unless the approved person has taken reasonable steps to inform the owner of the small vehicle, article or thing (if known) of the approved person’s intention to exercise that power, and allowed or directed the owner to move the small vehicle, article or thing. [38/2018] (5) An approved person may immediately exercise a power under subsection (3) and move a small vehicle, article or thing, or cause it to be so removed, where the small vehicle, article or thing which has been abandoned, or deposited or left to remain in contravention of subsection (1), is causing obstruction or inconvenience to other persons on the railway premises. [38/2018] (6) For the purpose of exercising a power under subsection (3), an approved person may, with any assistance that the approved person considers necessary — ( a ) move the small vehicle, article or thing by any reasonable means (including by towing it) to a holding yard and detain it there at the risk of its owner; and ( b ) use reasonable force, including cutting or breaking open any lock, seal, fastener or other device on or connected to the small vehicle, article or thing, as the case may be. [38/2018] (7) A person must remove any small vehicle, article or thing where directed to do so by an approved person under subsection (4). [38/2018] (8) When a small vehicle, article or thing is moved to a holding yard under this section by an approved person, the approved person must as soon as practicable give to the owner of the small vehicle, article or thing (if known) notice of — ( a ) the move; ( b ) the manner by which and the time within which the owner may procure the release of the small vehicle, article or thing, which includes paying to the Authority all expenses incurred by the Authority, the licensee concerned or an approved person in moving and detaining the small vehicle, article or thing; and ( c ) the consequences that may follow under subsection (10) if the small vehicle, article or thing is not claimed within the time specified in the notice. [38/2018] (9) Without limiting section 37, a notice required under subsection (8) to be given to the owner of a small vehicle, article or thing may be given — ( a ) by affixing it to the small vehicle, article or thing in respect of which it applies; or ( b ) by posting it conspicuously at or near the part of the railway premises or a bicycle parking facility or vehicle set down facility adjoining the railway premises from which the small vehicle, article or thing was removed, if the name and address of the owner of the small vehicle, article or thing are unknown or cannot be ascertained despite reasonable diligence. [38/2018] (10) If the small vehicle, article or thing is not claimed by its owner within the reasonable time specified in the notice mentioned in subsection (8), the Authority may dispose of the small vehicle, article or thing in any manner that the Authority thinks fit (including selling it). [38/2018] (11) A person — ( a ) who contravenes subsection (1) or (7); or ( b ) who, without the authority of an approved person, removes or tampers with any notice required under subsection (8) that has been — (i) affixed to any small vehicle, article or thing under subsection (9)( a ); or (ii) posted at any part of, or at or near the part of, the railway premises or a bicycle parking facility or vehicle set down facility adjoining the railway premises under subsection (9)( b ), shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000. [38/2018] (12) In this section — “approved person”, in relation to any railway premises, means any of the following individuals who is authorised by the Authority in writing to exercise any power under this section at or in relation to those railway premises: ( a ) an officer or employee of the Authority; ( b ) an employee of a licensee; ( c ) an outsourced enforcement officer; “small vehicle” means a bicycle, power-assisted bicycle, personal mobility device, mobility scooter or wheelchair. [38/2018]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 4 - SAFETY OF RAILWAY
section: 24
title: Minister may order defects to be remedied
content:
24. —(1) Where in the Minister’s opinion — ( a ) the condition of any part of any railway which has been brought into operation or of any machinery, plant or equipment of such part; or ( b ) the manner in which any railway or any part thereof is being operated, is such as to cause, or to be likely to cause, a risk of injury to any person, the Minister may, by written order, direct the Authority or a licensee (whichever is the relevant party) or both the Authority and the licensee, to carry out the work, or to take the steps, that the Minister may specify in the order to ensure that the condition of the railway, or of the part of the machinery, plant or equipment in question, or the manner of operation will cease to constitute such a risk. (2) An order under subsection (1) may specify the time before which the Authority or licensee or both (as the case may be) must commence to carry out the specified work or take the specified steps and the time by which the same must be completed. (3) The Authority or licensee which fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with an order made under this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine of $500 for every day during which it is proved to the court that the failure to comply with the order has continued without reasonable excuse. (4) Any copy of a document which purports to be an order signed by the Minister for the purposes of subsection (1) — ( a ) is to be admitted in evidence in proceedings for an offence under subsection (3) on its production without further proof; and ( b ) is evidence of the Minister’s opinion and of the other matters contained therein.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s25
chapter: PART 4 - SAFETY OF RAILWAY
section: 25
title: Offence of wilfully endangering safety
content:
25. Any person who wilfully does or omits to do anything in relation to any railway as a result of which the safety of any person travelling or being upon the railway is endangered, or is likely to be so endangered, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or to both.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s26
chapter: PART 4 - SAFETY OF RAILWAY
section: 26
title: Damage to railway or railway premises
content:
26. Any person who wilfully removes, destroys or damages any railway or railway premises or any part thereof shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $200,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27
chapter: PART 4 - SAFETY OF RAILWAY
section: 27
title: Compensation for damaging railway or railway premises
content:
27. —(1) Any person who removes, destroys or damages, whether wilfully or otherwise, any railway or railway premises or any part thereof shall, in addition to any penalty for which the person is liable for an offence under this Act, be liable to pay compensation for the damage the person has done and the compensation shall be recoverable by civil action or suit before any court of competent jurisdiction. (2) Subject to subsection (1), any court before which a person is charged with an offence under this Act may assess the compensation payable under this section and may make an order for the payment of the same. (3) Any order made under subsection (2) may be enforced as if it were a judgment in a civil action or suit.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27A
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27A
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
27A. —(1) In this Part — “designated operating entity” excludes an entity that is also a licensee; “limited liability partnership” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; “relevant entity” means a licensee or a designated operating entity; “unitholder” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Business Trusts Act 2004; “unregistered company” has the meaning given by section 245(1) of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018. (2) In this Part — ( a ) a reference to the affairs, business, undertaking, operations or activities of a relevant entity that is a business trust is to the affairs, business, undertaking, operations or activities (as the case may be) carried on by the trustee-manager of the business trust on behalf of the business trust; and ( b ) a reference to the obligations of a relevant entity that is a business trust is to the obligations undertaken by the trustee-manager of the business trust on behalf of the business trust. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27B
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27B
title: Meaning and purposes of special administration order
content:
27B. —(1) A special administration order is an order of the Minister made in relation to a relevant entity in accordance with section 27C, directing that during the period the order is in force, the affairs, business and property of that entity are to be managed by a person appointed by the Minister which may be the Authority (called in this Part an appointed person) — ( a ) for securing one or more of the purposes specified in subsection (2); and ( b ) in a manner that protects the interests of the shareholders, unitholders or beneficiaries (as the case may be), and the customers and creditors, of the entity. (2) For the purposes of subsection (1)( a ), the purposes are as follows: ( a ) in the case of a relevant entity that is a licensee — the safety, security and continuity of the provision of railway passenger services and facilities relating to the rapid transit system specified in its licence; ( b ) in the case of a relevant entity that is a designated operating entity — the security and reliability of the business, undertaking or activities of the relevant entity in Singapore relating to the provision of any essential transport service; ( c ) the survival of the relevant entity or the whole or any part of the business or undertaking of the relevant entity, as a going concern; ( d ) the transfer to another person, or (as respects different parts of its business or undertaking) to 2 or more different persons, as a going concern, of so much of the business or undertaking of the relevant entity as is necessary to ensure that the following may be properly carried out: (i) in the case of a relevant entity that is a licensee — the obligations of the entity in relation to its business, undertaking or activities of providing railway passenger services and facilities relating to the rapid transit system specified in its licence; (ii) in the case of a relevant entity that is a designated operating entity — the obligations of the entity in relation to its business, undertaking or activities of providing any essential transport service; and ( e ) the carrying out of the obligations of the relevant entity mentioned in paragraph ( d )(i) or (ii) (whichever is applicable) pending the transfer, as a going concern, of the entity’s business or undertaking mentioned in paragraph ( d )(i) or (ii) (as the case may be) to any other person or persons. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27C
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27C
title: Power to make special administration order and other orders
content:
27C. —(1) If, on an application made to the Minister by the Authority, the Minister is satisfied that any one or more of the grounds specified in subsection (2) are satisfied in relation to a relevant entity, the Minister may make any one or more of the following orders: ( a ) a special administration order in relation to the relevant entity; ( b ) an order requiring — (i) the relevant entity; or (ii) in the case of a relevant entity that is a business trust — the trustee-manager of the business trust, to immediately take any action or to do or not do any act or thing where the Minister considers that the action or the doing or not doing of the act or thing is necessary for — (iii) in the case of a relevant entity that is a licensee — the business, undertaking or activities of the entity of providing railway passenger services and facilities relating to the rapid transit system specified in its licence; or (iv) in the case of a relevant entity that is a designated operating entity — the business, undertaking or activities of the entity of providing any essential transport service by the entity; ( c ) an order appointing a person (called in this Part an advisor) to advise — (i) the relevant entity; or (ii) in the case of a relevant entity that is a business trust — the trustee-manager of the business trust, in the proper conduct of the business, undertaking or activities of the relevant entity mentioned in paragraph ( b )(iii) or (iv), whichever is applicable. (2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the grounds are the following: ( a ) in the case of a relevant entity that is a licensee — (i) there has been, is or is likely to be a contravention by the licensee of the conditions of its licence or this Act that is serious enough to make it inappropriate for the licensee to continue to hold its licence to operate the rapid transit system specified in its licence; or (ii) the Minister considers it to be in the interest of the safety, security and continuity of the provision of railway passenger services relating to the rapid transit system that the entity is licensed to operate; ( b ) the relevant entity is or is likely to be unable to pay its debts; ( c ) the Minister considers it to be in the interest of the security and reliability of the carrying on of the business, undertaking or activities of the relevant entity; ( d ) the Minister considers it to be in the public interest. (3) No special administration order may be made under this Part in relation to a relevant entity that is a designated operating entity before its effective designation date. (4) Notice of any order under subsection (1) must be given immediately by the Minister to such persons and in such manner as may be determined by the Minister. (5) The Minister may make a special administration order in relation to a relevant entity despite the commencement of (as applicable) — ( a ) any proceedings relating to the making of an order under section 210 of the Companies Act 1967 or section 71 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to the relevant entity, being a corporation; ( b ) any proceedings relating to the making of a judicial management order under Part 7 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in relation to the relevant entity, being a corporation; ( c ) any meeting convened under section 94(7) of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 in respect of the relevant entity, being a corporation; ( d ) any proceedings under the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 relating to the winding up of the affairs of the relevant entity, being a company or an unregistered company; ( e ) any proceedings under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005 relating to the winding up of the affairs of the relevant entity, being a limited liability partnership; or ( f ) any proceedings before any court for the dissolution, winding up or termination (as the case may be) of the relevant entity, being an entity not mentioned in paragraph ( d ) or ( e ). (6) For the purposes of this section, a relevant entity is unable to pay its debts if — ( a ) a creditor (by assignment or otherwise) to whom the entity is indebted in a sum exceeding the sum mentioned in section 125(2)( a ) of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018 then due has served on the entity, by leaving at the registered office of the entity, a written demand by the creditor or the creditor’s lawfully authorised agent requiring the entity to pay the sum so due, and the entity has for 3 weeks after the service of the demand neglected to pay the sum, or to secure or compound for it to the reasonable satisfaction of the creditor; ( b ) an enforcement order or other process issued to enforce a judgment, decree or order of any court in favour of a creditor of the entity is returned unsatisfied in whole or in part; or ( c ) it is proved to the satisfaction of the General Division of the High Court that the entity is unable to pay its debts. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27D
