# legal_provisions

document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s110C
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 110C
title:
Authority may suspend or cancel international market agent licence or international market agent representative licence in public interest

content:
110C. —(1) Despite any provision of this Act or the regulations made under section 110B, in any case where it appears to be necessary to the Authority to prevent any threat to the security of the public or of casino operations, the Authority may — ( a ) suspend the licensed international market agent or licensed international market agent representative concerned, pending the conclusion of any investigation or disciplinary proceedings against that licensed international market agent or licensed international market agent representative; or ( b ) if the Authority thinks it necessary in the public interest that the licensed international market agent or licensed international market agent representative concerned should immediately cease to perform any function in relation to any casino marketing arrangement, cancel the licence of that international market agent or international market agent representative. [36/2012] (2) Any — ( a ) international market agent who is aggrieved by any suspension or cancellation of his, her or its international market agent licence under subsection (1); or ( b ) international market agent representative who is aggrieved by any suspension or cancellation of his or her international market agent representative licence under subsection (1) or by virtue of subsection (4), may, within 10 days after the licence is suspended or cancelled, make representations in writing to the Authority and the Authority, after considering such representations, may confirm, vary or reverse its decision. [36/2012] (3) The suspension or cancellation under subsection (1) and, where applicable, subsection (4) takes effect even though a representation under subsection (2) is pending, until the expiry of the period of suspension or the reversal of the decision of the Authority, if any. [36/2012] (4) If the licence of any international market agent is suspended or cancelled under this section, the licence of every international market agent representative employed by that international market agent is also suspended for the same period or cancelled, as the case may be. [36/2012] Division 3 &#x2014; Disputes between casino operator and patron


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s111
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 111
title: Resolution of dispute as to winnings, losses or manner in which game conducted
content:
111. —(1) Where a casino operator and a patron of the casino are unable to resolve to the satisfaction of the patron any dispute as to alleged winnings, alleged losses or the manner in which a game is conducted, the casino operator must — ( a ) immediately notify an inspector of the dispute; and ( b ) inform the patron of his or her right to request that an inspector conduct an investigation into the dispute. [36/2012] (2) A patron who wishes to request an inspector to conduct an investigation into the dispute must, not later than 7 days after the date the patron is informed under subsection (1) of his or her right, make the request to an inspector in such form as the Authority may specify. [36/2012] (3) An inspector may refuse to consider any patron’s request under subsection (2) for investigation that is incomplete or is made after the period delimited for such requests under subsection (2), unless the inspector is satisfied that there were good reasons for the delay or incompleteness. [36/2012] (4) An inspector who receives a request for investigation into a dispute under subsection (2) must conduct such investigations as the inspector thinks necessary and must determine whether payment should be made. [36/2012] (5) Failure of a casino operator to notify an inspector or inform the patron as provided in subsection (1) is grounds for disciplinary action.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s112
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 112
title: Reconsideration of inspector’s decision
content:
112. —(1) Any party aggrieved by the decision of an inspector under section 111 may, in the prescribed manner and within the prescribed time, appeal to the Authority to reconsider the inspector’s decision. [30/2008] (2) The appeal must set forth the basis of the request for reconsideration. (3) If no appeal for reconsideration is made within the time prescribed, the inspector’s decision is deemed to be final and is not subject to reconsideration by the Authority. (4) The Authority must appoint a committee to reconsider the inspector’s decision. [30/2008] (5) The party seeking reconsideration bears the burden of showing that the inspector’s decision should be reversed or modified. (6) The committee appointed under subsection (4) must be independent of the Authority and may regulate its own procedure. (7) After considering the matter before it, the committee may confirm, vary or reverse the inspector’s decision. [30/2008] (8) The decision by the committee must be in writing and must be served on the casino operator and the patron concerned.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s113
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 113
title: Payment of claim after decision
content:
113. —(1) Unless otherwise allowed by the Authority, the person ordered to make payment to the other party must do so within 30 days of — ( a ) the decision of the committee under section 112; or ( b ) where an appeal was made under section 114, the decision of the Authority under that section. [36/2012] (2) Failure of a casino operator to pay within the time specified in subsection (1) is grounds for disciplinary action.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s114
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 114
title: Appeal to Authority
content:
114. A person who is aggrieved by a decision made against the person by the committee under section 112 may, within 30 days of being notified of the decision of the committee, appeal to the Authority whose decision is final. Division 4 &#x2014; Entry to casino premises


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s115
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 115
title: Right of entry to casino premises
content:
115. Except as provided by this Act, a person enters and remains on any casino premises only by the licence of the casino operator. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s116
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 116
title: Entry levy
content:
116. —(1) Subject to subsection (3), a casino operator must not allow any person who is a citizen of Singapore or permanent resident of Singapore to enter or remain on the casino premises at any time on any day unless the person has paid to the casino operator an entry levy of — ( a ) $150 for every consecutive period of 24 hours; or [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( b ) $3,000 for a valid annual membership of the casino. [4/2010] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] [Act 31 of 2023 wef 31/12/2024] (2) All entry levies collected by a casino operator under subsection (1) must be paid to the Singapore Totalisator Board within the prescribed time and must be used by that Board for public, social or charitable purposes in Singapore. (3) A casino operator must not refund, remit or reimburse, directly or indirectly, any entry levy paid or payable by any person under subsection (1), unless directed to do so under section 117(4). [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (4) The Minister may, by order in the Gazette , vary the entry levies specified in subsection (1), and any reference in this Act or any other written law to an entry levy specified in subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ) is a reference to the entry levy so varied. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (5) Subject to the condition in subsection (6), this section does not apply to — ( a ) any casino employee; ( b ) any inspector, police officer, officer of the Central Narcotics Bureau or Corrupt Practices Investigation Bureau, civil defence officer, officer of the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore or employee of the Authority acting in the discharge of his or her duties; ( c ) any member, secretary or officer of the evaluation panel appointed under section 45A acting in the discharge of his or her duties; ( d ) any member, secretary or officer of the Council acting in the discharge of his or her duties; and ( e ) such other person or class of persons as may be prescribed. [36/2012] (6) Any person who enters and remains on any casino premises without paying an entry levy by virtue of subsection (5) does so on the condition that the person must not participate in any game while he or she is on the casino premises, and if he or she contravenes such condition, he or she shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to be punished as if the offence charged were an offence under subsection (7). [36/2012] (7) Subject to subsection (5), any citizen of Singapore or permanent resident of Singapore who enters any casino premises without paying the entry levy specified in subsection (1) is guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000, and shall also be liable for the amount of the entry levy specified in subsection (1)( a ). [Act 31 of 2023 wef 31/12/2024] (8) Subject to subsection (5), any citizen of Singapore or permanent resident of Singapore who attempts to enter any casino premises without paying the entry levy specified in subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000. [36/2012] [Act 31 of 2023 wef 31/12/2024] (9) If any citizen of Singapore or permanent resident of Singapore, other than an individual under subsection (5), upon the expiry of the period in respect of which he or she has paid an entry levy specified in subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ) — ( a ) remains on the casino premises for any further period thereafter (called in this section the over‑stay period); and ( b ) fails to pay the entry levy required under subsection (1) in respect of the over‑stay period before he or she leaves the casino premises, he or she shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000, and shall also be liable for the amount of the entry levy specified in subsection (1)( a ) in respect of the overstay period. [36/2012] [Act 31 of 2023 wef 31/12/2024] (10) Any casino operator who contravenes subsection (1), (2) or (3) shall be liable to disciplinary action. (11) Section 147 applies in relation to late payment of the entry levy as it applies to the casino tax, and the reference to casino tax in that section is to be read as a reference to the entry levy. (12) [ Deleted by Act 31 of 2023 wef 31/12/2024 ]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s117
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 117
title: Supplementary provisions relating to entry levy
content:
117. —(1) The entry levy payable under section 116(1) must be levied, paid and collected at such time, in such manner and subject to such conditions as may be prescribed. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (2) The Chief Executive may require a casino operator to lodge with the Authority such security as the Chief Executive may consider appropriate for the payment of entry levies. (3) Entry levies are recoverable from a casino operator or from any person liable to pay the entry levy as a civil debt due to the Singapore Totalisator Board. [4/2010; 36/2012] (4) It is lawful for the Chief Executive, if it is proved to his or her satisfaction that any money has been overpaid as entry levy under this Act, to direct the refund of the money so overpaid, such refund to be paid from entry levies collected under section 116(1). (5) No refund under subsection (4) is allowed unless a claim in respect of the overpayment is made within 6 months of the overpayment. (6) Where for any reason the entry levy payable under section 116(1) has not been paid, or has been short paid, or the whole or any part of the entry levy, after having been paid, has, owing to any cause, been erroneously refunded, the person liable to pay such levy, or the person to whom the refund has been erroneously made (as the case may be), must pay the entry levy not paid or short paid, or the amount erroneously refunded to the person, on demand being made by the Chief Executive, without prejudice to any other remedy for the recovery of the amount unpaid or erroneously refunded. [36/2012] (7) For the purposes of this section and section 116, every casino operator is liable for every act, omission, neglect or default of any agent of the casino operator or casino employee, as fully and effectually as if the act, omission, neglect or default were done or committed by the casino operator. [36/2012] (8) Nothing in subsection (7) affects any liability of the agent of the casino operator or casino employee by the operation of any other law. [36/2012] (9) In this section, “Chief Executive” includes an authorised person appointed for the purposes of this section. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s118
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 118
title: Entry of inspector to casino premises
content:
118. —(1) An inspector may, at any time, enter and remain on any casino premises for the purposes of exercising his or her functions as an inspector under this Act, including but not limited to — ( a ) observing any of the operations of the casino; ( b ) ascertaining whether the operations of the casino are being properly conducted, supervised and managed; ( c ) ascertaining whether the provisions of this Act are being complied with; and ( d ) in any other respect, exercising the inspector’s functions under this Act. (2) An inspector who enters premises under this section is not authorised to remain on the premises if, on the request of the occupier of the premises, the inspector does not show his or her identification card to the occupier.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s119
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 119
title: Entry of police officer, etc., to casino premises
content:
119. Any police officer, officer of the Central Narcotics Bureau or Corrupt Practices Investigation Bureau or civil defence officer may enter any casino premises, including any part to which the public does not have access, and may remain there for the purpose of discharging his or her duty as a police officer, officer of the Central Narcotics Bureau or Corrupt Practices Investigation Bureau or civil defence officer, as the case may be. 120. [ Repealed by Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022 ]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s121
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 121
title: Exclusion orders by Authority
content:
121. —(1) The Authority may, by an exclusion order given to a person in writing, prohibit the person from entering or remaining on any casino premises in such circumstances as the order may specify. [36/2012] [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (2) The Authority may at any time revoke an exclusion order made under subsection (1). [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (3) As soon as practicable after the Authority gives an exclusion order under this section, the Authority must notify each casino operator and the Council of that order. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s122
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 122
title: Exclusion orders by Commissioner of Police
content:
122. —(1) The Commissioner of Police may, by a written exclusion order given to a person, prohibit the person from entering or remaining on any casino premises in such circumstances as the order may specify. [36/2012] (1A) The Commissioner of Police may at any time revoke an exclusion order made under subsection (1). [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (2) As soon as practicable after making an exclusion order, the Commissioner of Police must notify each casino operator, the Council and the Authority of that order. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (3) A person who has been given an exclusion order under this section may appeal to the Minister whose decision is final. (4) However, no appeal may be made to the Minister under subsection (3) unless the person who has been given an exclusion order under this section first applies to the Commissioner of Police to reconsider the making of the exclusion order and the Commissioner of Police refuses to revoke the exclusion order in whole or in part. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (5) An application for reconsideration under subsection (4) and an appeal under subsection (3) must be made within the time and manner prescribed by the Minister in rules published in the Gazette . [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (6) In this section and sections 123 and 168(3)( b ), a reference to the “Commissioner of Police” includes a reference to a public officer who — ( a ) holds a post in a law enforcement agency within the meaning of section 186(6); and ( b ) is designated by the Minister for the purposes of this section and sections 123 and 168(3)( b ). [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s123
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 123
title: Duration of exclusion orders
content:
123. —(1) An exclusion order made under section 121 or 122 remains in force in respect of a person unless and until it lapses or is revoked by the person who gave the order or by the Minister, on appeal. [36/2012] (2) When an exclusion order is revoked by the Commissioner of Police or the Minister, the Commissioner of Police must notify each casino operator, the Council and the Authority of the revocation. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (3) When an exclusion order is revoked by the Authority or the Minister, the Authority must give notice of the revocation to each casino operator and the Council as soon as practicable after it occurs. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] 124. [ Repealed by Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022 ]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s125
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 125
title: Excluded person not to enter casino premises
content:
125. —(1) An excluded person must not enter or remain, or take part in any gaming, on any casino premises. (2) Any person who is — ( a ) subject to an exclusion order made under section 121, 122 or 165(1), a family exclusion order made under section 162, a provisional family exclusion order made under section 164, or excluded under section 165A(3); or [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( b ) excluded under section 165D by reason of having made the maximum number of visits to any casino for the month as specified by a visit limit made against the person under section 165(1), and who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s126
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 126
title: Casino operator to bar excluded persons from casino premises
content:
126. —(1) A casino operator must not, without reasonable excuse, permit an excluded person to enter or remain on the casino premises. [36/2012] (2) A casino operator must close every deposit account of a person with the casino operator — ( a ) [ Deleted by Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022 ] ( b ) upon being notified under section 121(3) or 122(2) that the person has been given an exclusion order under section 121 or 122, as the case may be; or ( c ) upon being given an order under section 163(2)( d ) in respect of the person. [36/2012] (3) A casino operator which fails to comply with subsection (1) or (2) shall be liable to disciplinary action. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s127
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 127
title: Removal of excluded persons from casino premises
content:
127. —(1) This section applies to the following persons on any casino premises: ( a ) the person for the time being in charge of the casino; ( b ) an agent of the casino operator; ( c ) a casino employee. (2) A person to whom this section applies who knows that an excluded person is about to enter or is on the casino premises must — ( a ) notify an inspector as soon as practicable; and ( b ) using no more force than is reasonably necessary — (i) prevent the excluded person from entering the casino premises; or (ii) remove such a person from the casino premises or cause such a person to be removed from the casino premises. (3) Any person who fails to comply with subsection (2) shall be — ( a ) liable to disciplinary action, in the case of a casino operator or a licensed special employee; or ( b ) guilty of an offence, in any other case.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s128
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 128
title: Forfeiture of winnings
content:
128. —(1) This section applies to any person who is — ( a ) subject to an exclusion order under section 121 or 122; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( b ) subject to a family exclusion order, provisional family exclusion order or exclusion order under Part 10 or excluded under section 165A; or ( c ) a minor (as defined in section 130). [36/2012] (2) If a person to whom this section applies enters or remains on any casino premises in contravention of this Act, all winnings (including linked jackpots) paid or payable to the person in respect of gaming on gaming machines or playing any game approved under section 100 in the casino are forfeited to the Consolidated Fund. (3) If winnings referred to in subsection (2) comprise or include a non‑monetary prize, the casino operator must pay the value of that prize to the Consolidated Fund. (4) In determining the value of a non-monetary prize for the purposes of subsection (3), any amount of goods and services tax payable in respect of the supply to which the prize relates is to be taken into account. (5) The amount of winnings to be forfeited under this section must be investigated and determined by an inspector or an authorised person whose decision is final. [36/2012] (6) Where an inspector or authorised person investigating the amount of winnings under subsection (5) reasonably believes that the winnings of a person to whom this section applies are in that person’s clothing or personal effects, the inspector or authorised person may — ( a ) search the clothing, baggage or other personal effects of that person, and seize any money or chips found on that person or in that person’s clothing, baggage or personal effects, as the case may be; and ( b ) apply any money or chips so found towards the payment of the amount of winnings determined under subsection (5) to be forfeited, and the surplus (if any) to be returned to that person. [36/2012] (7) Nothing in subsection (6) authorises any inspector or authorised person to remove, or require a person to remove, any of the person’s clothing, and a search of a person’s clothing being worn by the person may only be done by an inspector or authorised person of the same sex as the person. [36/2012] Division 5 &#x2014; Prohibited acts within casino premises


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s129
chapter: PART 6 - CASINO OPERATIONS
section: 129
title: Conduct within casino premises
content:
129. —(1) A casino operator must take all appropriate steps to ensure that the following acts are not committed by its employees, patrons or other persons within the casino premises: ( a ) soliciting for the purpose of prostitution or for any other immoral purpose; ( b ) unlicensed moneylending or related activities; ( c ) drunken, disorderly or riotous behaviour; ( d ) illegal betting or gaming activities; ( e ) activities related to the organisation or conduct of casino marketing arrangements by persons who are neither licensed international market agents nor licensed international market agent representatives. [36/2012] (2) Any casino operator who contravenes subsection (1) shall be liable to disciplinary action.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s130
chapter: PART 7 - MINORS
section: 130
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
130. In this Part — “acceptable proof of age” for a person means — ( a ) documentary evidence that might reasonably be accepted as applying to the person and as proving that the person is at least 21 years of age; or ( b ) evidence that the Authority has declared by written notice given to a casino operator to be acceptable evidence in relation to the operation of the casino that a person is at least 21 years of age; “minor” means a person who is below 21 years of age. 131. [ Repealed by Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024 ]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s132
chapter: PART 7 - MINORS
section: 132
title: Minors not to enter casino premises
content:
132. —(1) A minor must not enter or remain, or take part in any gaming, on any casino premises. (2) Any minor who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,500. [36/2012] [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s133
chapter: PART 7 - MINORS
section: 133
title: Casino operator to bar minors from casino premises
content:
133. —(1) A casino operator must not, without reasonable excuse, permit a minor to enter or remain on the casino premises. (2) If a minor is on the casino premises, the casino operator must immediately notify an inspector. (3) Any casino operator who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) shall be liable to disciplinary action. (4) It is lawful for the person for the time being in charge of a casino, an agent of the casino operator or a casino employee to remove the minor or cause the minor to be removed from the casino premises, using no more force than is reasonably necessary. (5) It is a defence to disciplinary action for a contravention of subsection (1) or (2) if it is proved that — ( a ) the minor was 16 years of age or above; and ( b ) before the minor entered the casino premises or while the minor was on the casino premises there was produced to the casino operator, or to an agent or employee of the casino operator, acceptable proof of age for the minor.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s134
chapter: PART 7 - MINORS
section: 134
title: Entry of minors to be prevented
content:
134. —(1) If a casino operator or a casino employee is aware that a person who may reasonably be suspected of being a minor is attempting to enter the casino premises, the casino operator or casino employee must refuse the person entry to the casino premises. (2) The casino operator or casino employee is not required to refuse the person entry if there is produced to the casino operator or casino employee acceptable proof of age for the person. (3) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be — ( a ) liable to disciplinary action, in the case of a casino operator or a licensed special employee; or ( b ) guilty of an offence, in any other case.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s135
chapter: PART 7 - MINORS
section: 135
title: Proof of age may be required
content:
135. —(1) The person for the time being in charge of a casino, an agent of the casino operator, a casino employee, an inspector or a police officer may if he or she has reasonable cause to suspect that a person on the casino premises is a minor — ( a ) require the person on the casino premises to state his or her correct age, name and address; and ( b ) if it is suspected on reasonable grounds that the age, name or address given in response to the requirement is false, require the person to produce evidence of its correctness. (2) A person who — ( a ) fails to comply with a requirement under subsection (1)( a ); or ( b ) without reasonable cause, fails to comply with a requirement under subsection (1)( b ), shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s136
chapter: PART 7 - MINORS
section: 136
title: Minor using false evidence of age
content:
136. A minor who uses any evidence purporting to be evidence of his or her age in order to obtain entry to or remain on any casino premises, being evidence which is false in relation to the minor, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] 137. [ Repealed by Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024 ]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s138
chapter: PART 8 - CASINO INTERNAL CONTROLS
section: 138
title: Approved system of controls to be implemented
content:
138. —(1) A casino operator must establish and implement a system of internal controls for the casino operations which satisfies the prescribed internal controls requirements. [36/2012] (2) The Authority may require a casino operator to submit any part of the casino operator’s system of internal controls for approval by the Authority. [36/2012] (3) Any approved internal controls must remain in force until amended or substituted with the approval of the Authority. [36/2012] (4) The casino operator must ensure that the system of internal controls or part thereof approved for the time being under this section for the casino is implemented. [36/2012] (5) Any casino operator who fails to comply with subsection (1) or (4) shall be liable to disciplinary action.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s139
chapter: PART 8 - CASINO INTERNAL CONTROLS
section: 139
title:
Customer due diligence measures to combat money laundering, terrorism financing and financing of proliferation of weapons of mass destruction

content:
139. —(1) A casino operator must, in the following circumstances, perform such customer due diligence measures to detect or prevent money laundering, terrorism financing and the financing of proliferation of weapons of mass destruction, as may be prescribed in regulations: ( a ) when the casino operator opens a patron account; ( b ) when the casino operator enters into a cash transaction with a patron involving $4,000 or more in a single transaction; [Act 24 of 2024 wef 14/11/2024] ( c ) when the casino operator receives a sum of $4,000 or more in a single transaction to be deposited in a deposit account; [Act 24 of 2024 wef 14/11/2024] ( d ) when the casino operator has a reasonable suspicion that a patron is engaged in any money laundering, terrorism financing or the financing of proliferation of weapons of mass destruction; [Act 24 of 2024 wef 14/11/2024] ( e ) when the casino operator has doubts about the veracity or adequacy of any information previously obtained about a patron; ( f ) when carrying out such other activities, or under such other circumstance, as may be prescribed. [4/2014] [Act 24 of 2024 wef 14/11/2024] (2) A casino operator must not proceed with the opening of any patron account or with any transaction for any patron account, or with any cash transaction or deposit, as the case may be — ( a ) if the casino operator is unable to complete the applicable customer due diligence measures for any reason; ( b ) if the patron in question is unable or unwilling to provide any information requested by the casino operator, or decides to withdraw the application for the opening of the patron account or withdraw the cash transaction or deposit when requested to provide information; or ( c ) under such other circumstances as may be prescribed. [4/2014] (3) A casino operator must keep all records obtained through the customer due diligence measures taken under subsection (1), including (but not limited to) all copies or records of any identification document, accounts and business correspondence, as well as the results of any analysis undertaken. [4/2014] (4) Any casino operator which fails to comply with subsection (1), (2) or (3) shall be liable to disciplinary action. [4/2014] (5) In this section — “cash” means currency notes and coins (whether of Singapore or of a foreign country) which are legal tender and circulate as money in the country of issue; “patron” means any person who — ( a ) opens a patron account with a casino operator; or ( b ) is involved in a cash transaction with a casino operator within its casino premises, whether or not that person participates in gaming in the casino; “patron account” means a credit account, a cheque cashing account, a deposit account or any other account opened by or on behalf of a patron with a casino operator. [4/2014] [Act 24 of 2024 wef 14/11/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s140
chapter: PART 8 - CASINO INTERNAL CONTROLS
section: 140
title: Banking
content:
140. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), a casino operator must — ( a ) keep and maintain separate accounts, as approved by the Authority, at one or more authorised banks for use for all banking transactions arising under this Act in relation to the casino operator; and [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( b ) from time to time provide the Authority, as required, and in a form approved by the Authority, with a written authority addressed to the authorised bank or banks referred to in paragraph ( a ) authorising the authorised bank or banks to comply with any requirements of an inspector exercising the powers conferred by this section. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (2) [ Deleted by Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024 ] (3) An inspector may, by written notice, require the manager or other principal officer of an authorised bank referred to in subsection (1) to provide the inspector with a statement of an account referred to in that subsection and such other particulars relating to the account as may be specified in the notice. (4) A person to whom a notice is given under subsection (3) must comply with the notice. (5) An inspector may not exercise the powers conferred by this section without the prior written approval of the Authority. (6) Any casino operator who fails to comply with subsection (1) shall be liable to disciplinary action. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s141
chapter: PART 8 - CASINO INTERNAL CONTROLS
section: 141
title: Accounts to be kept
content:
141. —(1) A casino operator must keep such accounting and other records as correctly record and explain the transactions and financial position of the casino operator. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (2) The accounting and other records must be kept in such a manner as will enable true and fair financial statements, accounts and other documents required to be attached to the financial statements to be prepared from time to time and the financial statements, accounts and other documents required to be attached to the financial statements to be conveniently and properly audited. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (3) Any casino operator who fails to comply with subsection (1) or (2) shall be liable to disciplinary action.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s142
chapter: PART 8 - CASINO INTERNAL CONTROLS
section: 142
title: Statement of accounts
content:
142. —(1) A casino operator must, as soon as practicable after the end of its financial year, prepare financial statements for the financial year that comply with the requirements of the Accounting Standards and give a true and fair view of the financial position and performance of the casino operator. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (2) Any casino operator who fails to comply with subsection (1) shall be liable to disciplinary action. (3) In this section, “Accounting Standards” has the meaning given by section 4(1) of the Companies Act 1967. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s143
chapter: PART 8 - CASINO INTERNAL CONTROLS
section: 143
title: Keeping of records
content:
143. —(1) A casino operator must ensure that all records relating to the operations of the casino are — ( a ) kept at a location and in a manner approved by the Authority; ( b ) retained, for the period prescribed for that record or type of record, or a shorter period that the Authority may allow for any particular record or case; and [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] ( c ) available for inspection by an inspector at any time during that period. [36/2012; 4/2014] (2) The casino operator must ensure that all records relating to the operations of the casino are kept in such a manner as to permit a reconstruction of individual transactions (including the amount and type of currency involved, if any) so as to provide, if necessary, evidence for prosecution of an offence. [4/2014] (3) The Authority may, by instrument in writing, grant an exemption to a casino operator from all or specified requirements of this section in respect of all or specified, or specified classes of documents and may grant such an exemption subject to conditions. (4) Any casino operator who fails to comply with subsection (1) or (2) shall be liable to disciplinary action. [4/2014]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s144
chapter: PART 8 - CASINO INTERNAL CONTROLS
section: 144
title: Audit
content:
144. —(1) A casino operator must, as soon as practicable after the end of its financial year, cause the books, accounts and financial statements of the casino operator in relation to the casino to be audited by a person approved by the Authority to audit the accounting records of the casino operator. (2) An auditor must not be approved by the Authority as an auditor for a casino operator unless the auditor is able to comply with such conditions in relation to the discharge of the auditor’s duties as may be determined by the Authority. (3) The Authority may impose such additional duties on an auditor in relation to the auditor’s audit of a casino operator as the Authority considers necessary, the costs of which must be borne by the casino operator. (4) The casino operator must cause the auditor’s report, the financial statements referred to in section 142(1)( b ) and ( c ) and any additional information or report requested by the Authority to be lodged with the Authority within 4 months after the end of the financial year to which the report, financial statements and additional information or report (if any) relate. [36/2012] (5) Any casino operator who fails to comply with subsection (1) or (4) shall be liable to disciplinary action.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s144A
chapter: PART 8 - CASINO INTERNAL CONTROLS
section: 144A
title: Special audit
content:
144A. —(1) The Authority may, at any time by a written notice — ( a ) require a casino operator to appoint a special auditor to review or investigate the casino operator’s affairs and report the special auditor’s findings to the Authority; and ( b ) specify the terms of reference for the special audit referred to in paragraph ( a ) and the time within which it must be completed. [36/2012] (2) A casino operator to whom a notice under subsection (1) is directed must engage, at its own expense, a public accountant or other suitably qualified person approved by the Authority to be the special auditor to conduct the special audit in accordance with the terms of reference and within the time specified in the notice. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (2A) The Authority may, in a case where the matter to be reviewed or investigated is of a confidential, commercially sensitive or security sensitive nature, appoint a special auditor to undertake the special audit mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) and recover the cost of the special audit from the casino operator. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (3) The special auditor engaged under subsection (2) or (2A) must submit the special auditor’s report, all relevant supporting documents and such other information or report as the Authority may require in relation to the special audit, to the Authority not later than 60 days after the conclusion of the special audit or within such other period as the Authority may specify in any particular case. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (4) Any casino operator which fails to comply with subsection (2) shall be liable to disciplinary action. [36/2012] (5) In this section, “public accountant” means a person who is registered or deemed to be registered under the Accountants Act 2004 as a public accountant. [36/2012] 145. [ Repealed by Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024 ]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s146
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 146
title: Payment of casino tax
content:
146. —(1) A casino operator must pay to the Comptroller a casino tax every month during which the casino operator holds a casino licence. (2) The amount of casino tax payable under subsection (1) is — ( a ) 12% of the gross gaming revenue for the month from premium players; and [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] ( b ) 22% of the gross gaming revenue for the month from any other player. [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] (3) Despite subsection (2), the following rates of casino tax apply to a casino operator for any period during the moratorium period if the casino operator satisfactorily meets the targets relevant to the development of the facilities and services of the casino operator’s integrated resort as are specified, at the start of the moratorium period, for that casino operator by the Minister charged with the responsibility for tourism development and promotion: ( a ) with respect to the monthly gross gaming revenue from premium players — (i) 8% of the gross gaming revenue from premium players, for the first $2.4 billion of the gross gaming revenue in a year; and (ii) 12% of the gross gaming revenue from premium players, for the gross gaming revenue in excess of $2.4 billion in the year; ( b ) with respect to the monthly gross gaming revenue from any other players — (i) 18% of the gross gaming revenue from any other players, for the first $3.1 billion of the gross gaming revenue in a year; and (ii) 22% of the gross gaming revenue from any other players, for the gross gaming revenue in excess of $3.1 billion in the year. [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] (3A) Despite subsection (3), the Comptroller may make an assessment or additional assessment in the prescribed manner, at the rates of tax specified in subsection (2), upon a casino operator for any gross gaming revenue during any period during the moratorium period where it appears to the Comptroller that the amount of gross gaming revenue ought not to have been charged with casino tax at the rates of tax specified in subsection (3) because the Minister charged with the responsibility for tourism development and promotion has determined that the casino operator does not, or failed to, satisfactorily meet any of the targets relevant to the development of the facilities and services of the casino operator’s integrated resort that are specified under subsection (3) for that casino operator. [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] (3B) If subsection (3A) applies, the Comptroller must also add to any assessment or additional assessment of casino tax interest, at the prescribed rate, on the amount of casino tax that ought not to have been exempted. [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] (3C) However, the Comptroller must not make any assessment or additional assessment under subsection (3A) or exercise any power under subsection (3B) more than 12 months after any determination that the casino operator does not, or failed to, satisfactorily meet any of the targets relevant to the development of the facilities and services of the casino operator’s integrated resort that are specified under subsection (3) for that casino operator. [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] (3D) A reference in sections 146C, 146D and 146E to an assessment under section 146B includes a reference to an assessment or additional assessment made under subsection (3A). [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] (4) The Minister may make regulations — ( a ) prescribing the time and manner of payment of the casino tax; ( b ) prescribing the returns, declarations, statements or forms to be submitted by a casino operator, and the time and manner of such submissions; ( c ) prescribing the records to be kept by a casino operator to determine the gross gaming revenue (from premium players or otherwise) for each month; ( d ) prescribing the treatment of losses, including the carrying forward or set-off of losses, in respect of gross gaming revenue; ( e ) prescribing the requirements for an audit of a casino operator relating to the casino tax payable by the casino operator, whether by an internal auditor or an external auditor or both; ( f ) prescribing the obligations of a casino operator for the purposes of classifying or verifying the gross gaming revenue from premium players; and ( g ) generally to give effect to the provisions of this Part. [22/2009; 36/2012] (5) Regulations made under this section may provide — ( a ) that any contravention of any provision of the regulations shall be an offence punishable with a fine not exceeding $10,000 or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or with both; and ( b ) that if any return required under this Part (including regulations made under this Part) is not made by a casino operator within the prescribed accounting period, the casino operator shall be liable to a penalty not exceeding $1,000 for each day that it continues not to submit the return, up to a total penalty not exceeding $10,000. [22/2009] (6) In this Part — “Board of Review” means the Board of Review appointed under section 78 of the Income Tax Act 1947; “gross gaming revenue”, in relation to a casino operator, means the amount determined by the formula A – B, where — ( a ) A is the aggregate of the amount of net wins received on all games conducted by the casino operator or conducted within the casino premises of the casino operator; and ( b ) B is the amount of goods and services tax chargeable by the casino operator under the Goods and Services Tax Act 1993 in respect of all gaming supplies made by the casino operator; “Minister” means the Minister for Finance; “moratorium period” means a period of 10 years starting 1 March 2022; [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022] “net win”, in relation to a casino operator, means — ( a ) in respect of any game or type of game where the casino operator is a party to a wager, the difference between the amount of bets received by the casino operator on the game and the amount paid out by the casino operator as winnings on the game, derived by such method or formula as may be prescribed in respect of that game or type of game; and ( b ) in respect of any game conducted within the casino premises where the casino operator is not a party to a wager, the amount determined by the aggregate value of all consideration in money or money’s worth received by the casino operator for conducting, or allowing the conduct of, the game; “winnings” includes any non-monetary prize. [22/2009; 36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s146A
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 146A
title: Responsibility of Comptroller
content:
146A. —(1) The Comptroller is responsible generally for the carrying out of the provisions of this Part and for the collection of casino tax and must pay into the Consolidated Fund all amounts collected in respect thereof, including any penalty under section 147 or 149A or any regulations made under this Part. [22/2009; 36/2012] (2) The Comptroller may, in writing, authorise any officer of the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore to perform or assist in the performance of any duty imposed on, or to exercise any power conferred upon, the Comptroller under this Part. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s146B
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 146B
title: Power of Comptroller to assess tax due
content:
146B. —(1) Where — ( a ) a casino operator has failed to make any returns required under this Part or any regulations made under this Part for a prescribed accounting period, or to keep any documents and afford the facilities to verify such returns; or ( b ) it appears to the Comptroller that such returns are incomplete or incorrect, the Comptroller may to the best of his or her judgment assess the amount of casino tax due from that casino operator for that period and notify the casino operator of the amount assessed. [22/2009] (2) In any case where — ( a ) an amount has been repaid to any casino operator as being a repayment of casino tax, which ought not to have been repaid; or ( b ) an amount has been paid or credited to any casino operator as being due to it, which ought not to have been paid or credited to it, the Comptroller may assess that amount as being casino tax due from the casino operator for the prescribed accounting period in which the amount was repaid, paid or credited (as the case may be) and accordingly notify the casino operator of the assessment. [22/2009] (3) An assessment under subsection (1) or (2) of an amount of casino tax due for any prescribed accounting period must not be made more than 5 years from the end of that period. [22/2009] (4) Despite subsection (3), where, in the opinion of the Comptroller, any form of fraud or wilful default has been committed by or on behalf of any person in connection with or in relation to casino tax, the Comptroller may, for the purpose of making good any loss of casino tax or payment or refund of casino tax attributable to fraud or wilful default, make an assessment at any time. [22/2009] (5) In any case where — ( a ) as a result of a casino operator’s failure to make a return for a prescribed accounting period, the Comptroller has made an assessment under subsection (1) for that period; ( b ) the casino tax assessed has been paid but no proper return has been made for the period to which the assessment related; and ( c ) as a result of a failure to make a return for a later prescribed accounting period, being a failure by the casino operator referred to in paragraph ( a ), the Comptroller finds it necessary to make another assessment under subsection (1) for the later period, then, if the Comptroller thinks fit, having regard to the failure referred to in paragraph ( a ), the Comptroller may specify in the assessment referred to in paragraph ( c ) an amount of casino tax greater than that which the Comptroller would otherwise have considered to be appropriate. [22/2009] (6) Where it appears to the Comptroller that the amount which ought to have been assessed in an assessment under this section exceeds the amount which was so assessed, the Comptroller may — ( a ) under the same provision as that under which the assessment was made; and ( b ) within the period during which that assessment could have been made, make a supplementary assessment of the amount of the excess and must notify the casino operator accordingly. [22/2009] (7) Where an amount has been assessed and notified to any casino operator under subsection (1), (2) or (6), it is, subject to the provisions of this Act as to review and appeals, deemed to be an amount of casino tax due from the casino operator and may be recovered accordingly, unless, or except to the extent that, the assessment has subsequently been withdrawn or reduced. [22/2009] (8) The Comptroller may at any time make all such alterations in or additions to an assessment made under this section as he or she thinks necessary to ensure the correctness thereof and notify the casino operator accordingly. [22/2009] (9) Where the Comptroller raises an assessment under subsection (1) upon the failure of a casino operator to make any returns, and, subsequent to such assessment, the casino operator makes a return, the Comptroller may, in his or her discretion, take into account the return and revise his or her assessment as he or she deems fit. [22/2009] (10) A certificate purporting to be under the hand of the Comptroller — ( a ) that any return required by or under this Part has not been made or had not been made at any date; ( b ) that any return made under this Part has been made by the person named therein; ( c ) that any casino tax shown as due in any return or assessment made under this Part has not been paid; or ( d ) that any penalty is due from the person named therein, is sufficient evidence of that fact until the contrary is proved. [22/2009]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s146C
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 146C
title: Revisions and objections
content:
146C. —(1) If any casino operator has made an error in a return of its gross gaming revenue for any accounting period, the casino operator may apply to the Comptroller within a period of 5 years from the date the return was made, by written notice, to review and revise any assessment of casino tax made in respect of that period for which the return was made. [36/2012] (2) If any casino operator disputes an assessment of casino tax made upon it under section 146B, the casino operator may apply to the Comptroller, by notice of objection in writing, to review and revise the assessment made. [22/2009] (3) A notice of objection under subsection (2) must state precisely the grounds of the casino operator’s objections to the assessment and must be made — ( a ) within 30 days from the date of the service of the notice of assessment; or ( b ) if the Comptroller is satisfied that there is reasonable cause for the delay, within such longer period as the Comptroller may allow in the circumstances. [22/2009] (4) On receipt of a notice under subsection (1) or (2) from a casino operator, the Comptroller may — ( a ) require the casino operator to furnish such particulars as the Comptroller may consider necessary with respect to the gross gaming revenue of the casino operator and to produce all books or other documents in the casino operator’s custody or under its control relating to such revenue; and ( b ) summon any person whom the Comptroller thinks is able to give evidence respecting the assessment to attend before the Comptroller and may examine that person on oath or otherwise. [22/2009; 36/2012] (5) If any casino operator who has given a notice under subsection (1) or (2) — ( a ) agrees with the Comptroller as to the amount at which the casino operator is liable to be assessed, the assessment is revised accordingly, and notice of the revised assessment must be served upon that casino operator; or ( b ) fails to agree with the Comptroller as to the amount at which the casino operator is liable to be assessed, the Comptroller — (i) must, if any casino tax is payable, give a notice of refusal to revise the assessment as desired by the casino operator; and (ii) may revise the assessment to such amount as the Comptroller may determine according to the best of his or her judgment, and the Comptroller must serve upon that casino operator the notice of the revised assessment of the casino tax payable, together with the notice of refusal. [22/2009; 36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s146D
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 146D
title: Right of appeal
content:
146D. —(1) Any casino operator aggrieved by a refusal of the Comptroller to revise an assessment under section 146C(5)( b )(i) or by an assessment of casino tax made upon it under section 146C(5)( b )(ii) may appeal against such decision or assessment to the Board of Review and the appeal must be lodged with and heard by the Board of Review in the same manner as an appeal against an assessment of tax under the Income Tax Act 1947. [22/2009; 36/2012] (2) No appeal lies against a decision of the Board of Review except an appeal to the General Division of the High Court from the decision on any question of law or of mixed law and fact. [22/2009; 40/2019] (3) Sections 79 to 84 of the Income Tax Act 1947 apply in relation to an appeal under subsection (1) or (2) as if it were an appeal in relation to an assessment of tax under that Act. [22/2009]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s146E
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 146E
title: Time within which payment is to be made
content:
146E. —(1) Any amount of casino tax assessed to be payable under section 146B is, despite any objection or appeal against the assessment, payable in the time and manner stated in the notice of assessment issued by the Comptroller under that section. [22/2009] (2) The Comptroller may, in his or her discretion and subject to such terms and conditions as he or she may impose, including the imposition of interest, extend the time limit within which payment is to be made. [22/2009]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s147
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 147
title: Penalty for late payment
content:
147. —(1) If any casino tax that is due and payable is not paid by a casino operator by the prescribed time, a penalty equal to 5% of the amount of casino tax payable must be added thereto and be due and payable. (2) If the amount of casino tax outstanding is not paid by a casino operator within one calendar month of the imposition of the penalty as provided by subsection (1), an additional penalty of 5% of the casino tax outstanding is payable for each completed month that the casino tax remains unpaid, but the total additional penalty must not exceed 50% of the amount of casino tax outstanding. (3) Any penalty imposed under this section is recoverable as if it were casino tax due and payable under this Part. (4) The Comptroller may for any good cause remit the whole or part of the penalty payable under subsection (1) or (2). [22/2009]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s148
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 148
title: Recovery of tax and penalty
content:
148. —(1) Casino tax and any penalty due and payable under this Part is recoverable as a debt due to the Government and the Comptroller may, in the Comptroller’s own name, sue for such tax and penalty by way of a specially endorsed originating claim. [22/2009] [Act 25 of 2021 wef 01/04/2022] (2) The Comptroller is entitled to all costs allowed by law against a casino operator liable in any proceedings under subsection (1). [22/2009] (3) The Comptroller may appear personally or by counsel in any suit instituted under subsection (1). [22/2009] (4) In any proceedings referred to in subsection (1), the production of a certificate signed by the Comptroller stating the amount of any casino tax due by a casino operator is sufficient evidence of the amount so due and sufficient authority for the court to give judgment for that amount.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s148A
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 148A
title: Remission of tax
content:
148A. The Minister may, in his or her discretion, remit, wholly or in part, the casino tax payable by any casino operator if the Minister is satisfied that it is just and equitable to do so. [22/2009]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s149
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 149
title: Repayment of tax
content:
149. —(1) If it is proved to the satisfaction of the Comptroller that a casino operator has paid casino tax in excess of the amount payable under this Part, that casino operator is entitled to have the amount so paid in excess refunded. (2) Every claim for repayment under this section must be made within 5 years from the payment of the casino tax claimed to be paid in excess. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s149A
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 149A
title: Penalty for incorrect return
content:
149A. Any person who — ( a ) makes an incorrect return by omitting or understating any gross gaming revenue or casino tax of which a casino operator is required by this Act to make a return; or ( b ) gives any incorrect information in relation to any matter affecting a casino operator’s liability to casino tax, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( c ) to a penalty equal to double the amount of casino tax which has been underpaid in consequence of such incorrect return or incorrect information, or which would have been so underpaid if the return or information had been accepted as correct; and ( d ) to a fine not exceeding $25,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. [22/2009]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s150
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 150
title: Evasion of tax
content:
150. —(1) Any person who wilfully with intent to evade or to assist any other person to evade casino tax — ( a ) makes any false statement, declaration or entry in any return made under this Part or the regulations; ( b ) gives any false answer, whether verbally or in writing, to any question or request for information asked or made in accordance with this Part; ( c ) prepares or maintains or authorises the preparation or maintenance of any false record or falsifies or authorises the falsification of any record; or ( d ) makes use of any fraud, art or contrivance or authorises the use of any such fraud, art or contrivance, shall be guilty of an offence for which, on conviction, the person shall pay a penalty of 4 times the amount of casino tax which has been underpaid in consequence of the offence, or which would have been so underpaid if the offence had not been detected, and shall also be liable to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or to both. [22/2009] (2) Where an individual has been convicted for 2 or more offences under this section, the imprisonment he or she shall be liable to shall not be less than 6 months. (3) Where in any proceedings under this section it is proved that any false statement or entry is made in any record maintained by or on behalf of any person, that person is presumed, until the contrary is proved, to have made that false statement or entry with intent to evade casino tax.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s150A
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 150A
title: Power to appoint agent for recovery of tax
content:
150A. —(1) The Comptroller may by written notice, if the Comptroller thinks it necessary, declare any person to be the agent of a casino operator. [22/2009] (2) The person declared to be the agent of a casino operator under subsection (1) is the agent of the casino operator for the purposes of this Part and may be required to pay any casino tax or penalty due from any moneys which, at the date of the receipt of the notice or at any time during the period of 90 days thereafter, may be held by the person for or due by the person to the casino operator whose agent the person has been declared to be. [22/2009] (3) In default of payment under subsection (2), the casino tax is recoverable from the agent in the manner provided under section 148. [22/2009] (4) For the purposes of this section, the Comptroller may require any person to give the Comptroller information as to any moneys, funds or other assets which may be held by that person for, or of any moneys due by that person to, any casino operator. [22/2009] (5) Where any person declared by the Comptroller to be the agent of a casino operator under subsection (1) is aggrieved by such declaration the person may, by written notice to the Comptroller within 14 days, or within such further time as the Comptroller in his or her discretion may allow, object to the declaration. [22/2009] (6) The Comptroller must examine the objection and may cancel, vary or confirm the declaration. [22/2009] (7) Where the objector is aggrieved by the Comptroller’s decision upon the objection, the objector may appeal against the decision to the Board of Review and the provisions of section 146D apply with the necessary modifications. [22/2009] (8) Where an agent makes any payment of moneys to the Comptroller under this section — ( a ) the agent is deemed to have been acting under the authority of the casino operator by whom the casino tax is payable (called in this section the defaulting taxpayer); ( b ) the agent is indemnified in respect of the payment to the Comptroller; ( c ) the amount of casino tax due from the defaulting taxpayer is reduced by the amount paid by the agent to the Comptroller; and ( d ) the amount of the reduction is, to the extent of that amount, deemed to have been paid to the defaulting taxpayer in accordance with any law, contract or scheme governing the payment of moneys held by the agent for or due from the agent to the defaulting taxpayer. [22/2009] (9) Where — ( a ) an amount of casino tax is due from any person under this Act otherwise than as an agent under this section; ( b ) except for this subsection, an amount is or would, at any time during the period of 90 days after the date of the receipt of the notice in paragraph ( c ), be payable by the Government to the defaulting taxpayer by or under any written law, contract or scheme; and ( c ) before payment of the amount referred to in paragraph ( b ) is made to the defaulting taxpayer, the Commissioner gives notice to any public officer (including an employee appointed under section 9 of the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore Act 1992) by whom the payment is to be made that the tax is due from the defaulting taxpayer, then the public officer must and is entitled to, despite any other written law, contract or scheme, reduce the amount mentioned in paragraph ( b ) by the amount of the whole or any part of the casino tax mentioned in paragraph ( a ), and if the public officer makes such a reduction — ( d ) the amount of the casino tax mentioned in paragraph ( a ) is reduced by the amount of the reduction; and ( e ) the amount of the reduction is, to the extent of such amount, deemed to have been paid to the defaulting taxpayer in accordance with any law, contract or scheme governing the payment of moneys mentioned in paragraph ( b ) to the defaulting taxpayer. [Act 1 of 2022 wef 01/03/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s151
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 151
title: Power of Comptroller to obtain information
content:
151. —(1) The Comptroller may exercise his or her powers under sections 65, 65A and 65B of the Income Tax Act 1947 generally for the purpose of this Part. (2) Any person who, without reasonable excuse, fails or neglects to comply with any notice issued by the Comptroller under section 65 or 65A of the Income Tax Act 1947 or any requirement of the Comptroller under section 65B of that Act for the purpose of this Part shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s151A
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 151A
title: Official secrecy for tax-related information
content:
151A. —(1) Every person having any official duty or being employed in the administration of this Part must regard and deal with all documents, information, returns and assessments relating to the casino tax payable by any casino operator, as secret and confidential, and may be required by the Comptroller to make or subscribe a declaration to that effect in the form determined by the Comptroller. [36/2012] (2) Every person, being authorised or employed in carrying out the provisions of this Part and having possession or control over any document, information, return or assessment relating to casino tax under this Part, who at any time otherwise than for the purposes of this Part or with the express authority of the President — ( a ) communicates or attempts to communicate such information or anything contained in such documents, returns or assessments to any person; or ( b ) suffers or permits any person to have access to any such information or to anything contained in such documents, returns or assessments, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. [36/2012] (3) No person who is authorised or employed in carrying out the provisions of this Part is required to produce in any court any document, return or assessment, or to divulge or communicate to any court any matter or thing coming under the person’s notice in the performance of his or her duties under this Part, except as may be necessary — ( a ) for the purpose of carrying into effect the provisions of this Part; or ( b ) in order to institute a prosecution, or in the course of a prosecution, for any offence committed in relation to casino tax under this Part. [36/2012] (4) Despite this section, the Comptroller must permit the Minister for Finance, the Auditor‑General or any officer duly authorised in that behalf by the Minister for Finance or the Auditor‑General to have such access to any records or documents as may be necessary for the performance of his or her official duties. [36/2012] (5) Despite this section, the Comptroller may transmit or communicate to any of the following persons, or permit access to, any document, information, return or assessment referred to in subsection (1) which may be required by any of them in the performance of their official duties: ( a ) the Comptroller of Property Tax appointed under the Property Tax Act 1960; ( b ) the Comptroller of Goods and Services Tax appointed under the Goods and Services Tax Act 1993; ( c ) the Chief Assessor appointed under the Property Tax Act 1960; ( d ) the Commissioner of Stamp Duties appointed under the Stamp Duties Act 1929. [36/2012] (6) Despite this section, the Comptroller may, for the purpose of enabling the Chief Statistician to perform his or her duties under the Statistics Act 1973, furnish and permit the Chief Statistician access to any information and records as may be required under this Part or by regulations made under section 146(4). [36/2012] (7) Despite this section, the Comptroller may lay a complaint of professional misconduct against any person in the person’s professional dealings with the Comptroller to the appropriate authority empowered to take disciplinary action against the person and may, in connection with the complaint, furnish any relevant documents or information. [36/2012] (8) Despite this section or section 6 of the Income Tax Act 1947, the Comptroller or any officer of the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore may — ( a ) furnish to any officer of the Authority any information obtained by the Comptroller in the performance of the Comptroller’s duties under this Part, where such information may be required by the officer of the Authority in the performance of the officer’s duties; and ( b ) upon the request of the Authority, permit any officer of the Authority to have access to, including taking copies of, such records or documents relating to casino tax in the possession of the Comptroller as the Comptroller may allow, where the Comptroller is satisfied that such information or access is necessary for the performance of the duties of the officer of the Authority. [36/2012] (9) Despite subsections (1) and (2) and without prejudice to subsections (4) to (8), the Comptroller may disclose information relating to the casino tax payable by a casino operator to any of the following with the express consent of the casino operator to whom the information relates: ( a ) any public officer or officer of a statutory board for the performance of his or her official duties in administering or facilitating the administration of any written law or public scheme; ( b ) any other person who is engaged by the Government or a statutory board to facilitate the administration of such written law or public scheme, if the Comptroller has obtained a written undertaking from the other person that the other person shall be bound by the same obligations as to secrecy imposed by subsections (1), (2) and (3) with the necessary modifications. [36/2012] (10) Despite this section, the Comptroller may furnish to the Government or any statutory board, for any statistical or research purpose, any information relating to any person in a manner that does not identify, and is not reasonably capable of being used to identify, that person. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s152
chapter: PART 9 - CASINO TAX
section: 152
title: Composition of offences by Comptroller
content:
152. —(1) The Comptroller may compound any offence under section 150 by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding 4 times the amount of casino tax underpaid in consequence of the offence, or which would have been so underpaid if the offence had not been detected. [22/2009] (2) The Comptroller may compound any offence under section 149A by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the penalty under paragraph ( c ) of that section. [22/2009] (3) The Comptroller may compound any offence under section 151 or the regulations made under section 146 by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding $5,000. [22/2009]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s153
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 153
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
153. —(1) In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires — “application” means an application for a family exclusion order or an application for a visit limit by a family member, as the case may be; “chairperson” means the chairperson of the Council; “Committee” means any Committee of Assessors for the time being constituted under section 157(1); “defined work” means — ( a ) in relation to casino premises of a casino operator — (i) to deliver any goods, provide any services or perform any work (whether as a contractor or an employee) that is connected to the business, undertaking or work of the casino operator carried on at the casino premises; (ii) to seek a contract of employment or contract for service with the casino operator; or (iii) to execute an order of a court or a direction given by or on behalf of a public officer or a public authority in exercise of a power under any written law; or ( b ) in relation to a gaming machine room of a gambling operator — (i) to deliver any goods, provide any services or perform any work (whether as a contractor or an employee) that is connected to the business, undertaking or work of the gambling operator carried on at the gaming machine room; (ii) to seek a contract of employment or contract for service with the gambling operator; or (iii) to execute an order of a court or a direction given by or on behalf of a public officer or a public authority in exercise of a power under any written law; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] “exclusion order” means an exclusion order made under section 165, and includes an exclusion order made in the respondent’s absence under section 165C; “family exclusion order” means a family exclusion order made under section 162, and includes a family exclusion order made in the respondent’s absence under section 165C; “family member”, in relation to a respondent, means — ( a ) a spouse of the respondent; ( b ) a child of the respondent, including an adopted child and a stepchild; ( c ) a parent of the respondent, including an adoptive parent and a step-parent; and ( d ) a sibling of the respondent, including an adoptive sibling, a stepsibling and a half‑sibling; “gambling” means gambling whether or not inside casino premises, and includes remote gambling; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] “gambling operator” means a person who is authorised either by a licence under the Gambling Control Act 2022 to conduct a betting operation, or conduct gaming or a lottery involving — ( a ) playing of gaming machines; or ( b ) remote gambling; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] “gaming machine room” has the meaning given by section 7(6) of the Gambling Control Act 2022; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] “general remote gambling” and “engaging in general remote gambling” have the meanings given by section 11(1) of the Gambling Control Act 2022; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] “list of excluded persons” means the list of excluded persons established and maintained under section 168, as varied or updated from time to time; “Minister” means the Minister charged with the responsibility for prevention and rehabilitation in relation to problem gambling; “panel” means the panel of assessors appointed under section 157(2); “provisional family exclusion order” means a provisional family exclusion order made under section 164; “respondent” means a person against whom a family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order is sought or made; “self-exclusion” means an exclusion of a person from any casino premises or gaming machine room, or from engaging in all manner of general remote gambling, upon a voluntary application of that person under section 165A(1)( c ); [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] “visit limit”, in relation to an individual, means an order made by the Council or by a Committee specifying a maximum number of visits in aggregate which the individual may make to any casino each month, and includes any visit limit made in the respondent’s absence under section 165C. [25/2012; 36/2012] (2) In this Part, any continuous period of 24 hours commencing from the time a person enters any casino premises constitutes a single visit by the person to that casino, regardless of the number of times the person leaves and re-enters the casino premises during that 24‑hour period. [36/2012] Division 2 &#x2014; Establishment and functions of
National Council on Problem Gambling [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s154
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 154
title: Establishment of Council
content:
154. —(1) There is to be a National Council on Problem Gambling comprising a chairperson and not less than 7 and not more than 19 other members to be appointed by the Minister. (2) The chairperson and every member of the Council may be appointed for a period not exceeding 2 years and are eligible for re‑appointment. (3) The Minister may, at any time, revoke the appointment of the chairperson or any member of the Council and may appoint any person to fill any vacancy which may arise in the Council for any reason.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s155
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 155
title: Functions of Council
content:
155. —(1) The functions of the Council are — ( a ) to do all the things it is authorised or required to do under this Part; and ( b ) to appoint a panel of assessors to decide on applications for the exclusion of persons from casino premises and visit limits to be made. [36/2012] (2) The Council may appoint a secretary to the Council and such other officers as may be required to enable the Council to carry out its functions under this Part. (3) Every summons and notice issued under the hand of the secretary to the Council to any person is deemed to be issued by the Council. (4) The Council may, subject to the provisions of this Part, regulate its own procedure. (5) The Council must not transact any business unless a quorum of at least half of its members, including the chairperson or member presiding, is present. (6) The chairperson, if present, presides at all meetings of the Council. (7) Where the office of chairperson is vacant or the chairperson for any reason is unable to attend a meeting, such other member as the members present may elect presides at the meeting. (8) The Council may appoint from among its own members any number of committees that it thinks fit, and may, subject to any conditions or restrictions that it may impose, delegate to any such committee any of the functions or powers of the Council under this Part, except — ( a ) the power of delegation conferred by this subsection; ( b ) the power to decide an appeal under section 165(10); and ( c ) the power to make any subsidiary legislation under section 170. [36/2012] (9) Any function or power delegated under subsection (8) to any committee may be performed or exercised by the committee to whom it has been delegated in the name and on behalf of the Council. [36/2012] (10) No delegation under subsection (8) prevents the performance or exercise of any function or power by the Council. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s156
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 156
title: Validity of Council’s actions
content:
156. —(1) The Council may, subject to section 155(5), transact its business despite any vacancy among its members. (2) The proceedings of the Council are, or any decision of the Council is, valid despite any defect in the appointment of its members or that some person who was not entitled to do so took part in its proceedings. Division 3 &#x2014; Family exclusion orders,
visit limits and other exclusion orders [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s157
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 157
title: Committee of Assessors for making exclusion orders and visit limits
content:
157. —(1) For the purpose of hearing and determining an application for a family exclusion order or a visit limit under section 158 or of making an exclusion order or a visit limit under section 165, the chairperson of the Council must, from time to time, constitute a Committee of Assessors consisting of — ( a ) a chairperson, being a member of the Council; and ( b ) 2 other members selected from the panel of assessors appointed under subsection (2). [36/2012] (2) For the purpose of enabling a Committee to be constituted under subsection (1), there must be a panel of assessors, the members of which must be appointed by the Council. (3) The panel consists of such number of persons as the Council may determine. (4) A person appointed to the panel is, unless his or her appointment is revoked by the Council under subsection (6) or he or she resigns, to be a member of the panel for a period of 2 years or for such shorter period as the Council may in any case determine, but is eligible for re‑appointment. (5) Where a person ceases to be a member of the panel, the Council must, as soon as is reasonably practicable, take steps to fill the vacancy in the Committee of which the person is a member, but the existence of any vacancy in the Committee does not invalidate the acts of the Committee. (6) The Council may at any time revoke the appointment of a member of the panel. (7) There must be paid to the members of the panel such salaries, fees and allowances as the Council may determine.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s158
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 158
title: Committee to hear and determine applications for family exclusion orders and visit limits
content:
158. —(1) A Committee must hear and determine in accordance with this Part all applications for family exclusion orders or visit limits referred to the Committee under section 159(2) or 163A(2), as the case may be. [36/2012] (2) Sittings of a Committee must be held at such places and times as the chairperson of the Committee may determine. (3) No party to any proceedings before a Committee may be represented by an advocate and solicitor except that the person making the application on behalf of an applicant under section 160 or 161 may represent the applicant before a Committee although that person may be an advocate and solicitor. (4) A Committee has the power to — ( a ) summon any person whom it may consider able to give evidence to attend at the hearing of an application, and examine such person as a witness; ( b ) require any person to furnish such information or produce such document, record or article in the possession or under control of that person as the Committee considers relevant for the purposes of the proceedings; and ( c ) inspect, keep or make copies of such record, document or article. [36/2012] (5) Every person examined as a witness by or before a Committee or required to furnish any information or produce any document, record or article by a Committee is, despite any written law or rule of law relating to the confidentiality of medical information or any rule of practice relating to client confidentiality, legally bound to state the truth and to produce such records, documents or articles as the Committee may require for the purposes of carrying out its functions and duties under this Part. [36/2012] (6) In proceedings under this Part, a Committee is to decide questions of fact on a balance of probabilities. (7) A Committee is not bound by the strict rules of evidence and may determine the conduct of its proceedings. (8) At any meeting of a Committee under this Part — ( a ) all 3 members of the Committee must be personally present to constitute a quorum; and ( b ) any question arising at the meeting of the Committee is to be determined by a majority of votes of the members present and, in the case of an equality of votes, the chairperson of the Committee has a casting vote.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s159
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 159
title: Application for family exclusion order
content:
159. —(1) An application for a family exclusion order against a respondent may be made by — ( a ) a family member of the respondent adversely affected by the respondent’s gambling; or ( b ) a person referred to in section 160 or 161 on behalf of a family member referred to in paragraph ( a ). [36/2012] (2) An application must be made to the Council in writing in the form approved by the Council, and the Council must refer the application to a Committee. (3) Upon receiving an application under subsection (1), the Council, or the secretary or an officer of the Council on behalf of the Council — ( a ) may require the respondent named in the application, any family member of the respondent, any casino operator or gambling operator to furnish such information or produce such document or record in the possession or under the control of the respondent, family member, casino operator or gambling operator (as the case may be) as the Council considers relevant to the application; and [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( b ) may inspect, keep or make copies of such document or record. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s160
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 160
title: Application by or on behalf of person below 21 years of age
content:
160. An application that could otherwise be made by a person under this Part may, if the person is below 21 years of age, be made — ( a ) by the person, with the permission of the Council, if the person is at least 16 years of age; or ( b ) on behalf of the person by — (i) a parent or guardian of the person; or (ii) with the permission of the Council, any other family member or other relative of the person.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s161
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 161
title: Application on behalf of incapacitated applicant
content:
161. Where a person is unable to make an application (whether by reason of physical or mental infirmity or for any other reason), the application may be made on the person’s behalf — ( a ) with the permission of the Council, by any family member or other relative of the person; or ( b ) by any person appointed by the Minister.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s162
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 162
title: Grounds for making family exclusion order
content:
162. —(1) On an application referred to a Committee under section 159(2), the Committee may make a family exclusion order against a respondent if — ( a ) there is a reasonable apprehension that the respondent may cause serious harm to family members because of his or her gambling; ( b ) the Committee is satisfied that the making of the order is appropriate in the circumstances; ( c ) subject to section 165C, the respondent has been given an opportunity to object to the application; and ( d ) the Committee is satisfied that it would be in the best interests of the respondent and his or her family members to make the order. [36/2012] (2) For the purposes of this Part, a respondent is to be regarded as having caused serious harm to family members because of his or her gambling if the respondent — ( a ) has engaged in gambling activities irresponsibly having regard to the needs and welfare of the respondent’s family members; and ( b ) has done so repeatedly over a period of not less than 3 months or in a particularly irresponsible manner over a lesser period. (3) A Committee may decide that there is a reasonable apprehension that a respondent may cause serious harm to family members because of his or her gambling if the Committee is satisfied that — ( a ) the respondent has caused such harm prior to the complaint, according to the test set out in subsection (2); and ( b ) there is reason to believe that the respondent’s irresponsible gambling behaviour will continue or recur. (4) A Committee may, in determining whether there is a reasonable apprehension that a respondent may cause serious harm to family members because of his or her gambling, take into account events that have taken place outside Singapore. (5) If a respondent disputes some or all of the grounds on which a family exclusion order is sought or made but consents to the order, a Committee may make or confirm the order without receiving any further submissions or evidence as to the grounds. (6) A Committee may, at any stage, dismiss an application if the Committee is satisfied that the application is frivolous, vexatious, without substance or has no reasonable prospect of success. (7) A Committee must report to the Council its decision on every application referred to the Committee accordingly and briefly state the reasons for its decision.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s163
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 163
title: Terms of family exclusion order
content:
163. —(1) A family exclusion order — ( a ) must specify the period during which it is in force; and ( b ) may apply for the benefit of all of the respondent’s family members or specified family members. (2) Without limiting the matters that may be the subject of a family exclusion order, an order may do one or more of the following: ( a ) refer the respondent to participate in a program of counselling, rehabilitation or special education or any combination of these; ( b ) ban the respondent from — (i) entering or remaining on all casino premises; or (ii) taking part in any gaming in all casino premises; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( c ) require the respondent to close any deposit account in a casino; ( d ) require a casino operator to close any deposit account of the respondent with the casino; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( e ) ban the respondent from — (i) entering or remaining on all gaming machine rooms except to perform defined work within any of those rooms; or (ii) taking part in any gaming in all gaming machine rooms; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( f ) require the respondent to not engage in all manner of general remote gambling; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( g ) all bans and requirements in paragraphs ( a ), ( b ), ( c ), ( d ), ( e ) and ( f ) or any combination thereof. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s163A
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 163A
title: Visit limit application by family member
content:
163A. —(1) An application for a visit limit against a respondent may be made by — ( a ) a family member of the respondent who is, or is likely to be, adversely affected by the respondent’s gambling; or ( b ) a person referred to in section 160 or 161 on behalf of a family member referred to in paragraph ( a ). [36/2012] (2) An application for a visit limit must be made to the Council in writing in the form approved by the Council, and the Council must refer the application to a Committee. [36/2012] (3) Upon receiving an application under subsection (1), the Council, or the secretary or an officer of the Council on behalf of the Council — ( a ) may require the respondent named in the application, any family member of the respondent or any casino operator to furnish such information or produce such document or record in the possession or under the control of the respondent, family member or casino operator (as the case may be) as the Council considers relevant to the application; and ( b ) may inspect, keep or make copies of such document or record. [36/2012] (4) A Committee to whom an application under this section is referred may make a visit limit against a respondent if the Committee is satisfied that — ( a ) there is a reasonable apprehension that the respondent has engaged, or is likely to engage, in gambling activities in disregard of the needs and welfare of the respondent’s family members; ( b ) a visit limit against the respondent is appropriate in the circumstances; ( c ) subject to section 165C, the respondent has been given an opportunity to object to the application; and ( d ) it would be in the best interests of the respondent and his or her family members to make the visit limit. [36/2012] (5) A visit limit made under subsection (4) against a respondent must — ( a ) specify the period during which it is in force; and ( b ) specify the maximum number of visits in aggregate that the respondent may make to any casino in each month. [36/2012] (6) The Committee in making a visit limit under subsection (4) may also refer the respondent to participate in a programme of counselling, rehabilitation or special education or any combination of these. [36/2012] (7) A Committee may, in determining whether there is a reasonable apprehension that the respondent has engaged, or is likely to engage, in gambling activities in disregard of the needs and welfare of the respondent’s family members, take into account events that have taken place outside Singapore. [36/2012] (8) If a respondent disputes some or all of the grounds on which a visit limit is sought or made but consents to the making of the visit limit, a Committee may make or confirm the visit limit without receiving any further submission or evidence as to the grounds. [36/2012] (9) A Committee may, at any stage, dismiss an application if the Committee is satisfied that the application is frivolous, vexatious, without substance or has no reasonable prospect of success. [36/2012] (10) A Committee must report to the Council its decision on every application referred to the Committee accordingly and briefly state the reasons for its decision. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s164
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 164
title: Provisional family exclusion order
content:
164. —(1) Where, upon an application for a family exclusion order under section 159, a Committee is satisfied that the respondent has caused serious harm to family members having regard to section 162(2) and further harm to family members is imminent, the Committee may make a provisional family exclusion order, even though — ( a ) a hearing has not been held under section 158 to determine the application for the family exclusion order; or ( b ) a summons has not been served on the respondent to appear at the hearing under section 158. [36/2012] (2) A provisional family exclusion order may do one or more things mentioned in section 163(2) and takes effect on the date on which the provisional family exclusion order is served on the respondent or such later date as the Committee may specify in the order, but ceases to have effect on whichever of the following dates occurs first: ( a ) the date of the conclusion of the hearing under section 158 to which the respondent is summoned or, if the hearing is adjourned, the conclusion of the adjourned hearing; ( b ) the 28th day after the date of the making of the provisional family exclusion order, or such later date as the Committee may determine in any particular case. [36/2012] [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (3) The Committee which makes or extends a provisional family exclusion order under this section need not comprise the same members as the Committee which hears the application for the family exclusion order under section 158. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s165
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 165
title: Committee may make exclusion order or visit limit in certain circumstances
content:
165. —(1) A Committee may, without receiving any application, by written order make either an exclusion order or a visit limit against a person, if — ( a ) it comes to the attention of the Committee that the person has a poor credit record; or ( b ) the Committee is of the opinion that the person is vulnerable to financial harm because of his or her gambling. [36/2012] (2) For the purposes of determining whether a person is vulnerable to financial harm under subsection (1)( b ), the Committee may have regard, but not be limited, to all or any of the following factors: ( a ) the financial situation of the person; ( b ) any indebtedness of the person or inability of the person to pay his or her debts as they fall due; ( c ) the frequency of the person’s visits to a casino or the extent of the person’s gambling whether or not in the casino. [36/2012] [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (3) For the purposes of enabling a Committee to make a determination under subsection (1), an officer of the Council may — ( a ) by written notice, require the respondent against whom the exclusion order or visit limit is being considered, any family member of the respondent, any casino operator or gambling operator to furnish such information or produce such document or record as may be specified in the notice relating to the respondent or to any of the matters referred to in subsection (2), which is in the possession or under the control of the respondent, family member, casino operator or gambling operator, as the case may be; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( b ) by written notice to any statutory body, request that statutory body to furnish such information or produce such document or record as may be specified in the notice relating to the respondent or to any of the matters referred to in subsection (2); and ( c ) inspect, keep or make copies of such document or record. [36/2012] (4) Every person required to furnish any information or produce any document or record by a notice under subsection (3) is legally bound to state the truth and to produce such documents and records as may be specified in the notice. [36/2012] (5) Before a Committee makes an exclusion order or a visit limit against any person under subsection (1), the Committee must, by a written notice, give the person a reasonable opportunity to object to the proposed order or visit limit. [36/2012] (6) An exclusion order made under subsection (1) may do any of the following: ( a ) ban the respondent from — (i) entering or remaining on all casino premises; or (ii) taking part in any gaming in all casino premises; ( b ) ban the respondent from — (i) entering or remaining on all gaming machine rooms except to perform defined work within any of those rooms; or (ii) taking part in any gaming in all gaming machine rooms; ( c ) require the respondent to not engage in all manner of general remote gambling; ( d ) all bans and requirements in paragraphs ( a ), ( b ) and ( c ) or any combination thereof, for as long as the circumstances in subsection (1) exist in relation to that person or for such other period as may be specified in the order. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (7) A visit limit made under subsection (1) against a person must — ( a ) specify the period during which it is in force; and ( b ) specify the maximum number of visits in aggregate that the person may make to any casino in each month. [36/2012] (8) In making a visit limit under subsection (1) against a person, the Committee may also refer the person to participate in a programme of counselling, rehabilitation or special education or any combination of these. [36/2012] (9) A Committee may, at any time, revoke an exclusion order or a visit limit made under subsection (1) against a person if, having regard to all the circumstances of the case, the Committee is of the opinion that an exclusion order or a visit limit would no longer be in the best interests of the person and his or her family members. [22/2009; 36/2012] (10) A person who is aggrieved by an exclusion order or a visit limit made against him or her by a Committee under subsection (1) may, within 30 days of being notified of the decision of the Committee, appeal to the Council whose decision is final. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s165A
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 165A
title: Persons to be excluded by law or self-excluded from casino
content:
165A. —(1) The following persons are subject to this section: ( a ) a person who is on such social assistance programme or subsidy scheme funded by the Government or any statutory body as the Minister may, by order in the Gazette , prescribe; ( b ) an undischarged bankrupt; ( c ) a person who makes a voluntary application in the prescribed form and manner to the Council for any of the following: (i) ban the person from — (A) entering or remaining on all casino premises; or (B) taking part in any gaming in all casino premises; (ii) ban the person from — (A) entering or remaining on all gaming machine rooms except to perform defined work within any of those rooms; or (B) taking part in any gaming in all gaming machine rooms; (iii) ban the person from engaging in all manner of general remote gambling; (iv) all bans in sub-paragraphs (i), (ii) and (iii) or any combination thereof. [22/2009; 36/2012] [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (2) The Minister may, by order in the Gazette , exempt any person or class of persons referred to in subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ) from subsection (3), subject to such conditions as may be specified in the order. [36/2012] (3) A person mentioned in subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ) is excluded from all of the following, starting the time the person’s name is entered in the list of excluded persons in section 168(1) and continues for so long as the circumstances in subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ) exist in relation to that person: ( a ) from — (i) entering or remaining on all casino premises except to perform defined work within any of those premises; and (ii) taking part in any gaming in all casino premises; ( b ) from — (i) entering or remaining on all gaming machine rooms except to perform defined work within any of those rooms; and (ii) taking part in any gaming in all gaming machine rooms; ( c ) from engaging in all manner of general remote gambling. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (4) A person referred to in subsection (1)( c ) is subject to the self‑exclusion which the person has applied for (whenever made) until such time that the Council, upon the person’s application, revokes the self‑exclusion. [36/2012] (5) The Council may, as a condition of revoking the self‑exclusion of a person (whenever made), require the person to — ( a ) participate in a programme of counselling, rehabilitation or special education; or ( b ) undergo an assessment of harm from gambling, including a clinical assessment if necessary, by a suitably qualified person appointed by the Council for this purpose, or any combination of these. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s165B
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 165B
title: Voluntary application for visit limit
content:
165B. —(1) A person may make a voluntary application for a visit limit against himself or herself in the prescribed form and manner to the Council. [36/2012] (2) A visit limit under subsection (1) must specify the maximum number of visits in aggregate that the person may make to any casino in each month. [36/2012] (3) A person is subject to the visit limit which the person has applied for under subsection (1) until such time that the Council, upon the person’s application, revokes the visit limit. [36/2012] (4) The Council may, as a condition of revoking a visit limit against a person, require the person to — ( a ) participate in a programme of counselling, rehabilitation or special education; or ( b ) undergo an assessment of harm from gambling, including a clinical assessment if necessary, by a suitably qualified person appointed by the Council for this purpose, or any combination of these. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s165C
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 165C
title: Making family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order in respondent’s absence
content:
165C. —(1) A family exclusion order, a visit limit or an exclusion order under section 162, 163A or 165(1) may be made by a Committee in the absence of the respondent if — ( a ) the respondent was served with the summons to appear at the hearing of the application under section 158 and, without reasonable excuse, failed to appear at the time and place appointed for the hearing, or has indicated that the respondent does not wish to attend the hearing; ( b ) the respondent was served with a notice to object under section 165(5) and failed to respond by the time and date specified in the notice, or has indicated that the respondent does not wish to respond; or ( c ) no service can be effected after reasonable efforts have been made to locate the respondent who cannot be found or is outside Singapore, and the Committee is satisfied that there are grounds for making the family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order under section 162, 163A or 165(1), as the case may be. [36/2012] (2) Any family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order made by virtue of this section takes effect on the date of the conclusion of the hearing under section 158 or the date specified in the notice under section 165(5) (as the case may be) or such later date as the Committee may specify, and continues in force until whichever of the following occurs first: ( a ) the family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order is set aside by a Committee on the application of the respondent under subsection (3); ( b ) the family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order expires; ( c ) the family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order is revoked under section 166. [36/2012] (3) An application to set aside any family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order made by virtue of this section may be made by the respondent within the prescribed time and in the prescribed manner. [36/2012] (4) A Committee may determine an application to set aside any family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order by confirming, varying or setting aside the order or visit limit. [36/2012] (5) The Committee at the hearing to set aside any family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order need not comprise the same members as the Committee which made the order or visit limit. [36/2012] (6) This section applies to any respondent against whom an application for a family exclusion order is made, whether made before, on or after 31 January 2013. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s165D
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 165D
title: Effect of visit limit
content:
165D. A respondent who has, in any month, made the maximum number of visits to any casino specified in a visit limit under section 163A, 165(1) or 165B against the respondent — ( a ) is excluded from entering into or remaining on, or taking part in any gaming on, any casino premises for the remainder of the month; and ( b ) ceases to be so excluded upon the commencement of the first day of the following month. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s166
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 166
title: Variation or revocation of family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order by Council
content:
166. —(1) The Council may confirm, vary or revoke — ( a ) a family exclusion order or a visit limit made under section 163A on an application by — (i) a family member for whose benefit the family exclusion order or visit limit was made; or (ii) the respondent; or ( b ) an exclusion order or a visit limit made under section 165(1) on an application by the respondent. [36/2012] (2) An application for variation or revocation of an order or a visit limit under subsection (1) may be made by the respondent only with the permission of the Council and permission is only to be granted if the Council is satisfied that there has been a substantial change in the relevant circumstances since the order or visit limit was made or last varied. [36/2012] (3) For the purposes of determining whether there has been a substantial change in the relevant circumstances, the Council may — ( a ) require the respondent to undergo an assessment of harm caused by gambling, including a clinical assessment if necessary, by a suitably qualified person appointed by the Council for this purpose; ( b ) require any person to furnish such information or produce such document or record in the possession or under the control of that person as the Council considers relevant to its determination; and ( c ) inspect, keep or make copies of such document or record. [36/2012] (4) The Council must, before confirming, varying or revoking an order or a visit limit under this section, allow the respondent and, in the case of a family exclusion order, a family member for whose benefit the order was made, a reasonable opportunity to be heard on the matter. [36/2012] (5) The decision of the Council under this section is final.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s167
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 167
title: Service of family exclusion order, visit limit or exclusion order
content:
167. —(1) Except in a case where an order or a visit limit has been made by virtue of section 165C(1)( c ), any family exclusion order, provisional family exclusion order, visit limit made under section 163A or 165(1) or exclusion order must be served on the respondent and is not binding on the person named in the order or visit limit until it has been so served. [36/2012] (2) If a family exclusion order, a provisional family exclusion order, a visit limit or an exclusion order is confirmed in an amended form or is varied at any time, the order or visit limit in its amended or varied form must be served on the respondent and until so served — ( a ) the variation is not binding on the respondent; and ( b ) the order or visit limit as in force prior to the variation continues to be binding on the respondent. [36/2012] (3) As soon as practicable after a family exclusion order or a visit limit under section 163A is made, varied or revoked, the Council must notify the applicant of the family exclusion order or visit limit of the making of the family exclusion order or visit limit, or the variation or revocation thereof, as the case may be. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s168