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27D
title: Ancillary directions, etc., when special administration order, etc., is made
content:
27D. —(1) A special administration order under this Part may specify that — ( a ) the appointed person has such functions and powers in relation to the operations of the relevant entity as are specified in the order; ( b ) the relevant entity or, if the relevant entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, is to stop providing a specified service or facility from a specified date; and ( c ) the appointed person must have access to, and take control of, the property (including intellectual property), licences and employees used or required by the relevant entity or, if the relevant entity is a business trust, its trustee-manager, for the purposes of carrying on the operations of the relevant entity as are specified in the order. (2) A special administration order under this Part may also contain ancillary directions that may — ( a ) direct how the costs of the operations specified in the order and revenue generated from those operations, are to be dealt with; ( b ) fix the remuneration and expenses to be paid by the relevant entity or trustee-manager to the appointed person; ( c ) specify the period for which the order under this section applies; and ( d ) specify any other conditions that may apply. (3) An order under section 27C(1)( c ) may also contain an ancillary direction that fixes the remuneration and expenses to be paid by the designated operating entity or trustee-manager to the advisor. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27E
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27E
title: Effect of special administration order and other orders
content:
27E. —(1) Any decision of the Minister under section 27C(1) is final. (2) A special administration order operates to the exclusion of rights that are inconsistent with the order. (3) Nothing in Part 3 or 3A applies to prohibit or invalidate any special administration order or other order made under this Part or any transaction entered into to give effect to such an order. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27F
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27F
title: Duties of relevant entity or trustee-manager, etc.
content:
27F. —(1) The relevant entity that is the subject of a special administration order under this Part or, in the case of such a relevant entity that is a business trust, its trustee-manager — ( a ) must facilitate the handover of the operations to the appointed person as specified in the order; ( b ) must not obstruct the appointed person’s access to property or the exercise by the appointed person of the appointed person’s responsibilities under or pursuant to the special administration order; and ( c ) must comply with reasonable directions given by the appointed person in the exercise of the appointed person’s responsibilities under or pursuant to the special administration order. (2) The relevant entity or trustee-manager which fails to comply with subsection (1) or an order under section 27C(1)( b ) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27G
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27G
title: Scheme for transfer of property, rights and liabilities from existing licensee to new licensee
content:
27G. Without limiting sections 27B, 27C and 27D, where a special administration order is made in relation to a relevant entity that is a licensee (called the existing licensee) and it is proposed that, on or after a date appointed in the order, another entity (which may or may not be the appointed person) that is a company (called the new licensee) should operate the rapid transit system that the existing licensee is authorised to operate, in place of the existing licensee — ( a ) the existing licensee, acting with the consent of the new licensee and of any other licensees (in respect of matters affecting them), may make a scheme, in accordance with any prescribed requirements, for the transfer of property, rights and liabilities from the existing licensee to the new licensee; ( b ) any such scheme does not take effect unless it is approved by the Authority; ( c ) the Authority may, with the consent of the new licensee, of the existing licensee and, in respect of matters affecting them, of any other licensees, modify any such scheme before approving it; ( d ) it is the duty of the new licensee, the existing licensee and any other licensees to provide the Authority with all such information and other assistance as the Authority may reasonably require for the purposes of, or in connection with, the exercise of any power conferred under this section; ( e ) the property, rights and liabilities of the existing licensee that are capable of being transferred in accordance with any such scheme include — (i) property, rights and liabilities that would not otherwise be capable of being transferred or assigned by the existing licensee; (ii) such property, rights and liabilities to which the existing licensee may become entitled or subject after the making of the scheme and before the day the special administration order is discharged; (iii) property situated anywhere in Singapore or elsewhere; and (iv) rights and liabilities under the law of Singapore or of any country or territory outside Singapore; ( f ) any such scheme for the transfer of the existing licensee’s property, rights and liabilities may, where appropriate — (i) create for the existing licensee, the new licensee or any other licensees an interest in or right over any property to which the scheme relates; (ii) create new rights and liabilities as between any 2 or more of those licensees; and (iii) provide for a licence held by an existing licensee to have effect as if it had been granted to the new licensee; and ( g ) any such scheme for the transfer of the existing licensee’s property, rights and liabilities has, upon its coming into force, effect in accordance with its provisions and without further assurance, so as to transfer the property, rights and liabilities to which the scheme relates to the new licensee. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27H
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27H
title: Transfer of property, etc., under special administration order
content:
27H. —(1) Without limiting sections 27B, 27C and 27D, a special administration order in relation to a relevant entity that is not a licensee may provide for the following matters: ( a ) the transfer to one or more prescribed transferees (which may or may not be the appointed person) of the following (whichever is applicable): (i) the property, rights and liabilities of the relevant entity; or (ii) in the case of a relevant entity that is a business trust — the property of the business trust, and the rights held and the liabilities incurred by the trustee-manager of the business trust in its capacity as trustee-manager of the business trust; ( b ) matters that are consequential or related to any such transfer. (2) If the Minister makes a special administration order providing for any matter mentioned in subsection (1), the Minister must, by notification in the Gazette , establish a scheme within the following period for determining the amount of any compensation payable by the prescribed transferee to the relevant entity or the trustee-manager or unitholders of the business trust (as the case may be) for the transfer of the property, rights and liabilities: ( a ) 6 months after the date of the making of the special administration order; ( b ) any longer period after the date of the making of the special administration order, as agreed between the prescribed transferee and the relevant entity or trustee-manager. (3) A scheme established under subsection (2) may provide for — ( a ) the manner in which any compensation or consideration is to be assessed, including methods of calculation, valuation dates and matters to be taken into account or disregarded when making valuations; ( b ) the assessment to be made by an independent valuer appointed by the Minister; and ( c ) the remuneration and expenses of the independent valuer. (4) In this section, “prescribed transferee” means the Authority or a person nominated by the Minister. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s27I
chapter: PART 4A - SPECIAL ADMINISTRATION ORDERS AND
section: 27I
title: Regulations for this Part
content:
27I. The Minister may make regulations under section 45 for giving effect to this Part, including — ( a ) regulations for prescribing any requirements of any scheme for a transfer for the purposes of section 27G; ( b ) regulations providing any supplemental, consequential and transitional provisions for the purposes of, or in connection with, a scheme for a transfer mentioned in section 27G; ( c ) regulations governing the transfer of property, rights and liabilities of or in relation to a relevant entity mentioned in section 27H(1)( a ) and matters consequential or related to such transfer; and ( d ) if a special administration order is made, regulations for applying, omitting or modifying the provisions of Parts 7 and 9 of the Insolvency, Restructuring and Dissolution Act 2018. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s28
chapter: PART 5 - APPEALS
section: 28
title: Appeal to Minister
content:
28. —(1) Any licensee aggrieved by any of the following matters may appeal to the Minister: ( a ) any condition imposed by the Authority under section 15(1)( f ) or ( g ) or (2); ( b ) any addition, deletion or modification of the terms or conditions of its licence under section 16; ( c ) any code of practice as issued, approved or modified by the Authority under section 17; ( d ) any direction given by the Authority under section 18 or 18A; ( e ) any decision made by the Authority under section 19(1)( i ), ( j ) or ( k ); ( f ) any confirmed provisional order under section 19A; ( g ) the refusal of the Authority to renew its licence. (2) Any person who is aggrieved by any of the following decisions of the Authority may appeal to the Minister against the decision: ( a ) any decision to designate an entity under section 21E; ( b ) any refusal to grant an approval required under section 21G, 21H or 21I; ( c ) any decision to impose, add to or vary any condition under section 21G, 21H or 21I; ( d ) any decision to issue a direction under section 21M, 21O or 21P or to vary a direction under section 21Q(2). (3) An appeal under this section must be in writing and specify the grounds on which it is made, and be made within the prescribed period after the date of receipt of the notice relating to the matter or decision to which the appeal relates. (4) The Minister may reject an appeal of an appellant who fails to comply with subsection (3). (5) After consideration of an appeal, the Minister may — ( a ) reject the appeal and confirm the Authority’s decision; or ( b ) allow the appeal and substitute or vary the Authority’s decision including, in the case of an appeal by a licensee under subsection (1), by amending any licence condition, code of practice or direction affecting the licensee. (6) The Minister’s decision on an appeal is final. (7) Every appellant must be notified of the Minister’s decision under subsection (5). [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s29
chapter: PART 5 - APPEALS
section: 29
title: Effect of pending appeal to Minister
content:
29. —(1) Except as provided in subsection (2) or section 16(5) or unless the Minister otherwise directs — ( a ) an appeal under section 28 against the Authority’s decision does not affect the operation of any licence term or condition, code of practice, direction, decision or confirmed provisional order being appealed against or prevent the taking of action to implement the licence term or condition, code of practice, direction, decision or confirmed provisional order; and ( b ) the licence term or condition, code of practice, direction, decision or confirmed provisional order appealed against must be complied with by the appellant until the determination of the appeal. (2) If any appeal under section 28(1) is made in relation to a notice under section 19(1)( k ) requiring the payment of a financial penalty and the financial penalty would have been payable before the time when the appeal is determined, it need not be paid until that time. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s30
chapter: PART 5 - APPEALS
section: 30
title: Designation of others to hear appeals
content:
30. The Minister may designate any Minister of State, Senior Minister of State, Parliamentary Secretary or Senior Parliamentary Secretary for his or her Ministry, to hear and determine, in the Minister’s place, any appeals or a specific appeal under section 28; and any reference in that section to the Minister includes a reference to the Minister of State, Senior Minister of State, Parliamentary Secretary or Senior Parliamentary Secretary so designated for that appeal. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025] 31. [ Omitted as spent ] 32. [ Omitted as spent ] 33. [ Omitted as spent ] 34. [ Omitted as spent ] 35. [ Omitted as spent ]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s36
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 36
title: No remedy except under Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995
content:
36. No action, claim or proceedings shall lie or be brought against the Authority or any other person — ( a ) to restrain the doing of anything which is authorised by or under this Act or to compel the doing of anything which may be omitted to be done thereunder; or ( b ) to recover damages, compensation or costs for — (i) damage or disturbance to or loss of or in the value of any land, chattel, trade or business; (ii) personal disturbance or inconvenience; (iii) extinguishment, modification or restriction of rights; or (iv) effecting or complying with any requirement or condition imposed by the Authority, which is authorised by or under this Act or arises from any act or omission so authorised, except pursuant to one of the rights to compensation provided for in the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s36A
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 36A
title: Advisory guidelines
content:
36A. —(1) The Authority may make guidelines with a view to providing guidance or certainty in respect of any one or more of the provisions in this Act. (2) Advisory guidelines, for example, may be made about — ( a ) what amounts to a material function of a designated operating entity for the purposes of section 21J(1)( a ); or ( b ) the relevant principles to consider in determining what amounts to a material impediment to or impairment of the operations of a designated operating entity for the purposes of section 21J(3)( a ). (3) The Authority may make different advisory guidelines under subsection (1) in respect of different persons or entities or different classes of persons or entities. (4) The Authority must — ( a ) give a copy of each advisory guideline it makes to the Minister; and ( b ) publish each advisory guideline (in any way that the Authority thinks fit), send each advisory guideline to each person or entity to whom the guideline applies (by any mode the Authority thinks fit), or both. (5) Despite subsection (4)( b ), the Authority must publish each advisory guideline (in any way that the Authority thinks fit) if the advisory guideline has any effect on the rights of any person or entity other than the person or entity to which the advisory guideline applies. (6) The failure to comply with subsection (4) or (5) in respect of any advisory guidelines does not invalidate the advisory guidelines. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s37