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 168
title: List of excluded persons
content:
168. —(1) The Council must establish, maintain and regularly update a list of excluded persons which sets out the names and particulars of every person (called collectively in this section excluded persons under this Part) who, for the time being is — ( a ) the respondent of a family exclusion order, a provisional family exclusion order or an exclusion order, or subject to exclusion or self‑exclusion under section 165A; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( b ) excluded under section 165D from any casino premises by reason of having made the maximum number of visits to any casino specified by a visit limit made against the person for the month; [36/2012] [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( c ) the person against whom an exclusion order is made under section 121(1) or 122(1); or [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( d ) the person against whom an entry ban is made under section 79 of the Gambling Control Act 2022. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (2) For the purposes of maintaining the list of excluded persons referred to in subsection (1)( b ), the Council may, by written notice, require a casino operator to furnish any information or produce any document or record in the possession or under the control of the casino operator relating to the number of visits made by any person to the casino. [36/2012] (3) The Council — ( a ) must provide the list of excluded persons to — (i) the Authority; (ii) the Commissioner of Police; and (iii) every casino operator; and ( b ) must make available to every gambling operator access to the list of excluded persons, without charge. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (4) Upon — ( a ) the cessation, revocation or setting aside of any family exclusion order, provisional family exclusion order, exclusion order or visit limit made against any person whose name is on the list of excluded persons; ( b ) the cessation of any exclusion or self-exclusion under section 165A, or revocation of any visit limit under section 165B, against any person whose name is on the list of excluded persons; [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( c ) the cessation of any exclusion under section 165D( b ); [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( ca ) the lapsing or revocation of any exclusion order made under section 121(1) or 122(1) against any person whose name is on the list of excluded persons; or [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( cb ) the lapsing or cancelling of an entry ban made under section 79 of the Gambling Control Act 2022 against any person whose name is on the list of excluded persons, [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] the Council must — ( d ) remove the name and particulars of the person from the list of excluded persons; and ( e ) notify the persons referred to in subsection (3)( a ) of the removal. [36/2012] [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (5) Without prejudice to subsection (4), the Council may vary or update the list of excluded persons — ( a ) to correct any clerical or other error in the names or particulars in the list; ( b ) to add the names and particulars of new persons to the list; or ( c ) to update any of the names or particulars in the list in order that they remain sufficient to identify any excluded person, and the Council must notify the persons referred to in subsection (3)( a ) of those variations and updates. [36/2012] [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] (6) It is a defence to any disciplinary action against a casino operator for a contravention of section 126(1) by permitting an excluded person under this Part to enter or remain on the casino premises if it is proved that — ( a ) before the person entered the casino premises or while the person was on the casino premises, there was produced to the casino operator or to its agent or employee proof of the person’s identity; and ( b ) at that time, the person’s name and particulars were not on the list of excluded persons furnished by the Council to the casino operator. [36/2012] (7) It is lawful for the person for the time being in charge of a casino, an agent of the casino operator or a casino employee to refuse entry to, or remove or cause to be removed from the casino premises using no more force than is reasonably necessary, any person whose name and particulars are at that time on the list of excluded persons furnished or notified by the Council to the casino operator. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s169
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 169
title: Secrecy of proceedings of Committee
content:
169. —(1) Except as provided under section 168 and this section, the proceedings of a Committee must be secret. (2) A member of a Committee must not disclose or divulge to any person, other than — ( a ) the Minister; ( b ) any member or officer of the Council; or ( c ) any officer of the Authority, any matter which has arisen at any proceedings of the Committee unless the member is expressly authorised to do so by the Minister or the respondent to whom the information relates has consented to the disclosure. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s170
chapter: PART 10 - NATIONAL COUNCIL ON PROBLEM GAMBLING
section: 170
title: Rules
content:
170. —(1) The Council may, with the approval of the Minister, make such rules as may be necessary or expedient to give effect to the provisions and purposes of this Part and for the due administration thereof. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Council may, with the approval of the Minister, make rules to prescribe — ( a ) the procedure for the conduct of any proceedings by the Council; ( b ) the procedure for the conduct of any proceedings by a Committee; ( c ) the forms necessary for the administration of this Part; and ( d ) any fees for an application and other charges for the purposes of this Part.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s170A
chapter: PART 10A - CASINO ADVERTISING AND
section: 170A
title: Casino advertising and promotions
content:
170A. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), a person must not carry out any advertising or promotional activities relating to a casino except with the approval of the Authority and in accordance with regulations made for such purpose under section 200. [36/2012] (2) Regulations made for the purposes of this section may — ( a ) specify the types of advertising and promotional activities for which approval is required; and ( b ) specify the persons or class of persons who are required to comply with this section. [36/2012] (3) Any casino operator, licensed special employee, licensed international market agent or licensed international market agent representative which or who, being required to comply with subsection (1), fails to do so shall be liable to disciplinary action. [36/2012] (4) Any person (other than a person referred to in subsection (3)) who, being required to comply with subsection (1), fails to do so shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s170B
chapter: PART 10A - CASINO ADVERTISING AND
section: 170B
title: Responsible gambling requirements
content:
170B. —(1) A casino operator must, at all times while the casino is in operation, establish and implement a responsible gambling programme approved by the Authority which meets the responsible gambling requirements prescribed by regulations made under section 200. [36/2012] (2) A casino operator which contravenes subsection (1) shall be liable to disciplinary action. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s170C
chapter: PART 10A - CASINO ADVERTISING AND
section: 170C
title: Audit on advertising or responsible gambling
content:
170C. —(1) The Authority may, at any time, appoint a special auditor to undertake an audit of a casino operator’s advertising and promotional activities or responsible gambling practices. [36/2012] (2) The Authority may, instead of appointing a special auditor under subsection (1), by a written notice issued to a casino operator — ( a ) require the casino operator to appoint a person approved by the Authority as a special auditor to undertake the audit of the casino operator’s advertising and promotional activities or responsible gambling practices; and ( b ) specify the terms of reference for the audit referred to in paragraph ( a ) and the time within which it must be completed. [36/2012] (3) A casino operator to whom a notice in subsection (2) is directed must, at its own expense, engage a person approved by the Authority as a special auditor to conduct the audit in accordance with the terms of reference and within the time specified in the notice. [36/2012] (4) Where a casino operator fails to comply with subsection (3), the Authority may appoint a special auditor to undertake the audit and recover the cost of the audit from the casino operator. [36/2012] (5) A casino operator must provide all reasonable assistance to a special auditor appointed or engaged under this section. [36/2012] (6) The special auditor who is appointed or engaged to undertake the audit of a casino operator’s advertising and promotional activities or responsible gambling practices must submit the special auditor’s report, all relevant supporting documents and such other information or report as the Authority may specify in relation to the audit, to the Authority not later than 60 days after the conclusion of the audit or within such other period as the Authority may specify in any particular case. [36/2012] (7) A casino operator which fails to comply with subsection (3) shall be liable to disciplinary action. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s170D
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 170D
title: Proxy gambling outside of casino
content:
170D. —(1) An individual who — ( a ) is not present within the casino premises; and ( b ) is an individual on whose behalf another individual is gambling in the casino premises, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. (2) To avoid doubt, subsection (1) applies whether or not the individual — ( a ) who is in any casino premises; and ( b ) who gambles within the casino premises on behalf of an accused charged with an offence under subsection (1), is convicted of any offence under the provisions of this Act. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s171
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 171
title: Possession, use, etc., of certain things prohibited
content:
171. —(1) A person must not use any device for the purpose of enabling the person or some other person to count or otherwise record cards dealt in the course of gaming in the casino. [36/2012] (2) A person must not, whether in a casino or elsewhere — ( a ) use as genuine chips that the person knows or has reason to believe to be counterfeit chips; ( b ) have in the person’s possession chips that the person knows or has reason to believe to be counterfeit chips, intending that the same may be used as genuine; or ( c ) sell, buy or otherwise deal in chips that the person knows or has reason to believe to be counterfeit chips, intending that the same may be used as genuine. [36/2012] (3) A person must not, in any casino or within any designated site, use or have in the person’s possession or under the person’s control — ( a ) any device, machine, implement or other material — (i) for the purpose of counterfeiting chips, or knowing or having reason to believe that the same is intended to be used for that purpose; or (ii) that the person knows or has reason to believe is or has been specially designed or adapted for the making of counterfeit chips; ( b ) cards, dice or coins that the person knows or has reason to believe have been marked, loaded or tampered with; ( c ) any equipment, device or thing that permits or facilitates cheating or stealing; or ( d ) such other thing as may be prescribed. [36/2012] (4) A person must not, in any place outside a designated site, have in the person’s possession or under the person’s control any of the things in subsection (3)( a ) to ( d ) — ( a ) knowing or having reason to believe that the device, machine, implement or material is or has been specially designed or adapted for the making of counterfeit chips; and ( b ) with the intention that the person or someone else will use the device, machine, implement or material to make counterfeit chips. [36/2012] (5) Any person who contravenes subsection (1), (2), (3) or (4) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $150,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or to both; or ( b ) in the case of a corporation, to a fine not exceeding $300,000. [36/2012] (6) Subsection (2) or (3) does not prohibit the possession in a casino of any thing referred to in that subsection by a person in charge of the casino, an agent of the casino operator, a casino employee, an inspector, or a police officer, if that thing has been seized by any of those persons from another person for use as evidence in proceedings for an offence. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s172
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 172
title: Unlawful interference with gaming equipment
content:
172. —(1) A person must not, whether in a casino or elsewhere — ( a ) be in possession of any device made or adapted, or intended by the person to be used, for improperly interfering with gaming equipment; ( b ) do any act or thing calculated, or likely, to improperly interfere with gaming equipment; or ( c ) insert, or cause to be inserted, in a gaming machine any thing other than Singapore currency or a gaming token of the denomination or type displayed on the gaming machine as a gaming token to be used in order to operate or gain credit on the gaming machine. [36/2012] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $150,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or to both; or ( b ) in the case of a corporation, to a fine not exceeding $300,000. (3) If a police officer or an inspector believes on reasonable grounds that a person has committed an offence under subsection (1), the police officer or inspector may search the person for any device or thing that the police officer or inspector suspects was used in the commission of the offence. (4) Nothing in subsection (3) authorises any police officer or inspector to remove, or require a person to remove, any of the person’s clothing, and a search of a person’s clothing being worn by the person may only be done by a police officer or an inspector of the same sex as the person. [36/2012] (5) This section applies only in relation to — ( a ) a gaming machine that is situated within a casino; and ( b ) gaming equipment used for or in connection with gaming within a casino. [Act 15 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s172A
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 172A
title: Cheating at play
content:
172A. —(1) A person must not, in relation to the playing of any game in a casino, obtain or attempt to obtain any money or advantage for himself or herself or any other person — ( a ) by a fraudulent trick, device, sleight of hand or representation; ( b ) by a fraudulent scheme or practice; ( c ) by the fraudulent use of gaming equipment or any other thing; or ( d ) by placing a bet in a game after the result of the game is known. [36/2012] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $150,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or to both. [36/2012] (3) Any person who colludes with another person to do any act in contravention of subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to be punished with the punishment provided for the offence under subsection (2). [36/2012] (4) If a police officer or an inspector believes on reasonable grounds that a person has committed, or colluded in the commission of, an offence of contravening subsection (1), the police officer or inspector may search the person for any device, gaming equipment, implement or material that the police officer or inspector suspects was used in the commission of the offence. [36/2012] (5) Nothing in subsection (4) authorises any police officer or inspector to remove, or require a person to remove, any of the person’s clothing, and a search of a person’s clothing being worn by the person may only be done by a police officer or an inspector of the same sex as the person. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s173
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 173
title: Possession of chips outside designated site
content:
173. —(1) A person must not, except in a casino or on premises within any designated site, have in the person’s possession chips of the aggregate value of $10,000 or more, or such other amount as may be prescribed in substitution thereof. [36/2012] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $150,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or to both.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s174
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 174
title: Forgery and counterfeiting
content:
174. —(1) A person must not — ( a ) forge or counterfeit chips, a chip purchase voucher, a match play coupon, a licence under this Act or a special employee’s form of identification; or ( b ) use as genuine a forged or counterfeit chip purchase voucher, match play coupon, licence under this Act or special employee’s form of identification, knowing or having reason to believe the same to be forged or counterfeit. [36/2012] (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $150,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or to both; or ( b ) in the case of a corporation, to a fine not exceeding $300,000.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s175
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 175
title: Impersonation
content:
175. —(1) A person must not impersonate — ( a ) the holder of a special employee licence; or ( b ) an inspector. (2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $25,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s175A
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 175A
title: Entering casino on false pretences
content:
175A. Any person who enters any casino by pretending to be some other person, or by using another person’s identification document, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s175B
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 175B
title: Commissioner of Police and authorised police officer may obtain information
content:
175B. —(1) The Commissioner of Police, or a police officer not below the rank of superintendent authorised by the Commissioner, may, if he or she is of the opinion that it is necessary to respond to a security threat, a threat to law and order or a threat of criminal infiltration, by a written notice, require a casino operator or a special employee to provide the Commissioner or police officer with such information as may be specified in the notice concerning the casino operations or any person in or connected with the casino. [36/2012] (2) A certificate purporting to be under the hand of the Commissioner of Police, or a police officer not below the rank of superintendent authorised by the Commissioner, that the information specified in the notice is necessary under subsection (1) is sufficient evidence of that fact. [36/2012] (3) Any person to whom a notice under subsection (1) is given who, without reasonable excuse, fails to provide the specified information within the time specified in the notice shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $125,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $12,500 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction; or ( b ) in any other case, to a fine not exceeding $250,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $25,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s176
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 176
title: Refusal to provide information, etc.
content:
176. —(1) Any person who — ( a ) without reasonable excuse, fails to produce for inspection any machinery, equipment, record or thing in the possession or under the control of the person when required to do so by an inspector or a police officer in the performance of his or her functions under this Act; or ( b ) without reasonable excuse, fails to attend before an inspector or a police officer and answer questions or supply information when required to do so by the inspector or police officer in the performance of his or her functions under this Act, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. [36/2012] (2) If a person is charged with an offence under subsection (1) in respect of a requirement to produce any record, it is a defence for the person to prove that — ( a ) the record was not in the person’s possession or under the person’s control; and [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( b ) it was not reasonably practicable for the person to comply with the requirement. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (3) If a person is charged with an offence under subsection (1) in respect of a requirement — ( a ) to provide information; ( b ) to provide an explanation of any record; or [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( c ) to state where any record is to be found, it is a defence for the person to prove that the person had a reasonable excuse for failing to comply with the requirement. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s177
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 177
title: Destroying or falsifying records
content:
177. Any person who, having been required to produce any record to the Authority, an inspector or an authorised person under this Act, or knowing that such a record is required to be so produced — ( a ) intentionally or recklessly destroys or otherwise disposes of it, falsifies it or conceals it; or ( b ) causes or permits its destruction, disposal, falsification or concealment, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction — ( c ) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $125,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both; or ( d ) in any other case, to a fine not exceeding $250,000. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s178
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 178
title: False or misleading information
content:
178. —(1) Any person who provides information to the Authority, a police officer, an inspector or any authorised person in connection with any application to the Authority or any function or duty of the Authority, police officer, inspector or authorised person under this Act shall be guilty of an offence if — ( a ) the information is false or misleading in a material particular; and ( b ) that person knows that it is false or misleading in a material particular or is reckless as to whether it is so. (2) A person who — ( a ) provides any information to another person, knowing the information to be false or misleading in a material particular; or ( b ) recklessly provides any information to another person which is false or misleading in a material particular, knowing that the information is to be used for the purpose of providing information to the Authority, a police officer, an inspector or any authorised person in connection with any application to the Authority or any function or duty of the Authority, police officer, inspector or authorised person under this Act, shall be guilty of an offence. (3) Any person guilty of an offence under subsection (1) or (2) shall be liable on conviction — ( a ) in the case of an individual, to a fine not exceeding $125,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both; or ( b ) in any other case, to a fine not exceeding $250,000. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s179
chapter: PART 11 - GENERAL OFFENCES
section: 179
title: Obstructing officer of Authority, etc.
content:
179. Any person who refuses to give access to, or obstructs, hinders or delays — ( a ) any member, officer, employee or agent of the Authority authorised to act for or assist the Authority; ( b ) any inspector or person assisting an inspector; or ( c ) any authorised person, in the discharge of his or her duties under this Act shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s180
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 180
title: Detention of suspected person
content:
180. —(1) A person who is — ( a ) for the time being in charge of a casino; ( b ) an agent of the casino operator; or ( c ) a casino employee, and who suspects on reasonable grounds that a person within the casino premises is committing, attempting to commit or has committed any offence under Part 11 or under a prescribed provision of this Act may detain the suspected person in a suitable place on or near the casino premises until the arrival at the place of detention of a police officer or an inspector. (2) A person may not be detained under this section unless — ( a ) no more force is used than may be reasonably necessary; ( b ) the person detained is informed of the reasons for the detention; and ( c ) the person effecting the detention immediately notifies a police officer or an inspector of the detention and the reasons for the detention.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s181
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 181
title: Powers of enforcement
content:
181. —(1) In addition to the powers conferred on him or her by this Act or any other written law, an inspector or authorised person may, for the purposes of investigating any offence or contravention of a provision of this Act which may result in disciplinary action, do all or any of the following: ( a ) require any person whom the inspector or authorised person reasonably believes to have committed that offence or contravention to furnish evidence of the person’s identity; ( b ) require any person to furnish any information or produce any record, document or copy thereof in the possession of that person, and may, without fee or reward, inspect, copy or make extracts from such record or document; ( c ) require, by written order, the attendance before the inspector or authorised person of any person within the limits of Singapore who, from any information given or otherwise obtained by the inspector or authorised person, appears to be acquainted with the circumstances of the case; ( d ) examine orally any person who appears to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of matters under this Act — (i) whether before or after that person or anyone else is charged with an offence, or disciplinary proceedings are commenced, in connection with the matter; and (ii) whether or not that person is to be called as a witness in any inquiry, trial or disciplinary proceedings in connection with the matter. [36/2012] (2) Any person examined under this section is bound to state truly what that person knows of the facts and circumstances concerning matters under this Act, except that he or she need not say anything that might expose him or her to a criminal charge, penalty or forfeiture. [36/2012] (3) A statement made by any person examined under this section must — ( a ) be reduced to writing; ( b ) be read over to that person; ( c ) if that person does not understand English, be interpreted in a language that he or she understands; and ( d ) after correction, if necessary, be signed by that person. [36/2012] (4) If any person fails to attend as required by an order under subsection (1)( c ), the inspector or authorised person may report such failure to a Magistrate who may thereupon issue a warrant to secure the attendance of that person as required by the order. [36/2012] (5) Any person who — ( a ) wilfully mis-states or without lawful excuse refuses to give any information or produce any record, document or copy thereof required of that person by an inspector or authorised person under subsection (1); or ( b ) fails to comply with a lawful demand of an inspector or authorised person in the discharge by such inspector or authorised person of his or her duties under this Act or any other written law, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s182
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 182
title: Powers of arrest
content:
182. —(1) Any inspector or authorised person may arrest without warrant any person whom the inspector or authorised person reasonably believes has committed an arrestable offence under this Act. [36/2012] (2) Any inspector or authorised person who is not a police officer may exercise all or any of the powers in relation to investigations into an arrestable offence conferred on a police officer by the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 in any case relating to the commission of an arrestable offence under this Act or in any case where an arrestable offence is disclosed under any written law in the course of an investigation under this Act. [36/2012] (3) For the purposes of subsection (2), when an inspector or authorised person who is not a police officer is exercising the powers of a police officer under that subsection, the inspector or authorised person is deemed to be an officer not below the rank of inspector of police. [15/2010] (4) For the purposes of this section, offences punishable with imprisonment for 3 years or upwards and an offence under section 179 are deemed to be arrestable offences within the meaning of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s183
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 183
title: Arrest on refusal to give name and residence
content:
183. —(1) An inspector or authorised person may arrest any person who is accused of committing, or who commits in the view or presence of the inspector or authorised person, a non‑arrestable offence if, on the demand of the inspector or authorised person, that person refuses to give his or her name and residential address. [36/2012] (2) An inspector or authorised person may arrest such a person who gives a residential address outside Singapore, or a name or residential address which the inspector or authorised person has reason to believe is false. [36/2012] (3) Any person arrested under this section must be brought to a police station as soon as reasonably practicable and may, if required by a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant, be released upon signing a bond, with or without surety, to appear before a Magistrate. [36/2012] (4) If the person refuses or is unable to sign the bond as required, he or she must, within 24 hours of the arrest (excluding the time necessary for the journey to a Magistrate’s Court), be brought before a Magistrate’s Court. [36/2012] (5) The person who is brought before a Magistrate’s Court under subsection (4) may — ( a ) be ordered to be detained in custody until he or she can be tried; or ( b ) if so required by the Magistrate, be released upon signing a bond, with or without surety, to appear before a Magistrate’s Court. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s183AA
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 183AA
title: Bail and bond
content:
183AA. —(1) A person who has been arrested by an inspector or authorised person under section 182(1) may be released on bail or on personal bond granted by any inspector or any authorised person. (2) Division 5 (Bails and bonds) of Part 6 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 applies to the release of a person on bail or on personal bond under this section or section 92 or 93 of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 (as the case may be) with the following modifications: ( a ) any reference to “officer”, “police officer” or “police officer of or above the rank of sergeant” is to be read to include an inspector or an authorised person; ( b ) the reference to the Commissioner of Police in section 92(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 is to be read to include the Chief Executive. [Act 16 of 2024 wef 17/06/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s183A
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 183A
title: Power to enter premises
content:
183A. —(1) An inspector or authorised person may enter at any reasonable time without notice any premises of a holder of a licence or approval granted under this Act for the purpose of investigating any offence or contravention of a provision of this Act which may result in disciplinary action, and may do all or any of the following: ( a ) search the premises and take possession of any thing found therein and reasonably believed to be connected to the commission of the offence or the contravention; ( b ) require the production of records and documents relating or reasonably believed to relate to the commission of the offence or the contravention, wherever and by whomsoever kept, and take and retain extracts or copies thereof; ( c ) compel any person who is able to operate any equipment at the premises to do so for the purpose of enabling the inspector or authorised person to ascertain whether the equipment, or a disk, tape or other storage device that can be used or associated with the equipment, contains information that is relevant to the investigation; ( d ) if such information is found in exercise of the power in paragraph ( c ) — (i) produce, or compel the production of, the information in documentary form, and keep or copy the documents so produced; or (ii) transfer, or compel the transfer of, the information to a disk, tape or other storage device, and remove it from the premises. [36/2012] (2) Where an inspector or authorised person has reasonable grounds to suspect that there is, on any premises (including premises other than those referred to in subsection (1)), any record, document or information the production of which has been required under subsection (1) or section 181(1)( b ), and — ( a ) which has not been produced in compliance with that requirement; or ( b ) which the inspector or authorised person has reasonable grounds to believe will not be produced in compliance with that requirement, the inspector or authorised person may apply to a Magistrate for the issue of a warrant to search the premises for such record, document or information. [36/2012] (3) Whenever it appears to a Magistrate, upon an application made under subsection (2), and after such enquiry as he or she may think necessary, that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that there is, on particular premises, any record, document or information the production of which has been required under subsection (1) or section 181(1)( b ), and — ( a ) which has not been produced in compliance with that requirement; or ( b ) which the Magistrate has reasonable grounds to suspect will not be produced in compliance with that requirement, the Magistrate may issue a warrant authorising the inspector or authorised person or any person named therein, with or without assistance — ( c ) to enter and search the premises and to break open and search anything, whether a fixture or not, in the premises; and ( d ) to take possession of, or secure against interference, any record or document, or equipment, disk, tape or other storage device containing information, that appears to be a record or document, or to contain information, the production of which was so required. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s184
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 184
title: Request for review by Authority or appeal to Minister
content:
184. —(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, any decision of the Authority under this Act is final and is not subject to appeal or review. [36/2012] (2) Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Authority (other than a decision under section 93A, 110C or 114) may, within 28 days after being notified of the decision, or such longer period as the Authority may allow in any particular case for special reasons, make a request to the Authority to review the decision. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (3) A request for review under subsection (2) must — ( a ) be in writing; and ( b ) specify the grounds on which it is made. [36/2012] (4) Any person who has made a request for review under subsection (2) must provide such information as may be required by the Authority in such manner and within such period as may be specified by the Authority. [36/2012] (5) The Authority may determine any request for review by confirming, varying or reversing its decision. [36/2012] (6) A person aggrieved by any decision of the Authority — ( a ) to cancel or suspend, or to refuse to grant, any licence or any approval or consent under section 53 or 55; [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( b ) to amend, or to refuse to amend, the conditions of any licence; ( ba ) to refuse an application for approval under section 65 or 66, impose any condition under section 67(2), issue a notice of objection under section 69, make any directions under section 69(4) in a written notice of objection or make any direction under section 70(1); [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( c ) to issue, or to refuse to revoke, any exclusion order under section 121; [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( d ) to require the termination of a contract under section 76; or [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( e ) under subsection (5) regarding any matter mentioned in paragraphs ( a ) to ( d ), may, within 28 days after being notified of the Authority’s decision, or such longer period as the Minister may allow in any particular case for special reasons, appeal to the Minister whose decision is final. [36/2012] [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] (7) An appeal must — ( a ) be in writing; and ( b ) specify the grounds on which it is made. (8) Any person who has made an appeal to the Minister under subsection (6) must provide such information as may be required by the Minister in such manner and within such period as may be specified by the Minister. [36/2012] (9) The Minister may reject the appeal of an appellant — ( a ) who fails to comply with subsection (6), (7) or (8); or [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( b ) who has not first made a request for review of the same decision by the Authority under subsection (2), or under section 93A(2) or 110C(2), as the case may be. [36/2012] (10) After consideration of an appeal, the Minister may — ( a ) reject the appeal and confirm the decision; or ( b ) allow the appeal (in whole or part) and substitute a new decision or vary the decision, and the appellant must be notified in writing of the Minister’s decision in respect of the appellant’s appeal accordingly. (11) Nothing in this section prejudices the right of the Authority to make a further decision in respect of that person for a reason considered sufficient by the Authority. (12) A review of or an appeal against a decision does not affect the operation of the decision or prevent the taking of action to implement the decision, and unless otherwise provided by the Authority or the Minister, the decision under review or appealed against must be complied with until the determination of the review or appeal, as the case may be. [36/2012] (13) The Minister may make regulations to provide for the manner in which an appeal to the Minister may be made and the procedure to be adopted in any such appeal. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s184A
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 184A
title: Designate may hear appeal in place of Minister
content:
184A. —(1) The Minister may designate any of the following office‑holders in his or her Ministry to hear and determine, in the Minister’s place, any appeal made under section 184(6): ( a ) the Second Minister, if any; ( b ) any Minister of State or Senior Minister of State; ( c ) any Parliamentary Secretary or Senior Parliamentary Secretary. (2) A reference to the Minister in section 184 (except for the power to make regulations under section 184(13)) includes a reference to a person designated under subsection (1). [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s185
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 185
title: No right to compensation for cancellation, etc.
content:
185. Subject to section 4, no right to compensation enforceable against the Authority arises in relation to the cancellation, suspension or variation of the terms of any licence or approval, or an amendment of the conditions of any licence or approval, under this Act. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s185A
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 185A
title: Grant of licence or approval a revocable privilege
content:
185A. To avoid doubt, any licence or approval granted under this Act is a revocable privilege. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s185B
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 185B
title: Investigations of suitability
content:
185B. —(1) Where the Authority is required to be satisfied that any applicant for a licence or an approval, or any other person connected to the application, is suitable or qualified for the purposes of the licence or approval, the burden of proving that suitability or qualification is on the applicant and each other person connected to the application, as the case may be. [36/2012] (2) For the purposes of meeting any costs arising out of investigations in connection with the suitability of any person to be granted or to continue to hold a licence or an approval, the Authority may, by written notice, require the applicant for or the holder of any licence or approval granted under this Act to furnish to the Authority a deposit or prepayment of such amount as the Authority may determine. [36/2012] (3) For the purposes of investigating the suitability of the applicant for a licence or approval, the Authority may cause to be carried out all such investigations and inquiries in relation to the applicant or each applicant (in the case of a consolidated application) as the Authority considers necessary to enable it to consider the application properly and, in particular, may — ( a ) investigate the applicant and any person whose association with the applicant is, in the opinion of the Authority, relevant to the application insofar as it affects the applicant’s suitability to be licensed or approved; ( b ) require the applicant or any person whose association with the applicant is, in the opinion of the Authority, relevant to the application to — (i) provide such information or produce such records relevant to the investigation of the application as may be necessary; (ii) provide such authorisations or consents as the Authority may direct for the purpose of enabling the Authority to obtain information (including financial and other confidential information) concerning the person and the person’s associates from other persons; or (iii) consent to having his or her photograph, fingerprints and palm prints taken; and ( c ) send a copy of the application and any photograph, fingerprints and palm prints taken under paragraph ( b )(iii), and any supporting documents to the Commissioner of Police. (4) The Authority may refuse to consider an application if any person from whom it requires information, records, authorisations or consents, photographs, fingerprints or palm prints under this section in relation to that application refuses to so provide. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s185C
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 185C
title: Security deposit
content:
185C. The Authority may, by written notice, require the holder of any licence or approval granted under this Act to furnish to the Authority a performance bond, deposit or some other form of security of such amount as the Authority may determine for the purpose of meeting any financial penalty arising out of any disciplinary proceedings commenced or likely to commence against the holder of the licence or approval. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s185D
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 185D
title: Enforceable undertakings
content:
185D. —(1) The Authority may accept a written undertaking given by a holder of any licence or approval granted by the Authority under this Act (called in this section a licensed or approved person), in connection with any matter within the powers and functions of the Authority under this Act. [36/2012] (2) Without limiting the matters to which the written undertaking may relate, the undertaking may include any of the following: ( a ) an undertaking to take specified action within a specified time; ( b ) an undertaking to refrain from taking specified action; ( c ) an undertaking to compensate a specified person a specified amount within a specified time. [36/2012] (3) A licensed or approved person may vary or withdraw any written undertaking given by that person only with the permission of the Authority in writing. [36/2012] (4) If the Authority is satisfied that any licensed or approved person has failed to comply with any term of the written undertaking given by that person, the Authority may apply to a court for an order under subsection (5). [36/2012] (5) If the court is satisfied that any licensed or approved person has failed to comply with any term of the written undertaking given by that person, the court may make an order directing the licensed or approved person to comply with the term or terms of the undertaking, or any other order that the court considers appropriate for the purposes of this Act. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s186
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 186
title: Information gathering for law enforcement purposes
content:
186. —(1) For the purpose of carrying out its duties and functions under this Act or obtaining information that may be of assistance to a law enforcement agency, the Authority may direct a casino operator in writing to provide the Authority with information obtained by the casino operator concerning the operations of the casino. (2) Such direction may relate to particular information or to information generally and may relate to particular or general information concerning a specified person. (3) The direction must specify — ( a ) the kind of information that the casino operator is required to provide; and ( b ) the manner in which the information is to be provided. (4) Any casino operator which fails to comply with a direction under this section shall be liable to disciplinary action. [36/2012] (5) The Authority may make information obtained by the Authority under this section available to any law enforcement agency. (6) In this section, “law enforcement agency” means — ( a ) the Singapore Police Force; ( b ) the Central Narcotics Bureau; ( c ) the Corrupt Practices Investigation Bureau; or ( d ) any other authority or person responsible for the enforcement of any written law. (7) The provisions of this section are in addition to, and not in derogation of, any other written law conferring powers on any law enforcement agency to obtain information.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s187
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 187
title: Protection of informers
content:
187. —(1) Except as provided in subsection (3), no witness in any civil or criminal proceedings is obliged — ( a ) to disclose the name and address of any informer who has given information with respect to an offence under this Act; or ( b ) to answer any question if the answer would lead, or would tend to lead, to the discovery of the name or address of any informer. (2) If any record, document or paper which is in evidence or liable to inspection in any civil or criminal proceedings contains any entry in which any informer is named or described or which may lead to the informer’s discovery, the court is to cause those entries to be concealed from view or to be obliterated so far as may be necessary to protect the informer from discovery. [36/2012] (3) If — ( a ) in any proceedings before a court for an offence under this Act, the court, after full inquiry into the case, is satisfied that an informer wilfully made a material statement which the informer knew or believed to be false or did not believe to be true; or ( b ) in any other proceedings, the court is of the opinion that justice cannot be fully done between the parties thereto without the disclosure of the name of an informer, the court may permit inquiry and require full disclosure concerning the informer.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s188
chapter: PART 12 - ENFORCEMENT POWERS AND PROCEEDINGS
section: 188
title: Evidence
content:
188. —(1) In proceedings under this Act, an assertion — ( a ) that, at a specified time or during a specified period, a specified person was the Minister administering any part of this Act; ( b ) that, at a specified time or during a specified period, a specified person held, or is acting in, a specified office; ( c ) that a signature purporting to be the signature of a Minister, an inspector, a police officer or an authorised person is the signature it purports to be; ( d ) that, at a specified time or during a specified period, a specified person was, or was not, the holder of a specified licence, permit, approval or other authorisation under this Act; or ( e ) that, at a specified time, a person attained a specified age or that, at a specified time or during a specified period, a specified person was below or above a specified age, is evidence of the fact or facts asserted. [36/2012] (2) In proceedings under this Act — ( a ) a document purporting to be a copy of a direction, notice, order, requirement or decision given or made under this Act is evidence of a direction, notice, order, requirement or decision of which it purports to be a copy; ( b ) a document purporting to be a copy of a licence, permit, approval or other authorisation under this Act is evidence of the licence, permit, approval or authorisation of which it purports to be a copy; and ( c ) evidence that a person accepted service of a document is evidence of the authority of the person to accept service of the document.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s189
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 189
title: Offences by corporations
content:
189. —(1) Where, in a proceeding for an offence under this Act, it is necessary to prove the state of mind of a corporation in relation to a particular conduct, evidence that — ( a ) an officer, employee or agent of the corporation engaged in that conduct within the scope of his or her actual or apparent authority; and ( b ) the officer, employee or agent had that state of mind, is evidence that the corporation had that state of mind. (2) Where a corporation commits an offence under this Act, a person — ( a ) who is — (i) an officer of the corporation; or (ii) an individual involved in the management of the corporation and in a position to influence the conduct of the corporation in relation to the commission of the offence; and ( b ) who — (i) consented or connived, or conspired with others, to effect the commission of the offence; (ii) is in any other way, whether by act or omission, knowingly concerned in, or is party to, the commission of the offence by the corporation; or (iii) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the offence by the corporation (or an offence of the same type) would be or is being committed, and failed to take all reasonable steps to prevent or stop the commission of that offence, shall be guilty of that same offence as is the corporation, and shall be liable on conviction to be punished accordingly. (3) A person mentioned in subsection (2) may rely on a defence that would be available to the corporation if it were charged with the offence with which the person is charged and, in doing so, the person bears the same burden of proof that the corporation would bear. (4) To avoid doubt, this section does not affect the application of — ( a ) Chapters 5 and 5A of the Penal Code 1871; or ( b ) the Evidence Act 1893 or any other law or practice regarding the admissibility of evidence. (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) also does not affect the liability of the corporation for an offence under this Act, and applies whether or not the corporation is convicted of the offence. (6) In this section — “corporation” includes a limited liability partnership; “officer”, in relation to a corporation, means any director, partner, chief executive, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the corporation, and includes — ( a ) any person purporting to act in any such capacity; and ( b ) for a corporation whose affairs are managed by its members, any of those members as if the member were a director of the corporation; “reasonable steps”, in relation to the commission of an offence, includes, but is not limited to, such action (if any) of the following kinds as is reasonable in all the circumstances: ( a ) action towards — (i) assessing the corporation’s compliance with the provision creating the offence; and (ii) ensuring that the corporation arranged regular professional assessments of its compliance with the provision; ( b ) action towards ensuring that the corporation’s employees, agents and contractors are provided with information, training, instruction and supervision appropriate to them to enable them to comply with the provision creating the offence so far as the provision is relevant to them; ( c ) action towards ensuring that — (i) the equipment and other resources; and (ii) the structures, work systems and other processes, relevant to compliance with the provision creating the offence are appropriate in all the circumstances; ( d ) action towards creating and maintaining a corporate culture that does not direct, encourage, tolerate or lead to non‑compliance with the provision creating the offence; “state of mind” of a person includes — ( a ) the knowledge, intention, opinion, belief or purpose of the person; and ( b ) the person’s reasons for the intention, opinion, belief or purpose. (7) The Minister may make rules to provide for the application of any provision of this section, with such modifications as the Minister considers appropriate, to any corporation formed or recognised under the law of a territory outside Singapore. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s189A
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 189A
title: Offences by unincorporated associations or partnerships
content:
189A. —(1) Where, in a proceeding for an offence under this Act, it is necessary to prove the state of mind of an unincorporated association or a partnership in relation to a particular conduct, evidence that — ( a ) an employee or agent of the unincorporated association or partnership engaged in that conduct within the scope of his or her actual or apparent authority; and ( b ) the employee or agent had that state of mind, is evidence that the unincorporated association or partnership had that state of mind. (2) Where an unincorporated association or a partnership commits an offence under this Act, a person — ( a ) who is — (i) an officer of the unincorporated association or a member of its governing body; (ii) a partner in the partnership; or (iii) an individual involved in the management of the unincorporated association or partnership and in a position to influence the conduct of the unincorporated association or partnership (as the case may be) in relation to the commission of the offence; and ( b ) who — (i) consented or connived, or conspired with others, to effect the commission of the offence; (ii) is in any other way, whether by act or omission, knowingly concerned in, or is party to, the commission of the offence by the unincorporated association or partnership; or (iii) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the offence by the unincorporated association or partnership (or an offence of the same type) would be or is being committed, and failed to take all reasonable steps to prevent or stop the commission of that offence, shall be guilty of the same offence as is the unincorporated association or partnership (as the case may be), and shall be liable on conviction to be punished accordingly. (3) A person mentioned in subsection (2) may rely on a defence that would be available to the unincorporated association or partnership if it were charged with the offence with which the person is charged and, in doing so, the person bears the same burden of proof that the unincorporated association or partnership would bear. (4) To avoid doubt, this section does not affect the application of — ( a ) Chapters 5 and 5A of the Penal Code 1871; or ( b ) the Evidence Act 1893 or any other law or practice regarding the admissibility of evidence. (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (2) also does not affect the liability of an unincorporated association or a partnership for an offence under this Act, and applies whether or not the unincorporated association or partnership is convicted of the offence. (6) In this section — “officer”, in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary or any member of a committee of the unincorporated association, and includes — ( a ) any person holding a position analogous to that of president, secretary or member of a committee of the unincorporated association; and ( b ) any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner; “reasonable steps” has the meaning given by section 189(6) except that any reference to the corporation is a reference to the unincorporated association or partnership mentioned in subsection (2); “state of mind” of a person includes — ( a ) the knowledge, intention, opinion, belief or purpose of the person; and ( b ) the person’s reasons for the intention, opinion, belief or purpose. (7) The Minister may make rules to provide for the application of any provision of this section, with such modifications as the Minister considers appropriate, to any unincorporated association or partnership formed or recognised under the law of a territory outside Singapore. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s190
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 190
title: Preservation of secrecy
content:
190. —(1) Except for the purpose of the performance of his or her duties or the exercise of his or her functions or when lawfully required to do so by any court or where required or allowed by the provisions of any written law, no person who is or has been — ( a ) a member, an officer, an employee or an agent of the Authority; ( b ) a person on secondment or attachment to the Authority; ( c ) a person authorised, appointed, employed, engaged or directed by the Authority to exercise the Authority’s powers, perform the Authority’s functions or discharge the Authority’s duties or to assist the Authority in the exercise of its powers, the performance of its functions or the discharge of its duties under this Act or any other written law; [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( d ) an inspector or a person authorised, appointed or employed to assist an inspector in connection with any function or duty of the inspector under this Act; ( e ) a member of any committee appointed by the Authority under section 112(4); [Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( f ) a member, a secretary or an officer of the evaluation panel appointed under section 45A; or ( g ) a member, a secretary or an officer of the Council, may disclose any information relating to the affairs of the Authority or of any other person which has been obtained by him or her in the performance of his or her duties or the exercise of his or her functions. [36/2012; 5/2018] (2) Despite subsection (1), any person referred to in paragraphs ( a ) to ( e ) of that subsection may — ( a ) furnish to the Comptroller or an officer of the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore authorised by the Comptroller any information relating to casino tax which may be required by the Comptroller or officer in the performance of his or her duties; and ( b ) permit the Comptroller or an officer of the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore authorised by the Comptroller to have access to, including taking copies of, such records or documents relating to casino tax in the possession of the Authority as the Chief Executive may allow, where the Chief Executive is satisfied that such information or access is necessary for the performance of the duties of the Comptroller or officer. [22/2009; 36/2012] (3) Despite subsection (1), any person referred to in that subsection may furnish any information, report or document obtained in the performance of his or her duties or in the exercise of his or her functions under this Act to any individual or statutory body set out in the Second Schedule for the purpose of enabling the performance or discharge by that individual or statutory body of his or her or its public functions or duties. [36/2012] (4) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both. (5) In subsection (2), “Chief Executive” includes an authorised person appointed for the purposes of that subsection. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s191
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 191
title: Cooperation between Authority and foreign casino regulatory bodies
content:
191. —(1) The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, enter into arrangements with any foreign casino regulatory body whereby each party to the arrangements may — ( a ) furnish to the other party information in its possession if the information is required by that other party for the purpose of performance by it of any of its functions; and ( b ) provide such other assistance to the other party as will facilitate the performance by that other party of any of its functions. (2) The Authority must not furnish any information to a foreign casino regulatory body pursuant to such arrangements unless it requires of, and obtains from, that body a written undertaking by it that it will comply with terms specified in that requirement, including terms that correspond to the provisions of any other written law concerning the disclosure of that information by the Authority. (3) The Authority may give an undertaking to a foreign casino regulatory body that it will comply with terms specified in a requirement made of the Authority by the body to give such an undertaking where — ( a ) those terms correspond to the provisions of any law in force in the country or territory in which the body is established, being provisions which concern the disclosure by the body of the information referred to in paragraph ( b ); and ( b ) compliance with the requirement is a condition imposed by the body for furnishing information in its possession to the Authority pursuant to the arrangements referred to in subsection (1). (4) In this section, “foreign casino regulatory body” means a person in whom there are vested functions under the law of another country or territory with respect to the enforcement or the administration of provisions of law of that country or territory concerning casinos.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s192
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 192
title: Protection from liability
content:
192. No liability shall lie against any of the following: ( a ) any member, officer, employee or agent of the Authority; ( b ) any member, secretary or officer of the evaluation panel appointed under section 45A; ( c ) any member of the Council, any person authorised, appointed or employed to assist the Council or any member of any Committee of Assessors constituted under section 157(1); ( d ) any person who is on secondment or attachment to the Authority; ( e ) any person authorised, appointed, employed or directed by the Authority to exercise the Authority’s powers, perform the Authority’s functions or discharge the Authority’s duties or to assist the Authority in the exercise of its powers, the performance of its functions or the discharge of its duties under this Act or any other written law; ( f ) any inspector or any person authorised, appointed or employed to assist an inspector in connection with any function or duty of the inspector under this Act; [Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( g ) any member of a committee appointed by the Authority under section 112(4), [Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] for anything done (including any statement made) or omitted to be done in good faith and with reasonable care in the course of or in connection with — ( h ) the exercise or purported exercise of any power under this Act; or [Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( i ) the performance or purported performance of any function or the discharge or purported discharge of any duty under this Act. [Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022] ( j ) [ Deleted by Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022 ] [36/2012] [Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s193
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 193
title: Public servants
content:
193. All members, officers and employees of the Authority, all inspectors, all members of the evaluation panel appointed under section 45A, all members of committees appointed by the Authority under section 112(4) and all members of the Council and any Committee of Assessors constituted under section 157(1) are deemed to be public servants for the purposes of the Penal Code 1871. [36/2012] [Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s194
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 194
title: Jurisdiction of court
content:
194. Despite any provision to the contrary in the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, a District Court has jurisdiction to try any offence under this Act and has power to impose the full penalty or punishment in respect of the offence.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s195
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 195
title: General penalty
content:
195. —(1) Any casino operator guilty of an offence under this Act for which no penalty is expressly provided shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $100,000. (2) Any person (other than a casino operator) guilty of an offence under this Act for which no penalty is expressly provided shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both. (3) Unless otherwise expressly provided, where a corporation (other than a casino operator) is convicted of an offence under this Act, the penalty that the court may impose is a fine not exceeding 2 times the maximum amount that, but for this subsection, the court could impose as a fine for that offence.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s196
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 196
title: Composition of offences
content:
196. —(1) The Authority may compound any offence under this Act (except an offence under Part 9) that is prescribed as a compoundable offence by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: ( a ) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is prescribed for the offence; ( b ) $5,000. [36/2012] (2) On payment of the sum of money, no further proceedings are to be taken against that person in respect of the offence. (3) The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations to prescribe the offences which may be compounded. (4) [ Deleted by Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022 ]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s197
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 197
title: Recovering and collecting financial penalties, etc.
content:
197. —(1) All the following must be collected by the Authority and paid into the Consolidated Fund: ( a ) any financial penalties imposed under section 54 or 93, or any regulations made under section 110B(6) regarding disciplinary action against licensed international market agents and licensed international market agent representatives; ( b ) any moneys under a performance bond, deposit or other form of security required under section 185C and forfeited for the purpose of meeting any financial penalty imposed; ( c ) any winnings forfeited under section 128(2); ( d ) any composition sum collected under sections 152 and 196, respectively. (2) Any sum mentioned in subsection (1)( a ), ( b ) or ( c ) (or any part thereof) that has become due and payable by a person but has not been paid may be recovered as if a debt due to the Authority from that person; and the person’s liability to pay is not affected by the person’s licence ceasing, for any reason, to be in force. [Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s197A
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 197A
title: Amendment of Second Schedule
content:
197A. —(1) The Minister may by order in the Gazette , amend, add to or vary the Second Schedule. [36/2012] (2) The Minister may, in any order made under subsection (1), make such incidental, consequential or supplementary provision as may be necessary or expedient. [36/2012] (3) Any order made under subsection (1) must be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette . [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s198
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 198
title: General exemption
content:
198. The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, by order, exempt any person or premises or any class of persons or premises from all or any of the provisions of this Act, subject to such terms or conditions as may be specified in the order.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s199
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 199
title: Service of documents
content:
199. —(1) A document that is permitted or required by this Act to be served on a person may be served as described in this section. (2) A document permitted or required by this Act to be served on an individual may be served — ( a ) by giving it to the individual personally; ( b ) by sending it by post to the address specified by the individual for the service of documents or, if no address is so specified, the individual’s residential address or business address; ( c ) by leaving it at the individual’s residential address with an adult apparently resident there, or at the individual’s business address with an adult apparently employed there; ( d ) by affixing a copy of the document in a conspicuous place at the individual’s residential address or business address; ( e ) by sending it by fax to the fax number last known to the person giving or serving the document as the fax number for the service of documents on the individual; or ( f ) by sending it by email to the individual’s last email address. (3) A document permitted or required by this Act to be served on a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership) may be served — ( a ) by giving it to any partner, secretary or other similar officer of the partnership; ( b ) by leaving it at, or by sending it by post to, the partnership’s business address; ( c ) by sending it by fax to the fax number used at the partnership’s business address; or ( d ) by sending it by email to the partnership’s last email address. (4) A document permitted or required by this Act to be served on a body corporate (including a limited liability partnership) or an unincorporated association may be served — ( a ) by giving it to the secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate or unincorporated association, or the limited liability partnership’s manager; ( b ) by leaving it at, or by sending it by post to, the registered office or principal office in Singapore of the body corporate or unincorporated association; ( c ) by sending it by fax to the fax number used at the registered office or principal office in Singapore of the body corporate or unincorporated association; or ( d ) by sending it by email to the last email address of the body corporate or unincorporated association. (5) In addition, a document (other than a summons) permitted or required by this Act to be served on an individual, a partnership, a body corporate or an unincorporated association may be served — ( a ) by giving an electronic notice to the individual, partnership, body corporate or unincorporated association (called in this section an addressee) by the addressee’s chosen means of notification, stating that the document is available and how the addressee may use the addressee’s chosen means of access to access the document’s contents; or ( b ) by any other method authorised by the regulations for the service of documents of that kind if the addressee consents to service of a document of that kind in that way. (6) Service of a document takes effect — ( a ) if the document is sent by post, 2 days after the day the document was posted (even if it is returned undelivered); ( b ) if the document is sent by fax and a notification of successful transmission is received, on the day of transmission; ( c ) if the document is sent by email, at the time that the email becomes capable of being retrieved by the person to whom it is sent; ( d ) if the document is served under subsection (5)( a ), at the time the electronic notice is capable of being retrieved by the addressee by the addressee’s chosen means of notification, and the contents of the document are capable of being accessed by the addressee by the addressee’s chosen means of access; or ( e ) at any other time prescribed by regulations for any other means of service. (7) However, service of any document under this Act on a person by email or by an electronic notice at the person’s chosen means of notification, may be effected only with the person’s prior consent to service in that way. (8) This section does not apply to documents to be served in proceedings in court. (9) In this section — “business address” means — ( a ) in the case of an individual, the individual’s usual or last known place of business in Singapore; or ( b ) in the case of a partnership (other than a limited liability partnership), the partnership’s principal or last known place of business in Singapore; “chosen means of access”, for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a document permitted or required by this Act, means an electronic means that the addressee agrees with the person giving or serving the document as the means by which the addressee may access that document’s contents; “chosen means of notification”, for an addressee on whom is or is to be served a document permitted or required by this Act, means an electronic means that the addressee nominates to the person giving or serving the document as the means by which the addressee may be notified that such a document has been served on the addressee; “document” includes a notice or an order permitted or required by this Act to be served; “last email address” means the last email address given by the addressee concerned to the person giving or serving the document as the email address for the service of documents under this Act; “residential address” means an individual’s usual or last known place of residence in Singapore. [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s200
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 200
title: Regulations
content:
200. —(1) The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations for any purpose for which regulations are required to be made under this Act and generally for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations for or with respect to all or any of the following matters: ( a ) [ Deleted by Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022 ] ( b ) [ Deleted by Act 14 of 2022 wef 01/08/2022 ] ( c ) the fees to be charged in respect of anything done or any services rendered by the Authority under or by virtue of this Act; ( d ) the installations, devices and equipment to be provided on casino premises for gaming, surveillance, communications and other purposes and the maintenance of the installations, devices and equipment; ( e ) the hours of operation of a casino and any temporary cessation of operation; ( f ) the facilities and amenities to be provided for patrons of, and inspectors on duty in, a casino and the maintenance of those amenities; ( g ) the provision to players of gaming machines in a casino of information relevant to gaming on gaming machines; ( h ) the adjudicating of disputes between a casino operator and its patrons; ( i ) the provision and security of drop boxes and other places for the depositing of money; ( j ) with respect to casino advertising and promotions — (i) regulating or prohibiting advertising and promotional activities relating to a casino, including regulating the content of any advertisement or promotion; (ii) applications for the approval of advertisements or promotional activities relating to a casino, including the fees, if any; and (iii) the obligations of casino operators in relation to persons who carry out advertising or promotional activities relating to a casino; ( k ) applications for the approval of any part of a responsible gambling programme; ( l ) the responsible gambling requirements referred to in section 170B, which may include, but are not limited to — (i) the establishment by a casino operator of a system to enable a patron of its casino to set limits on the patron’s gambling expenditure or period of continuous gambling; (ii) the establishment by a casino operator of a system to determine and impose a maximum number of visits which a patron may make to its casino in each month; (iii) patron education; (iv) provision of problem gambling assistance, intervention or facilities; (v) training of casino employees in relation to responsible gambling; (vi) keeping of records related to responsible gambling activities; and (vii) regular review of responsible gambling measures; ( m ) the submission of reports by casino operators; ( n ) regulating the activities of persons who are on the casino premises in the course of their employment or prohibiting any of those activities; ( o ) the testing of operations, or of proposed operations, in a casino; ( p ) regulating the conduct of gaming and provision of credit for gaming in a casino; ( q ) the manufacture, supply or operation of gaming equipment for use in a casino, and the provision of testing services for such gaming equipment; ( r ) the movement, acquisition, storage, servicing, rectification or destruction of gaming equipment used or for use in a casino; ( s ) the form of controlled contracts within the meaning of section 72, the approval of the Authority in relation to specified classes of those contracts and the requirements for disclosure to the Authority of any such contracts; ( t ) the establishment of a system of awarding demerit points for the purpose of disciplinary actions against casino operators, licensed special employees of a casino, licensed international market agents or licensed international market agent representatives; ( u ) the procedure for any representations to be made against, or any request for a review of, a decision by the Authority; ( v ) the procedure for disciplinary proceedings against any person licensed or approved by the Authority under this Act; ( w ) regulating agents of casino operators, including any licensing or approval thereof; ( x ) the furnishing of any deposit, prepayment, performance bond or other form of security required by the Authority under this Act, and the procedure for drawing on, forfeiting or returning any such deposit, prepayment, performance bond or other form of security; ( y ) the enforcement of any written undertaking given under section 185D; ( z ) the system of internal controls for casino operations; ( za ) the setting up of and requirements for a compliance function by casino operators; ( zb ) requirements to detect or prevent money laundering, terrorism financing and the financing of proliferation of weapons of mass destruction; [Act 24 of 2024 wef 14/11/2024] ( zc ) additional duties of auditors of casino operators; ( zd ) any other matter or thing required or permitted to be prescribed or necessary to be prescribed to give effect to this Act. [36/2012; 4/2014] (3) Regulations made under this Act — ( a ) may provide that any contravention of any provision of the regulations shall be an offence punishable with — (i) in the case of a casino operator, a fine not exceeding $100,000; or (ii) in any other case, a fine not exceeding $10,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or both; ( aa ) may provide that any contravention of any provision of the regulations by a casino operator or a licensed special employee is a contravention for which the casino operator or licensed special employee is liable to disciplinary action under section 54 or 93, respectively; [Act 29 of 2024 wef 30/10/2024] ( b ) may be of general or of specially limited application; ( c ) may differ according to differences in time, place or circumstance; and ( d ) may provide for such transitional, saving and other consequential, incidental and supplemental provisions as the Minister considers necessary or expedient.