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 37
title: Service of documents
content:
37. —(1) A document that is permitted or required by or under this Act, or any regulations made under this Act, to be served on a person may be served as described in this section. [38/2018] (2) A document may be served on an individual — ( a ) by giving it to the individual personally; ( b ) by sending it by prepaid registered post to the address specified by the individual for the service of documents or, if no address is so specified, the individual’s residential address or business address; ( c ) by leaving it at the individual’s residential address with an adult person apparently residing there, or at the individual’s business address with an adult person apparently employed there; ( d ) by affixing a copy of the document in a conspicuous place at the individual’s residential address or business address; ( e ) by sending it by fax to the fax number given by the individual as the fax number for the service of documents under this Act; ( f ) by sending it by email to the individual’s email address; ( g ) by giving an electronic notice to the individual by the individual’s chosen means of notification, stating that the document is available and how the individual may use the individual’s chosen means of access to access the document’s contents; or ( h ) by any other method authorised by regulations made under section 45 for the service of documents of that kind if the individual consents (expressly or impliedly) to service of a document of that kind in that way. [38/2018] (3) A document may be served on a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership) — ( a ) by giving it to any partner or other like officer of the partnership; ( b ) by leaving it at, or by sending it by prepaid registered post to, the partnership’s business address; ( c ) by sending it by fax to the fax number used at the partnership’s business address; ( d ) by sending it by email to the partnership’s email address; ( e ) by giving an electronic notice to the partnership by the partnership’s chosen means of notification, stating that the document is available and how the partnership may use the partnership’s chosen means of access to access the document’s contents; or ( f ) by any other method authorised by regulations made under section 45 for the service of documents of that kind if the partnership consents (expressly or impliedly) to service of a document of that kind in that way. [38/2018] (4) A document may be served on a body corporate (including a limited liability partnership) or an unincorporated association — ( a ) by giving it to the secretary or other like officer of the body corporate or unincorporated association, or the limited liability partnership’s manager; ( b ) by leaving it at, or by sending it by prepaid registered post to, the body corporate’s or unincorporated association’s registered office or principal office in Singapore; ( c ) by sending it by fax to the fax number used at the body corporate’s or unincorporated association’s registered office or principal office in Singapore; ( d ) by sending it by email to the body corporate’s or unincorporated association’s email address; ( e ) by giving an electronic notice to the body corporate or unincorporated association by the body corporate’s or unincorporated association’s chosen means of notification, stating that the document is available and how the body corporate or unincorporated association (as the case may be) may use its chosen means of access to access the document’s contents; or ( f ) by any other method authorised by regulations made under section 45 for the service of documents of that kind if the body corporate or unincorporated association (as the case may be) consents (expressly or impliedly) to service of a document of that kind in that way. [38/2018] (5) Service of a document on a person under this section takes effect — ( a ) if the document is sent by fax and a notification of successful transmission is received, on the day of the transmission; ( b ) if the document is sent by email, at the time that the email becomes capable of being retrieved by the person; and ( c ) if the document is sent by prepaid registered post, on the second day after the day the document was posted (even if it is returned undelivered). [38/2018] (6) However, service of any document under this Act, or any regulations made under this Act, on a person by email or by an electronic notice at the person’s chosen means of notification may be effected only with the person’s prior consent (express or implied) to service in that way. [38/2018] (7) This section does not apply to documents to be served in proceedings in court for an offence or other matter under this Act or any regulations made under this Act. [38/2018] (8) In this section — “business address” means — ( a ) in the case of an individual, the individual’s usual or last known place of business in Singapore; and ( b ) in the case of a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), the partnership’s principal or last known place of business in Singapore; “chosen means of access”, for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a document permitted or required by this Act, or any regulations made under this Act, means an electronic means the addressee agrees with the person giving or serving the document as the means by which the addressee may access that document’s contents; “chosen means of notification”, for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a document permitted or required by this Act, or any regulations made under this Act, means an electronic means that the addressee nominates to the person giving or serving the document as the means by which the addressee may be notified that such a document has been served on the addressee; “email address” means the last email address given by the addressee concerned as the email address for the service of documents under this Act, or any regulations made under this Act; “residential address” means an individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore. [38/2018]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s38
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 38
title: Certain statements to be conclusive
content:
38. Where it is stated by the Authority in a notice under section 5, 8, 9, 10 or 11 that the entry or the work therein described or required to be carried out is, in the opinion of the Authority, necessary or required for the construction, operation, maintenance or improvement of any railway, then such statement is to be accepted by all courts, tribunals and persons as conclusive evidence of the truth of the fact so stated.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s39
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 39
title: Power to require evidence of identity in certain cases
content:
39. —(1) Any police officer or employee of the Authority who reasonably believes that any person has committed an offence under this Act may require the person to furnish evidence of his or her identity and the person must then furnish such evidence of his or her identity as may be required by the police officer or employee of the Authority. (2) Any person who refuses to furnish any information required of the person by any police officer or any employee of the Authority under subsection (1) or wilfully misstates that information shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $500.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s40
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 40
title: Powers of arrest
content:
40. —(1) A police officer, or any employee of the Authority generally or specially authorised in writing by the Chief Executive of the Authority, may arrest without warrant any person found committing or whom he or she has reason to believe has committed an offence punishable under this Act. (2) A person arrested under subsection (1) must not be detained longer than is necessary for bringing the person before a court unless the order of court for the person’s continued detention is obtained.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s41
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 41
title: Authorised employees of licensee, etc., to exercise certain powers of Authority’s employees
content:
41. —(1) The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, in writing authorise any licensee or employee of a licensee to exercise all or any of the powers of an employee of the Authority under this Act subject to such conditions or limitations as the Authority may specify. [38/2018] (2) This section does not affect the operation of sections 11 and 11A of the Land Transport Authority of Singapore Act 1995, and the authorisation under those sections of outsourced enforcement officers to exercise all or any of the powers of an employee of the Authority under this Act (but not powers under section 23B). [38/2018]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s41A
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 41A
title: Protection from personal liability
content:
41A. No liability shall lie against any member, officer or employee of the Authority or any other person acting under the direction of the Authority for anything done or intended to be done with reasonable care and in good faith in the execution or purported execution of this Act. [38/2018]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s42
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 42
title: Jurisdiction of courts
content:
42. Despite the provisions of any written law to the contrary, a District Court or a Magistrate’s Court has jurisdiction to try any offence under this Act and award the full punishment for such offence.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s43
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 43
title: Offences by bodies corporate, etc.
content:
43. —(1) Where an offence under this Act committed by a body corporate is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer of the body corporate; or ( b ) to be attributable to any neglect on the officer’s part, the officer as well as the body corporate shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (2) Where the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, subsection (1) applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a member in connection with the member’s functions of management as if the member were a director of the body corporate. (3) Where an offence under this Act committed by a partnership is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of a partner; or ( b ) to be attributable to any neglect on the partner’s part, the partner as well as the partnership shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (4) Where an offence under this Act committed by an unincorporated association (other than a partnership) is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer of the unincorporated association or a member of its governing body; or ( b ) to be attributable to any neglect on the part of such an officer or a member, the officer or member as well as the unincorporated association shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (5) In this section — “body corporate” includes a limited liability partnership; “officer” — ( a ) in relation to a body corporate — means any director, partner, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; or ( b ) in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership) — means the president, the secretary, or any member of the committee of the unincorporated association, or any person holding a position analogous to that of president, secretary or member of such a committee and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner. (6) The Minister may make regulations to provide for the application of any provision of this section, with any modifications that the Minister considers appropriate, to any body corporate or unincorporated association formed or recognised under the law of a territory outside Singapore. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s44
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 44
title: Composition of offences
content:
44. —(1) The Chief Executive, or any officer of the Authority who is authorised by the Chief Executive, may compound any offence under this Act which is prescribed as a compoundable offence by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: ( a ) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; ( b ) $5,000. [21/2010] (2) On payment of the sum of money, no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. [21/2010] (3) The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations prescribing the offences which may be compounded. (4) All sums collected under this section must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [25/2020]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s44A
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 44A
title: Power to amend Schedule
content:
44A. The Minister may, by order in the Gazette , amend the Schedule. [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s45
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 45
title: Regulations
content:
45. —(1) The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations for or in respect of every purpose which is considered by the Authority necessary or expedient for carrying out the provisions of this Act. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Authority may make regulations for all or any of the following purposes: ( a ) controlling and regulating — (i) the maintenance and operation of any railway; (ii) the work and conduct of the employees of the Authority; (iii) the conduct of members of the public using a railway or on railway premises; (iv) a system for evidencing (whether by the issue of tickets or otherwise) the payment of fares on a railway and any contract of carriage of passengers thereon; (v) advertising on railway premises; (vi) the custody and disposal of property found on railway premises; and (vii) any activity which may damage a railway or railway premises or may endanger the safety of any person travelling on or upon the railway or railway premises; ( b ) providing for the safety of persons using or engaged in work on any railway; ( c ) prescribing the terms and conditions relating to the use of railway premises; ( d ) protecting the property of the Authority on railway premises; ( da ) [ Deleted by Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025 ] ( e ) reporting to the Authority of accidents on any part of a railway operated by a licensee, and investigating into such accidents; [Act 36 of 2018 wef 01/01/2024] ( f ) prescribing the powers and duties of inspectors appointed for the purposes of Part 4 for the administration and enforcement of that Part; and ( g ) prescribing the fees to be paid in connection with the administration of this Act, and the waiver, reduction or refund of fees charged. [21/2010; 38/2018] (3) In subsection (2)( a )(iii), (v), (vi) and (vii), ( c ) and ( d ), “railway premises” includes a bicycle parking facility or vehicle set down facility adjoining those railway premises. [38/2018] (4) The Authority may, in making any regulations, provide that any contravention of, or failure or neglect to comply with, any regulations shall be an offence and may prescribe the fine with which such offence shall be punishable but so that no such fine shall exceed for any one offence the sum of $5,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, a further sum of $100 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s45A
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 45A
title: Exemption
content:
45A. The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, by order in the Gazette , exempt any person from all or any of the provisions (or any part of any provision) of this Act. [21/2010] [Act 20 of 2024 wef 01/04/2025]