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s200A
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 200A
title: Adoption of codes, standards of performance or specifications
content:
200A. —(1) Any regulations made under section 200 may adopt, wholly or partially or as amended by the regulations or by reference, any code, standard of performance or specification which relates to gaming equipment, surveillance systems, internal controls, casino advertising or promotions, responsible gambling or to any other matter related to casino operations that is relevant for the purposes of this Act, and which — ( a ) is issued by the Authority under section 200B; or ( b ) is issued by any standards organisation or person other than the Authority (whether within or outside Singapore) and approved by the Authority under section 200B. [36/2012] (2) In any proceedings under this Act, a copy of any code, standard of performance or specification adopted under subsection (1) which is certified by the Authority as a true copy thereof is prima facie evidence of that code, standard of performance or specification. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s200B
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 200B
title: Codes, standards of performance or specifications issued or approved by Authority
content:
200B. —(1) The Authority may — ( a ) issue one or more codes, standards of performance or specifications applicable to casino operations; ( b ) approve as a code, standard of performance or specification applicable to casino operators any document prepared by a person other than the Authority if the Authority considers the document as suitable for this purpose; or ( c ) amend, add to or revoke any code, standard of performance or specification issued under paragraph ( a ) or approved under paragraph ( b ). [36/2012] (2) If any provision in any code, standard of performance or specification is inconsistent with any provision of this Act, such provision, to the extent of the inconsistency — ( a ) shall have effect subject to the provisions of this Act; and ( b ) having regard to the provisions of this Act, shall not have effect. [36/2012] (3) Where any code, standard of performance or specification is issued, approved, amended or revoked by the Authority under subsection (1), the Authority must — ( a ) notify each casino operator and any other person licensed or approved by the Authority who may be affected by the issuance, approval, amendment or revocation; ( b ) specify in the notice referred to in paragraph ( a ) the date that the issuance, approval, amendment or revocation is to take effect; and ( c ) ensure that, so long as the code, standard of performance or specification remains in force, copies of that code, standard of performance or specification are made available to the casino operators and any other person required to comply with the code, standard of performance or specification. [36/2012] (4) Any code, standard of performance or specification issued or approved under this section — ( a ) may be of general or specific application; and ( b ) may specify that different provisions thereof apply to different circumstances or provide for different cases or classes of cases. [36/2012] (5) The Authority may, either generally or for such time as the Authority may specify, waive the application of any code, standard of performance or specification, or part thereof, issued or approved under this section to any casino operator or other person. [36/2012]


document_id: cca-2006
provision_ref: s200C
chapter: PART 13 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 200C
title: Guidelines on compliance
content:
200C. —(1) The Authority may, with a view to enabling any person to order that person’s affairs in compliance with the provisions of this Act, issue such guidelines as it considers appropriate for providing guidance — ( a ) in furtherance of its regulatory objectives; or ( b ) on any matter relating to casino operations. [36/2012] (2) Any failure by a person to comply with any of the provisions of a guideline issued under this section that applies to that person does not of itself render that person liable to criminal proceedings but any such failure may, in any proceedings whether civil or criminal, be relied upon by any party to the proceedings as tending to establish or to negate any liability which is in question in the proceedings. [36/2012] (3) To avoid doubt, any guideline issued under this section does not have legislative effect. [36/2012]


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: General interpretation
content:
2. —(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “chosen court” means a court, of a Contracting State, designated in an exclusive choice of court agreement; “Contracting State” — ( a ) means a State that is a party to the Convention; and ( b ) includes, in an appropriate case — (i) a Regional Economic Integration Organisation that is a party to the Convention; and (ii) a member State, of a Regional Economic Integration Organisation that is a party to, and has made a declaration under Article 30(1) of, the Convention; “Convention” means the Convention on Choice of Court Agreements done at The Hague on 30 June 2005; “court of origin”, in relation to a foreign judgment for which recognition or enforcement is sought under this Act, means the court that has given the foreign judgment; “foreign judgment” means a judgment given by a court of a Contracting State (other than Singapore), being — ( a ) a chosen court; or ( b ) a court to which a chosen court has transferred, in accordance with the law or practice relating to the allocation of jurisdiction or transfer of cases among courts in that Contracting State, the case to which the judgment relates; “judgment” means — ( a ) a final court decision (by whatever name called) on the merits, a consent order, a consent judgment or a judgment given by default; or ( b ) a determination by a court of any costs or expenses relating to the court decision, consent order, consent judgment or judgment given by default; “judicial settlement” — ( a ) means a contract approved by, or concluded before, a court of a Contracting State (other than Singapore), in the course of proceedings, being a contract — (i) between the parties to proceedings before that court; (ii) by which those parties end those proceedings; and (iii) that is recorded by that court in an official document; but ( b ) does not include a consent order or consent judgment; “law of Singapore” means any written law or any rule of law that applies in Singapore; “State of origin” — ( a ) in relation to a foreign judgment for which recognition or enforcement is sought under this Act, means the Contracting State of the court of origin of the foreign judgment; or ( b ) in relation to a judicial settlement for which enforcement is sought under this Act, means the Contracting State of the court that recorded the judicial settlement. (2) Where the High Court is designated in an exclusive choice of court agreement, the designation is to be construed — ( a ) as a designation of the General Division of the High Court; and ( b ) as including the Singapore International Commercial Court, unless a contrary intention appears in the agreement. [40/2019] (3) Where the General Division of the High Court is designated in an exclusive choice of court agreement, the designation is to be construed as including the Singapore International Commercial Court, unless a contrary intention appears in the agreement. [40/2019] (4) Unless the context otherwise requires, where different systems of law apply in different territorial units in a Contracting State (other than a Regional Economic Integration Organisation) — ( a ) any reference to the law or procedure of that Contracting State is to be construed as a reference, where appropriate, to the law or procedure in force in the relevant territorial unit of that Contracting State; ( b ) any reference to residence in that Contracting State is to be construed as a reference, where appropriate, to residence in the relevant territorial unit of that Contracting State; ( c ) any reference to the court or courts of that Contracting State is to be construed as a reference, where appropriate, to the court or courts in the relevant territorial unit of that Contracting State; and ( d ) any reference to a connection with that Contracting State is to be construed as a reference, where appropriate, to a connection with the relevant territorial unit of that Contracting State.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 3
title: Meaning of “exclusive choice of court agreement”
content:
3. —(1) An exclusive choice of court agreement is an agreement between 2 or more parties that — ( a ) is concluded or documented — (i) in writing; or (ii) by any other means of communication that renders the information communicated accessible so as to be usable for subsequent reference; and ( b ) designates, for the purpose of deciding any dispute that arises or may arise in connection with a particular legal relationship, the courts, or one or more specific courts, of one Contracting State to the exclusion of the jurisdiction of any other court. (2) A choice of court agreement between 2 or more parties that satisfies the following requirements is deemed to be an exclusive choice of court agreement, unless the parties to the agreement expressly provide otherwise: ( a ) the agreement is concluded or documented — (i) in writing; or (ii) by any other means of communication that renders the information communicated accessible so as to be usable for subsequent reference; ( b ) the agreement designates, for the purpose of deciding any dispute that arises or may arise in connection with a particular legal relationship, the courts, or one or more specific courts, of one Contracting State.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 4
title: Meaning of “international case”
content:
4. —(1) For the purposes of Part 2, a case is an international case unless — ( a ) the parties to the case reside in the same Contracting State; and ( b ) the relationship of the parties and all other elements relevant to the dispute (other than the location of the chosen court) are connected only with that Contracting State. (2) For the purposes of Part 3, a case is an international case if the claim is for — ( a ) the recognition, or recognition and enforcement, of a foreign judgment; or ( b ) the enforcement of a judicial settlement recorded before a court of a Contracting State (other than Singapore).