document_id: rtsa-1995
provision_ref: s46
chapter: PART 6 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 46
title: Transitional provisions
content:
46. Any railway set up under the repealed Act is deemed to constitute or form part of a rapid transit system set up under this Act. [47


document_id: rvspa-1960
provision_ref: s2
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act — “road” means any public road or any other road, to which the public has access, and includes bridges over which a road passes; “road vehicle” means any vehicle designed or adapted for use on roads; “scheduled offence” means any offence specified in the Schedule.


document_id: rvspa-1960
provision_ref: s3
section: 3
title: Power to stop and search road vehicles
content:
3. —(1) The person driving, or in control of, any road vehicle in motion must stop the vehicle on being required to do so by any police officer in uniform. (2) If — ( a ) as respects any road vehicle being on any road; or ( b ) upon the overtaking of a road vehicle on any occasion on which the person driving, or in control of, the road vehicle has in accordance with subsection (1) been required to stop but has failed to do so, any police officer may search the vehicle and any person found in the vehicle if the police officer suspects on reasonable grounds that there is to be found in the vehicle any article in respect of which a scheduled offence has been or is being committed, or that the vehicle, or a person in, on or near the vehicle, is the target of a special authorisation given under the Public Order and Safety (Special Powers) Act 2018 or that the vehicle is in an area that is the target of the special authorisation. [26/2018]