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 5
title: Exclusive choice of court agreement as independent agreement
content:
5. Where an exclusive choice of court agreement forms part of a contract — ( a ) the agreement is to be treated as independent of the other terms of the contract; and ( b ) the validity of the agreement cannot be challenged solely on the ground that the contract is not valid.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 6
title: Residence of person other than individual
content:
6. For the purposes of this Act, a person (other than an individual) is resident in a State if — ( a ) the person has its statutory seat in that State; ( b ) the person was incorporated or formed under the law of that State; ( c ) the person has its central administration in that State; or ( d ) the person has its principal place of business in that State.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 8
title: Application of Act
content:
8. Subject to sections 9, 10 and 22, this Act applies in every international case where there is an exclusive choice of court agreement concluded in a civil or commercial matter.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 9
title: Certain matters excluded from Act
content:
9. —(1) This Act does not apply to an exclusive choice of court agreement if — ( a ) any party to the agreement is an individual who acts primarily in the capacity of a consumer; or ( b ) the agreement relates to a contract of employment or a collective agreement. (2) This Act does not apply to any of the following matters: ( a ) the status and legal capacity of an individual; ( b ) any matter relating to family law, including — (i) the rights or obligations arising out of a marriage or a similar relationship; (ii) divorce or the annulment or dissolution of a marriage; (iii) maintenance; (iv) matrimonial property; and (v) the custody of children; ( c ) any matter relating to succession, including wills, intestate succession, the provision of maintenance for a spouse or child of a deceased individual out of the deceased individual’s estate, the administration of estates and other probate matters; ( d ) bankruptcy, insolvency, composition or any analogous matter; ( e ) the carriage of passengers and goods; ( f ) any matter relating to any of the following: (i) marine pollution; (ii) limitation of liability for a maritime claim; (iii) general average; (iv) emergency towage and salvage; ( g ) any matter relating to competition or anti‑trust law; ( h ) liability for nuclear damage; ( i ) any claim for personal injury or death brought by or on behalf of an individual; ( j ) any tort or delict claim, for damage to any movable or immovable tangible property, that does not arise from a contractual relationship; ( k ) any right in rem in any immovable property or any tenancy of immovable property; ( l ) the validity, nullity or dissolution of any legal person, or the validity of a decision of the management of the legal person; ( m ) the validity of any intellectual property right (other than copyright and related rights); ( n ) the infringement of any intellectual property right (other than copyright and related rights) except any infringement proceedings that are or could have been brought for breach of a contract between the parties relating to that intellectual property right; ( o ) the validity of an entry in a public register. (3) This Act does not apply to an arbitration or any proceeding related to an arbitration. (4) The Minister may by regulations made under section 22 — ( a ) exclude from the application of this Act — (i) any specific matter; or (ii) any specific matter in relation to any Contracting State; or ( b ) modify the application of this Act or any provision of this Act to — (i) any specific matter; or (ii) any specific matter in relation to any Contracting State. (5) Despite subsections (2) and (4)( a ), the raising in any court proceedings of a matter mentioned in subsection (2) or (4)( a ) as a preliminary question or defence, and not as an object of the proceedings, does not prevent this Act from applying to those proceedings. (6) A proceeding under a contract of insurance or reinsurance is not excluded from the application of this Act by reason only that the contract relates to a matter to which this Act does not apply. (7) A proceeding is not excluded from the application of this Act by reason only that a State (including a government, a government agency or any person acting for a State) is a party to the proceeding. (8) This Act does not affect the privileges and immunities of a State or an international organisation, in respect of the State or international organisation and of its property.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 10
title: Act does not apply to interim measures of protection
content:
10. —(1) This Act does not apply to any interim measure of protection. (2) To avoid doubt — ( a ) this Act does not prevent a party from applying to a Singapore court for an interim measure of protection in any case or proceeding involving an exclusive choice of court agreement; and ( b ) this Act does not prevent a Singapore court from granting, in any such case or proceeding, any interim measure of protection under the law of Singapore.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 2 - JURISDICTION
section: 11
title: Jurisdiction of Singapore chosen court
content:
11. —(1) A Singapore court, designated in an exclusive choice of court agreement for the purposes of deciding a dispute, has jurisdiction to decide the dispute, unless the agreement is null and void under the law of Singapore. (2) A Singapore court that has jurisdiction under subsection (1) cannot decline to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that the dispute should be decided in a court of another State. (3) Despite subsections (1) and (2), a Singapore court may decline to exercise jurisdiction in any other circumstances that the Minister may prescribe by regulations made under section 22. (4) Subsections (1) and (2) do not affect any written law that — ( a ) restricts the subject matter or value of a claim that a Singapore court has jurisdiction to decide; or ( b ) allocates jurisdiction to different courts in Singapore. (5) Where a chosen court in Singapore has a discretion whether to transfer to another Singapore court a case to which an exclusive choice of court agreement applies, the chosen court must, before exercising that discretion, take into account the parties’ choice of court.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 2 - JURISDICTION
section: 12
title: Where Singapore court is not chosen court
content:
12. —(1) Despite any other written law or rule of law, if an exclusive choice of court agreement does not designate any Singapore court as a chosen court, a Singapore court must stay or dismiss any case or proceeding to which the agreement applies, unless the Singapore court determines that — ( a ) the agreement is null and void under the law of the State of the chosen court; ( b ) a party to the agreement lacked the capacity, under the law of Singapore, to enter into or conclude the agreement; ( c ) giving effect to the agreement would lead to a manifest injustice or would be manifestly contrary to the public policy of Singapore; ( d ) the agreement cannot reasonably be performed for exceptional reasons beyond the control of the parties to the agreement; or ( e ) the chosen court has decided not to hear the case or proceeding. (2) This section does not affect the ability of a Singapore court to stay or dismiss the case or proceeding on other grounds.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - RECOGNITION AND ENFORCEMENT OF
section: 13
title: Recognition and enforcement of foreign judgments
content:
13. —(1) An application may be made to the General Division of the High Court for a foreign judgment to be recognised, or to be recognised and enforced, in the same manner and to the same extent as a judgment issued by the General Division of the High Court. [40/2019] (2) A foreign judgment — ( a ) is to be recognised only if the judgment has effect in the State of origin; and ( b ) is to be enforced only if the judgment is enforceable in the State of origin. (3) In determining whether to recognise or enforce a foreign judgment, the General Division of the High Court — ( a ) must not review the merits of the foreign judgment, except to the extent necessary to apply the provisions of this Part; and ( b ) is bound by any findings of fact on which the court of origin assumed jurisdiction, unless the foreign judgment was given by default. [40/2019] (4) Where a foreign judgment satisfies the requirements for recognition, or for recognition and enforcement, under this Part, the General Division of the High Court must recognise, or recognise and enforce, as the case may be, the foreign judgment, except in the circumstances provided under this Part for the refusal of recognition or enforcement. [40/2019]


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 3 - RECOGNITION AND ENFORCEMENT OF
section: 14
title:
Grounds on which General Division of High Court must refuse to recognise or enforce foreign judgment

content:
14. The General Division of the High Court must refuse to recognise or enforce a foreign judgment, or must set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces a foreign judgment, in any of the following circumstances, or in any other circumstances that the Minister may prescribe by regulations made under section 22: ( a ) the defendant in the proceedings in which the foreign judgment was obtained was not notified of the document by which the proceedings were instituted or an equivalent document, including the essential elements of the claim, in sufficient time to enable the defendant to defend the proceedings, unless — (i) the law of the State of origin allows the notification to be challenged; and (ii) the defendant had entered an appearance and presented the defendant’s case without challenging the notification in the court of origin; ( b ) the foreign judgment was obtained by fraud in connection with a matter of procedure; ( c ) the recognition or enforcement of the foreign judgment would be manifestly incompatible with the public policy of Singapore, including circumstances where specific proceedings leading to the judgment would be incompatible with fundamental principles of procedural fairness in Singapore. [40/2019]


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 3 - RECOGNITION AND ENFORCEMENT OF
section: 15
title: Grounds on which General Division of High Court may refuse to recognise or enforce foreign judgment
content:
15. —(1) The General Division of the High Court may refuse to recognise or enforce a foreign judgment, or may set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces a foreign judgment, in any of the following circumstances: ( a ) the exclusive choice of court agreement applicable to the dispute in relation to which the foreign judgment was obtained is null and void under the law of the State of the chosen court, unless the chosen court has determined that the agreement is valid; ( b ) a party to the exclusive choice of court agreement applicable to the dispute in relation to which the foreign judgment was obtained lacked the capacity, under the law of Singapore, to enter into or conclude the agreement; ( c ) the defendant in the proceedings in which the foreign judgment was obtained was notified of the document by which the proceedings were instituted or an equivalent document, including the essential elements of the claim, in a manner incompatible with the fundamental principles in Singapore concerning the service of documents; ( d ) the foreign judgment is inconsistent with a judgment given by a Singapore court in a dispute between the same parties; ( e ) the foreign judgment is inconsistent with an earlier judgment given in another State between the same parties on the same cause of action, and the earlier judgment satisfies the conditions necessary for recognition in Singapore under the law of Singapore; ( f ) any other circumstances that the Minister may prescribe by regulations made under section 22. [40/2019] (2) The General Division of the High Court may refuse to recognise or enforce a foreign judgment, may set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces a foreign judgment, or may postpone the recognition or enforcement of a foreign judgment, if — ( a ) the foreign judgment is being reviewed or appealed against in the State of origin; or ( b ) the time for applying for a review of or for appealing against the foreign judgment in the State of origin has not expired. [40/2019] (3) A refusal to recognise or enforce a foreign judgment, the setting aside of an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces a foreign judgment, or a postponement of the recognition or enforcement of a foreign judgment, under subsection (2), does not preclude a subsequent application for the recognition, or recognition and enforcement, of that foreign judgment when — ( a ) the review or appeal mentioned in subsection (2)( a ) has been disposed of; or ( b ) the time for applying for a review of or for appealing against the foreign judgment mentioned in subsection (2)( b ) has expired. (4) Where — ( a ) an exclusive choice of court agreement applies to a case; ( b ) a chosen court designated in that agreement has discretion whether to transfer the case to another court in the same Contracting State, and transfers the case to the other court; and ( c ) the other court issues a foreign judgment against a party to the case who objected in a timely manner to the transfer, the General Division of the High Court may refuse to recognise or enforce that foreign judgment against that party, or may set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces that foreign judgment against that party. [40/2019]