document_id: rvspa-1960
provision_ref: s4
section: 4
title: Court to order forfeiture of road vehicle
content:
4. —(1) Where it is proved to the satisfaction of a court that a road vehicle has been used — ( a ) in the commission of a scheduled offence or that any scheduled offence has been committed in respect of the road vehicle or in respect of any article found in the road vehicle or on any person found in the road vehicle; ( b ) to convey persons to the scene where a scheduled offence has been committed; or ( c ) for the escape or to facilitate the escape of any person from the scene of a scheduled offence, and that the road vehicle has been seized by the police, the court is, on the written application of the Attorney-General, to make an order for the forfeiture of the road vehicle, notwithstanding that no person may have been convicted of any scheduled offence. (2) Any police officer may seize any road vehicle liable to forfeiture under the provisions of this Act. (3) An order for the forfeiture or for the release of a road vehicle liable to forfeiture under this section may be made by the court before which the prosecution with regard to the scheduled offence has been held. (4) If there be no prosecution with regard to any scheduled offence, the road vehicle seized under subsection (2) must be forfeited at the expiry of one month from the date of seizure unless a claim to the road vehicle is made before that date. Any person asserting that the person is the owner of that road vehicle may personally or by that person’s agent authorised in writing give written notice to the Commissioner of Police that the person claims the road vehicle. (5) Upon receipt of a notice under subsection (4), the Commissioner of Police may direct that the road vehicle be released or may refer the matter by information to a Magistrate. (6) The Magistrate on receipt of an information under subsection (5) or on the written application of the Attorney‑General, is to hold an inquiry and proceed to the examination of the matter and on proof that the road vehicle was used — ( a ) in the commission of a scheduled offence or that any scheduled offence has been committed in respect of the road vehicle or any article found in the road vehicle or on any person found in the road vehicle; ( b ) to convey persons to the scene where a scheduled offence has been committed; or ( c ) for the escape or to facilitate the escape of any person from the scene of a scheduled offence, is to order the road vehicle to be forfeited or may in the absence of such proof order its release. (7) A person is not, in any proceedings in any court in respect of the seizure of any road vehicle seized in exercise or the purported exercise of any power conferred under this Act, entitled to the costs of the proceedings or to any damages or other relief other than an order for the return of the road vehicle, unless such seizure was made without reasonable or probable cause.