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 3 - RECOGNITION AND ENFORCEMENT OF
section: 16
title: Refusal of recognition or enforcement of foreign judgment awarding non-compensatory damages
content:
16. —(1) The General Division of the High Court may refuse to recognise or enforce a foreign judgment, or may set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces a foreign judgment, if, and to the extent that, the foreign judgment awards damages (including exemplary or punitive damages) in excess of compensation for the actual loss or harm suffered by the party awarded the damages. [40/2019] (2) In making its decision under subsection (1), the General Division of the High Court must take into account whether, and the extent to which, the damages awarded by the court of origin serve to cover costs and expenses relating to the proceedings in which the foreign judgment was obtained. [40/2019]


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 3 - RECOGNITION AND ENFORCEMENT OF
section: 17
title: Recognition and enforcement of ruling on preliminary question, etc.
content:
17. —(1) If any excluded section 9(2) matter or excluded section 9(4)( a ) matter arises as a preliminary question in any proceedings resulting in a foreign judgment, the General Division of the High Court must not recognise or enforce under this Act, or must set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that purports to recognise or enforce, the ruling on that question. [40/2019] (2) Subject to subsection (3), if any excluded section 9(2) matter arises as a preliminary question in any proceedings resulting in a foreign judgment, the General Division of the High Court may refuse to recognise or enforce the foreign judgment, or may set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces the foreign judgment, to the extent that the foreign judgment was based on a ruling on that question. [40/2019] (3) However, where the ruling mentioned in subsection (2) is on the validity of an intellectual property right (other than copyright or a related right), the General Division of the High Court may refuse to recognise or enforce the foreign judgment based on that ruling, may set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces the foreign judgment based on that ruling, or may postpone the recognition or enforcement of the foreign judgment based on that ruling, only if — ( a ) that ruling is inconsistent with a judgment or decision of a competent authority on that matter given in the State under the law of which the intellectual property right arose; or ( b ) proceedings concerning the validity of the intellectual property right are pending in that State. [40/2019] (4) If any excluded section 9(4)( a ) matter arises as a preliminary question in any proceedings resulting in a foreign judgment, the General Division of the High Court may refuse to recognise or enforce the foreign judgment, or may set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces the foreign judgment, to the extent that the foreign judgment was based on a ruling on that question. [40/2019] (5) To avoid doubt, subsection (3) does not affect the powers of the General Division of the High Court under subsection (4) and sections 14, 15 and 16 to refuse to recognise or enforce, or to set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under section 13(1)) that recognises or enforces, a foreign judgment mentioned in subsection (3). [40/2019] (6) In this section — “excluded section 9(2) matter” means any matter mentioned in section 9(2) to which this Act does not apply; “excluded section 9(4)( a ) matter” means any matter mentioned in section 9(4)( a ) to which this Act does not apply.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 3 - RECOGNITION AND ENFORCEMENT OF
section: 18
title: Foreign judgment based on contract of insurance or reinsurance
content:
18. The General Division of the High Court may not limit or refuse the recognition or enforcement of a foreign judgment in respect of liability under the terms of a contract of insurance or reinsurance on the ground that the liability under the contract includes liability to indemnify the insured or reinsured in respect of — ( a ) a matter to which this Act does not apply; or ( b ) an award of damages to which section 16 may apply. [40/2019]


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 3 - RECOGNITION AND ENFORCEMENT OF
section: 19
title: Recognition and enforcement of severable part of foreign judgment
content:
19. Subject to sections 13 to 17, the General Division of the High Court must recognise, or recognise and enforce, a severable part of a foreign judgment if — ( a ) an application is made for the recognition, or recognition and enforcement, as the case may be, of that part; or ( b ) only that part is capable of being recognised, or recognised and enforced, as the case may be, under this Act. [40/2019]


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 3 - RECOGNITION AND ENFORCEMENT OF
section: 20
title: Judicial settlements
content:
20. —(1) An application may be made to the General Division of the High Court for a judicial settlement to be enforced in the same manner and to the same extent as a judgment issued by the General Division of the High Court. [40/2019] (2) The General Division of the High Court must enforce a judicial settlement only if — ( a ) the judicial settlement — (i) was approved by a chosen court designated in an exclusive choice of court agreement between the parties to the settlement; or (ii) was concluded before the chosen court mentioned in sub‑paragraph (i) in the course of proceedings before that court; and ( b ) the judicial settlement is enforceable in the same manner and to the same extent as a judgment in the State of origin. [40/2019] (3) The General Division of the High Court must refuse to enforce a judicial settlement, or must set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under subsection (1)) that enforces a judicial settlement, in any circumstance in which a foreign judgment must be refused recognition or enforcement under this Part. [40/2019] (4) The General Division of the High Court may refuse to enforce a judicial settlement, or may set aside an order (made pursuant to an application under subsection (1)) that enforces a judicial settlement, in any circumstance in which a foreign judgment may be refused recognition or enforcement under this Part. [40/2019]


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 21
title: Act not exclusive
content:
21. To avoid doubt, this Act does not affect any of the following matters: ( a ) the enforcement, under any other written law or rule of law, of a choice of court agreement to which this Act does not apply; ( b ) the recognition and enforcement, under any other written law or rule of law, of a judgment to which this Act does not apply; ( c ) the enforcement, under any other written law or rule of law, of a judicial settlement to which this Act does not apply.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 22
title: Regulations
content:
22. —(1) The Minister may make regulations for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act and for any matter that is required under this Act to be prescribed. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the regulations may provide for the recognition and enforcement by the General Division of the High Court of a judgment given by, and for the enforcement by the General Division of the High Court of a judicial settlement approved by or concluded before, a court of a Contracting State (other than Singapore) designated in a choice of court agreement (not being an exclusive choice of court agreement), including — ( a ) the requirements for the recognition and enforcement of such a judgment, or for the enforcement of such a judicial settlement; ( b ) the circumstances in which the General Division of the High Court must recognise and enforce such a judgment, or enforce such a judicial settlement; and ( c ) the application of any provision of this Act, with such modifications as may be prescribed, to or in relation to the recognition and enforcement of such a judgment, or the enforcement of such a judicial settlement. [40/2019] (3) The powers conferred by this section do not extend to any matter for which the Rules of Court or Family Justice Rules mentioned in section 23 may be made.


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 23
title: Rules of Court and Family Justice Rules
content:
23. —(1) The Rules Committee constituted under section 80(3) of the Supreme Court of Judicature Act 1969 may make Rules of Court regulating the practice and procedure in the General and Appellate Divisions of the High Court, the Court of Appeal and the State Courts in relation to any matter under this Act. [40/2019] (2) The Family Justice Rules Committee constituted under section 46(1) of the Family Justice Act 2014 may make Family Justice Rules regulating the practice and procedure in the Family Justice Courts in relation to any matter under this Act. (3) All Rules of Court mentioned in subsection (1), and all Family Justice Rules mentioned in subsection (2), are to be presented to Parliament as soon as possible after publication in the Gazette .


document_id: ccaa-2016
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 24
title: Saving and transitional provisions
content:
24. —(1) This Act does not apply to an exclusive choice of court agreement that designates a Singapore court as a chosen court, if the agreement is concluded before 1 October 2016. (2) This Act does not apply to an exclusive choice of court agreement that designates a court of another Contracting State as a chosen court, if the agreement is concluded before the Convention enters into force in that Contracting State. (3) This Act does not apply to any case instituted in a Singapore court before 1 October 2016, or any application made (whether before, on or after 1 October 2016) in any such case.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “authorised officer” means any officer authorised by the Minister in writing to exercise such power or perform such function or duty under this Act as the Minister may specify therein; “ComCare Fund” means the Community Care Endowment Fund established under section 3(1); “Council” means the Supervisory Council established under section 7.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - COMMUNITY CARE ENDOWMENT FUND
section: 3
title: Establishment of Community Care Endowment Fund
content:
3. —(1) A fund called the Community Care Endowment Fund is established into which must be paid — ( a ) all capital moneys as are appropriated from time to time from the Consolidated Fund and authorised to be paid into the ComCare Fund by this Act or any other written law; ( b ) all gifts or bequests given or made for the purposes of the ComCare Fund; and ( c ) the net income from investments of capital moneys in the ComCare Fund. (2) The ComCare Fund must be regarded as a Government fund and as comprising public moneys for the purposes of any other written law. (3) For the purposes of subsection (1)( c ), the net income from investments of capital moneys is the amount ascertained by adding to, or deducting from, the income received from the investments of capital moneys any profit derived or loss sustained (as the case may be) from the realisation of such investments.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - COMMUNITY CARE ENDOWMENT FUND
section: 4
title: Administration of ComCare Fund
content:
4. The Minister is responsible for the administration of the ComCare Fund and all moneys belonging to the Fund may be deposited in any bank and invested in any investment authorised under the Financial Procedure Act 1966.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - COMMUNITY CARE ENDOWMENT FUND
section: 5
title: Capital moneys of ComCare Fund
content:
5. —(1) On 24 October 2005, such sum as the Minister for Finance may determine out of moneys to be provided by Parliament must be paid into the ComCare Fund as capital moneys. (2) The Minister for Finance may, from time to time, after 24 October 2005 pay into the ComCare Fund such sums of capital moneys as he or she may determine out of moneys to be provided by Parliament. (3) Despite the terms of any gift or bequest, all gifts and bequests given or made for the purposes of the ComCare Fund must be paid into the Fund as capital moneys. (4) The capital moneys of the ComCare Fund must not be used for any purpose other than for investment. (5) Where at any time there is a permanent diminution of the capital moneys of the ComCare Fund, the Minister must, before paying out any income of the Fund, make good such diminution from the income of the Fund.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - COMMUNITY CARE ENDOWMENT FUND
section: 6
title: Objects and application of income of ComCare Fund
content:
6. —(1) The objects for which the income of the ComCare Fund may be applied are — ( a ) the provision of assistance to citizens and permanent residents of Singapore and their family members living in Singapore with financial or other difficulties to enable them to attain sufficient income to meet their basic needs; ( b ) the provision of assistance to address the developmental issues faced by children from families of citizens and permanent residents of Singapore living in Singapore with financial or other difficulties; ( c ) the provision of assistance to citizens and permanent residents of Singapore and their family members living in Singapore with financial or other difficulties who require help to integrate into society; and ( d ) the development of programmes to enhance the capacity of the community to undertake the objects set out in paragraphs ( a ), ( b ) and ( c ). (2) In carrying out the objects of the ComCare Fund, the Minister may, from time to time, authorise the income of the Fund to be paid out and expended for all or any of the following purposes: ( a ) the provision of grants to be given to individuals or families through organisations; ( b ) the provision of grants to be given to organisations to carry out programmes consistent with the objects of the Fund; ( c ) such other purposes consistent with the objects of the Fund, as may be prescribed.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - COMMUNITY CARE ENDOWMENT FUND
section: 7
title: Supervisory Council
content:
7. —(1) A Supervisory Council comprising such members as the Minister may appoint is established to oversee the administration and use of the moneys of the ComCare Fund. (2) The Minister must appoint one of the members as chairperson. (3) The Schedule has effect with respect to the Council.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 3 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 8
title: Expenses
content:
8. All expenses incurred in connection with the administration of the ComCare Fund, including the cost of auditing the accounts of the Fund, must be defrayed out of the income of the Fund.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 3 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 9
title: Financial year of ComCare Fund
content:
9. The financial year of the ComCare Fund begins on 1 April of each year and ends on 31 March of the succeeding year.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 3 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 10
title: Accounts
content:
10. —(1) The Minister must cause to be kept proper accounts and records of all transactions and affairs relating to the ComCare Fund and must do all things necessary to ensure that all payments out of the Fund are properly authorised and correctly made and that adequate control is maintained over the assets and receipts of the Fund. (2) The Minister must, as soon as practicable after the close of each financial year, cause to be prepared and submitted financial statements in respect of that year to the auditor of the ComCare Fund.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 3 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 11
title: No payment unless approved by Minister
content:
11. A payment must not be made out of the ComCare Fund unless the payment is approved by the Minister or any authorised officer.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 12
title: Appointment, powers and duties of auditor
content:
12. —(1) The accounts of the ComCare Fund must be audited by the Auditor‑General or such other auditor as may be appointed annually by the Minister in consultation with the Auditor‑General. (2) A person is not qualified for appointment as an auditor under subsection (1) unless he or she is a public accountant who is registered or deemed to be registered under the Accountants Act 2004. (3) The auditor or any person authorised by him or her is entitled at all reasonable times to full and free access to all accounting and other records relating, directly or indirectly, to the financial transactions of the ComCare Fund and may make copies of, or extracts from, any such accounting and other records. (4) The auditor must in the auditor’s report state — ( a ) whether the financial statements show fairly the financial transactions and the state of affairs of the ComCare Fund; ( b ) whether proper accounting and other records have been kept, including records of all assets of the ComCare Fund; ( c ) whether receipts, expenditure, and investment of moneys and the acquisition and disposal of assets on account of the ComCare Fund during the financial year were in accordance with the provisions of this Act; and ( d ) such other matters arising from the audit as he or she considers necessary. (5) The auditor must — ( a ) as soon as practicable after the accounts of the ComCare Fund have been submitted for audit, send a report of the audit to the Minister; and ( b ) submit such periodical and special reports to the Minister as may appear to the auditor to be necessary or as the Minister may require. (6) Where the Auditor-General is not the auditor of the ComCare Fund, a copy of the audited financial statements and any report made by the auditor must be forwarded to the Auditor‑General.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 13
title: Failure to furnish information to auditor
content:
13. —(1) The auditor or any person authorised by the auditor may require any person to furnish him or her with such information in the possession of that person or to which that person has access as the auditor considers necessary for the purposes of the auditor’s functions under this Act. (2) Any person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any requirement of the auditor under subsection (1) or who otherwise hinders, obstructs or delays the auditor in the performance of his or her duties or the exercise of his or her powers shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 3 - FINANCIAL PROVISIONS
section: 14
title: Presentation of annual report, financial statements and auditor’s report to Parliament
content:
14. The Minister must, as soon as practicable, cause an annual report in respect of the administration of the ComCare Fund during the preceding financial year to be prepared and must present a copy of such report and of the audited financial statements and the auditor’s report to Parliament.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 15
title: False or misleading information, etc.
content:
15. Any person who, for any purpose connected with this Act — ( a ) knowingly makes any false statement to the Minister or an authorised officer or to the auditor or a person authorised by him or her; or ( b ) produces or furnishes or causes or knowingly allows to be produced or furnished to the Minister or an authorised officer or to the auditor or a person authorised by him or her, any document which he or she knows to be false in a material particular, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 16
title: Offences by bodies corporate, etc.
content:
16. —(1) Where an offence under this Act committed by a body corporate is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer; or ( b ) to be attributable to any neglect on his or her part, the officer as well as the body corporate shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (2) Where the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, subsection (1) applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a member in connection with his or her functions of management as if he or she were a director of the body corporate. (3) Where an offence under this Act committed by a partnership is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of a partner; or ( b ) to be attributable to any neglect on his or her part, the partner as well as the partnership shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (4) Where an offence under this Act committed by an unincorporated association (other than a partnership) is proved — ( a ) to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer of the unincorporated association or a member of its governing body; or ( b ) to be attributable to any neglect on the part of such an officer or member, the officer or member as well as the unincorporated association shall be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (5) In this section — “body corporate” includes a limited liability partnership; “officer” — ( a ) in relation to a body corporate, means any director, partner, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; or ( b ) in relation to an unincorporated association (other than a partnership), means the president, the secretary, or any member of the committee of the unincorporated association, or any person holding a position analogous to that of president, secretary or member of a committee and includes any person purporting to act in any such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 17
title: Composition of offences
content:
17. —(1) The Minister or any authorised officer may compound any offence under this Act which is prescribed as a compoundable offence by collecting from a person reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding $500. (2) On payment of the sum of money, no further proceedings may be taken against the person in respect of such offence. (3) The Minister may make regulations to prescribe the offences which may be compounded.


document_id: ccefa-2005
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 4 - MISCELLANEOUS
section: 18
title: Regulations
content:
18. The Minister may make such regulations as are necessary or expedient for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of this Act, and in particular, the regulations may — ( a ) prescribe the procedure for payments out of the ComCare Fund; ( b ) provide for matters relating to applications for funds, financial assistance or incentives; ( c ) prescribe the procedure of the Council; and ( d ) prescribe anything which may be prescribed under this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires — “auxiliary member” means any person who has been recruited to serve as a member of the Force on a part-time basis; “civil defence” means the planning, organisation, coordination and implementation of measures, other than measures amounting to an actual combat, that are necessary or desirable for the safety of the public and are designed to guard against, prevent, reduce, or overcome the effects or possible effects of a national emergency or a civil defence emergency, and includes the conducting of, and participation in, drills, exercises and training for such purposes; “civil defence emergency” means any fire, explosion, earthquake, oil spill, eruption, flood, storm, hazardous materials incident or other happening (whether or not attributable to an attack by an enemy or to any warlike act) that causes or may cause destruction of or damage to property or loss of life or injury or distress to persons or that in any way endangers the safety of the public in Singapore or in any part thereof; “commanding officer” means — ( a ) an officer who is in command of a unit; or ( b ) an officer on whom the powers and functions of a commanding officer are conferred by or under the regulations; “Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Civil Defence appointed under section 6; “detention barracks” means any building or part of a building which is set apart by the Commissioner for those members who are serving sentences of detention; “disciplinary officer” means a junior disciplinary officer or a senior disciplinary officer designated as such under Part 7; “emergency services” means any organisation or group of persons providing services to respond to and deal with civil defence emergencies, and includes firefighting services, ambulance services and the police; “ex-NSman” means a former operationally ready national serviceman; “Force” means the Singapore Civil Defence Force raised and maintained in accordance with the provisions of this Act; “full-time service” has the meaning given by the Enlistment Act 1970; “Fund” means the Civil Defence Force Fund established under section 101; “hazardous material” means any substance or article set out in the Third Schedule to the Road Traffic (Expressway Traffic) Rules; “hazardous materials incident” means an actual or suspected spillage or other escape of any hazardous material the spillage or escape of which causes or may cause destruction of or damage to property or loss of life or injury or distress to persons or that in any way endangers the safety of the public in Singapore or in any part thereof; “junior disciplinary officer”, in relation to a person charged with an offence, means an officer commanding a company or equivalent sub‑unit or any other officer designated as a junior disciplinary officer by the Commissioner to deal with charges made against a member for the commission of a service offence; “medical practitioner” includes a medical officer in the service of the Government; “member” means an officer or a serviceman of the Force, and includes a volunteer ex‑NSman or an auxiliary member; “national service” and “national serviceman” have the meanings given by the Enlistment Act 1970; “non-commissioned officer” means a member holding a rank not higher than the rank of senior warrant officer and not lower than the rank of lance‑corporal; “offence” means an offence punishable under any written law or a service offence; “officer” means an officer of the rank of second lieutenant and above; “operationally ready national service” has the meaning given by the Enlistment Act 1970; “operationally ready national serviceman” means a person liable to render operationally ready national service under the Enlistment Act 1970; “person of a higher rank”, in relation to a member, includes any other member who, by virtue of his or her office or appointment, is entitled to exercise command over the firstmentioned member; “police officer” means any member of the Singapore Police Force; “prescribed civil defence emergency device” means — ( a ) a public warning device; or ( b ) such device for the detection or monitoring of a civil defence emergency as may be prescribed, and includes a prescribed civil defence emergency device installed by the Commissioner, with the agreement of the owner of the premises, before 1 February 2019; “proper authority” has the meaning given by the Enlistment Act 1970; “provost officer” means any member of the Force appointed by the Commissioner as a provost officer for the purposes of this Act; “psychoactive substance” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1973; [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024] “public officer” has the meaning given by the Constitution; “public authority” includes a body corporate constituted under any written law to perform certain functions or vested with certain powers; “regulations” means the regulations made under this Act; “senior disciplinary officer”, in relation to a person charged with an offence, means an officer commanding a division, battalion, training school or its equivalent or any other officer designated as a senior disciplinary officer by the Commissioner to deal with charges made against a member for the commission of a service offence; “serviceman” means a member of the Force holding a rank not higher than the rank of senior warrant officer and includes a recruit in the Force; “service land” means land (including a building or other structure or part thereof) in the possession of or under the control of — ( a ) the Force; or ( b ) a mess, club, common room, canteen or other institution of the Force; “service offence” means an offence punishable under any of the provisions of Part 5; “service property” means property used by, or in the possession or control of — ( a ) the Force; or ( b ) a mess, club, common room, canteen or other institution of the Force, and “service equipment”, “service facilities”, “service ship”, “service aircraft” and “service vehicle” have corresponding meanings; “state of civil defence emergency” means a state of civil defence emergency declared under section 102; “state of emergency” means the period when a Proclamation of Emergency issued by the President under Article 150 of the Constitution is in force; “volunteer ex‑NSman” means an ex‑NSman enrolled as a volunteer ex‑NSman under section 9A. [32/2010; 53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s3
chapter: PART 2 - CONSTITUTION, ORGANISATION AND ADMINISTRATION OF FORCE
section: 3
title: Raising and maintenance of Singapore Civil Defence Force
content:
3. There is raised and maintained in accordance with the provisions of this Act, a civil defence force called the Singapore Civil Defence Force, which consists of such number of officers and servicemen as are from time to time approved by the