document_id: rvspa-1960
provision_ref: s5
section: 5
title: Duty to furnish particulars of person in control of road vehicle
content:
5. —(1) When it is alleged or suspected that a road vehicle has been used in the commission of a scheduled offence or that any scheduled offence has been committed in respect of any road vehicle or any article found in any road vehicle or on any person found in any road vehicle, or that a road vehicle has been used to convey persons to the scene where a scheduled offence has been committed, or that a road vehicle has been used for the escape or to facilitate the escape of any person from the scene of a scheduled offence — ( a ) the owner of the road vehicle must give any information that may be required by any police officer as to the identity and the address, driving licence number and identity card number of the person who was in control of or driving the road vehicle on any specified occasion; and ( b ) any other person who was or should have been in control of that road vehicle must if required as aforesaid give any information which is in that person’s power to give and which may lead to the identification of the driver. (2) When a special authorisation under the Public Order and Safety (Special Powers) Act 2018 has effect and it is reasonably suspected by a police officer that a road vehicle, or a person in, on or near the vehicle, is the target of the special authorisation or that any dangerous article, offensive weapon or subversive document (within the meaning of that Act) may be found in any road vehicle or on any person found in, on or near the vehicle — ( a ) the owner of the road vehicle must give any information required by the police officer as to the identity and the address, driving licence number and identity card number of the person who was in control of or driving the road vehicle on any specified occasion; and ( b ) any other person who was or should have been in control of that road vehicle must, if required by the police officer, give any information which is in the person’s power to give and which may lead to the identification of the driver. [26/2018] (3) No person shall be held to be guilty of a contravention of subsection (1) or (2) if the person satisfies the court — ( a ) that the person did not know and could not with reasonable diligence have ascertained the information required; or ( b ) that owing to circumstances over which the person had no control, it was impossible for the person to give, before the date on which the person was charged with such contravention, the information required of the person. [26/2018] (4) Notwithstanding anything in any other written law, any information given under this section by any person charged with any offence under this Act or with any scheduled offence may be used in evidence at the hearing of the charge.


document_id: rvspa-1960
provision_ref: s6
section: 6
title: Penalty
content:
6. —(1) Any person who contravenes or fails to comply with the provisions of this Act (except section 5(2)) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [26/2018] (2) Any person who contravenes or fails to comply with section 5(2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. [26/2018]


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s2
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “Assistant Registrar” means an Assistant Registrar of Societies appointed under section 3; “officer” means the president, the secretary and members of the committee of a society and includes persons holding positions analogous to those of president, secretary or member of a committee; [ Deleted by Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024 ] “political association” means a political party and includes any society which the Minister may by order declare to be a political association; [Act 28 of 2021 wef 07/07/2022] “registered address”, in relation to a registered society, means the address of the society that is kept and maintained with the Registrar as the registered address of the society; [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] “registered society” means a society registered or deemed to be registered under this Act; “Registrar” means the Registrar of Societies appointed under section 3; “regulations” means regulations made under this Act; [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] “rules”, in relation to a society, includes — ( a ) the aims and objects for which a society is formed, or which it may pursue, or for which its funds may be applied; ( b ) the qualifications for membership and for the holding of any office; ( c ) the method of appointment or election to any office; ( d ) the rules by which the society is to be governed; and ( e ) the method and manner by and in which any of the above matters may be amended; [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] “society” includes any club, company, partnership or association of 10 or more persons, whatever its nature or object, but does not include — ( a ) any company registered under any written law relating to companies for the time being in force in Singapore; ( b ) any company or association constituted under any written law; ( c ) any limited liability partnership registered under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2005; ( d ) any trade union registered or required to be registered under any written law relating to trade unions for the time being in force in Singapore; ( da ) any platform work association registered or required to be registered under the Platform Workers Act 2024; [Act 30 of 2024 wef 01/11/2024] ( e ) any cooperative society registered as such under any written law; ( f ) any mutual benefit organisation registered as such under any written law relating to mutual benefit organisations for the time being in force in Singapore; ( g ) any company, association or partnership, consisting of not more than 20 persons, formed for the sole purpose of carrying on any lawful business that has for its object the acquisition of gain by the company, association or partnership, or the individual members thereof; ( h ) any class, society or association of foreign insurers carrying on insurance business in Singapore under any foreign insurer scheme established under Part 2A of the Insurance Act 1966; or ( i ) any school or management committee of a school constituted under any law regulating schools for the time being in force in Singapore.


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s3
section: 3
title: Appointment of Registrar and Assistant Registrars
content:
3. The Minister may appoint by name or office a Registrar of Societies and such Assistant Registrars as may be necessary.


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s4
section: 4
title: Registration of specified societies and refusal to register
content:
4. —(1) Subject to this section, the Registrar may, upon the application of a society specified in the Schedule (called in this Act a specified society) and on payment of the fee prescribed for an application under this section, register the society under this section. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (2) The Registrar shall refuse to register a specified society if he is satisfied that — ( a ) the rules of the specified society are insufficient to provide for its proper management and control; ( b ) the specified society is likely to be used for unlawful purposes or for purposes prejudicial to public peace, welfare or good order in Singapore; ( c ) the application for registration does not comply with the provisions of this Act or any regulations made thereunder; ( d ) it would be contrary to Singapore’s national security or interest for the specified society to be registered; or [Act 28 of 2021 wef 07/07/2022] ( e ) in the case of any specified society which is a political association, its rules do not provide for its membership to be confined to citizens of Singapore or it has such affiliation or connection with any organisation outside Singapore as is considered by the Registrar to be contrary to Singapore’s national security or interest. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (3) The Registrar may refuse to register a specified society if — ( a ) he is satisfied that the specified society is a branch of or is affiliated to or connected with any society which has been dissolved under section 24 or under any previous written law relating to societies or which has been previously refused registration; ( b ) a dispute exists among the members of the specified society as to the persons who are to be officers or to hold or to administer any property of the specified society; or ( c ) it appears to him that the name under which the specified society is to be registered — (i) is likely to mislead members of the public as to the true character or purpose of the specified society or so nearly resembles the name of some other society as is likely to deceive the members of the public or members of either society; (ii) is identical to that of any other existing society; or (iii) is in the opinion of the Registrar undesirable. (3A) The Registrar may also refuse to register a specified society under this section unless the rules of the society include such provisions or exclude such provisions (as the case may be) as the Registrar may direct. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (4) Any person aggrieved by the decision of the Registrar under this section may within 30 days from the date of the decision appeal to the Minister whose decision shall be final. (5) The Registrar shall, by notification in the Gazette , publish such particulars as he thinks fit in respect of every specified society registered under this section.


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s4A
section: 4A
title: Registration of societies not specified in Schedule
content:
4A. —(1) A society may apply to be registered under this section if it is not a specified society. (2) An application for registration under this section shall be accompanied by — ( a ) the fee prescribed for an application under this section; [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] ( b ) a copy of the proposed rules of the society; ( c ) a declaration in such form as the Registrar may require as to the object, purpose or activity of the society; and ( d ) such other documents and duly completed forms as the Registrar may require. (3) Upon an application under subsection (1), the Registrar — ( a ) may, subject to subsection (3A), register the society; and ( b ) upon the registration, must inform the applicant — (i) that the society has been registered; and (ii) of the date of the registration of the society. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (3A) The Registrar must refuse to register a society under this section if the Registrar is satisfied that — ( a ) the society is likely to be used for unlawful purposes or for purposes prejudicial to public peace, welfare or good order in Singapore; or ( b ) it would be contrary to Singapore’s national security or interest for the society to be registered. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (4) The Registrar shall, by notification in the Gazette , publish such particulars as he thinks fit in respect of every society registered under this section. (5) Despite subsection (3), where the Registrar considers — ( a ) that any society registered under this section ought to have been registered under section 4 by reason that it is a specified society; and ( b ) that the society qualifies to be registered, and could have been registered, under section 4, the Registrar may determine that the society be treated as being registered under section 4. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (6) Where the Registrar makes a determination under subsection (5) that a society be treated as being registered under section 4 — ( a ) the Registrar must inform the society of the Registrar’s determination; ( b ) the Registrar may recover from the society as a debt due to the Government any difference in the fee mentioned in subsection (2)( a ) and the fee mentioned in section 4(1); and ( c ) the society is deemed to have been registered under section 4 as on the date of its registration. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (7) Any person aggrieved by a decision of the Registrar not to, or to refuse to, register a society under this section may within 30 days after the date of the decision appeal to the Minister whose decision is final. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (8) Nothing in subsection (6)( c ) prevents the Minister from exercising, in respect of any society mentioned in that provision, any power under section 24. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024]


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s5
section: 5
title: Annual registers to be published
content:
5. The Registrar shall as soon as may be after 1 April every year prepare and publish in the Gazette a list of all registered societies.


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s6
section: 6
title: Cessation of existence of society
content:
6. —(1) If the Registrar or an Assistant Registrar has reason to believe that any registered society has ceased to exist, he may publish in the Gazette a notification calling upon the society to furnish him with proof of its existence within 3 months from the date of the notification. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (1A) The Registrar or an Assistant Registrar must send a copy of the notification under subsection (1) to the society — ( a ) by delivery or post to its registered address; or ( b ) by email to the email address given by the society to the Registrar as the email address for the service of documents from the Registrar or Assistant Registrar under this Act. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (2) If at the expiration of the 3 months the Registrar is satisfied that the society has ceased to exist, a notification to that effect shall be published in the Gazette , and the society shall be deemed to have ceased to exist from the date of the publication.


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s7
section: 7
title: Voluntary dissolution of society
content:
7. —(1) Any registered society which proposes to dissolve itself voluntarily in accordance with its rules shall inform the Registrar in writing, and a certificate of dissolution, signed by the president, the secretary and the treasurer or officers of the society holding analogous positions, shall be sent to the Registrar within one week of the society’s dissolution. (2) On receiving the certificate of dissolution, the Registrar shall, if he is satisfied that the society has been dissolved in accordance with its rules, publish a notification in the Gazette declaring that the society has ceased to exist.


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s8
section: 8
title: Inspection and certified copies of documents
content:
8. —(1) Subject to subsection (3), any person may on payment of the prescribed fees inspect any document in the possession of the Registrar or an Assistant Registrar received from any registered society and be supplied with a copy of or an extract from any such document. (2) A copy of or an extract from any such document certified to be a true copy or extract by the Registrar or Assistant Registrar in writing shall be admissible in evidence in any proceedings. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (3) No person shall be allowed to inspect the accounts of a registered society or be supplied with a copy of or an extract from those accounts unless the Registrar is satisfied that the person is a member of the society.


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s9
section: 9
title: Branch of society
content:
9. —(1) No registered society shall establish a branch without the prior approval of the Registrar. (2) The Registrar may refuse to approve the establishment of a branch of the registered society if — ( a ) the rules of the society do not provide for the establishment of a branch of the society; or ( b ) the rules of the branch of the society are such as to make it an independent society not adequately under the control of the society. (3) Where a registered society establishes a branch without the prior approval of the Registrar, the branch so established shall be deemed to be an unlawful society. (4) Any person who is aggrieved by the decision of the Registrar under this section may within 30 days from the date of the decision appeal to the Minister whose decision shall be final.


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s10
section: 10
title: Information to be furnished by societies and persons responsible for supplying information
content:
10. —(1) The Registrar or an Assistant Registrar may at any time by written notice order any registered society to furnish him with any such information as he may require concerning the society (such as but not limited to the patron of the society and every person managing or assisting in the management, of that society in Singapore) or any documents, accounts and books relating to the society. [Act 28 of 2021 wef 07/07/2022] [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (2) The obligations imposed upon a registered society by subsection (1) shall be binding upon every officer, and upon every person managing or assisting in the management, of that society in Singapore. (3) If any registered society fails to comply with the whole or part of any order given under this section, each of the persons mentioned in subsection (2) who has been served with the order shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 unless he establishes to the satisfaction of the court that he has exercised due diligence and has failed to comply with the order for reasons beyond his control. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (4) A person who, in response to any order mentioned in subsection (1) — ( a ) intentionally alters, suppresses or destroys — (i) any information concerning a registered society; or (ii) any document, account or book of a registered society, that is required under the order to be furnished to the Registrar or Assistant Registrar; or ( b ) in providing any document, account or book of a registered society, makes any statement which the person knows or ought reasonably to know is, or is reckless as to whether it is, false or misleading in a material particular, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024]


document_id: sa-1966
provision_ref: s11
section: 11
title: Change of name and rules of society
content:
11. —(1) No registered society shall — ( a ) change its name; or [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] ( b ) amend its rules, without the prior approval in writing of the Registrar or an Assistant Registrar. (1A) Without limiting subsection (1), the grounds on which the Registrar or an Assistant Registrar may refuse to approve a change by a registered society of its name include where it appears to the Registrar or Assistant Registrar that the name to which the registered society is to be changed — ( a ) is likely to mislead members of the public as to the true character or purpose of the registered society or so nearly resembles the name of some other society as is likely to deceive the members of the public or members of either society; ( b ) is undesirable or offensive; ( c ) is identical to that of any other existing society; or ( d ) is likely to give the impression that the registered society is connected in some way with the Government or a public authority, or with any other body of persons or any individual, when it is not so connected. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (1B) Without limiting subsection (1), the grounds on which the Registrar or an Assistant Registrar may refuse to approve an amendment by a registered society of its rules include where it appears to the Registrar or Assistant Registrar that the amendment of the rules would be — ( a ) contrary to Singapore’s national security or interest; ( b ) prejudicial to public peace, welfare or good order in Singapore; or ( c ) contrary to the provisions of this Act or any regulations. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (2) If a registered society fails to comply with the requirement of subsection (1), the society and every officer of the society shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $6,000. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (3) For the purposes of this section, “amend” includes making a new rule and rescinding an existing rule. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] (4) Any person aggrieved by the refusal of the Registrar or an Assistant Registrar to approve the change of name of a registered society or to amend its rules may within 30 days from the date of the decision appeal to the Minister whose decision shall be final. [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024] [Act 34 of 2023 wef 02/05/2024]


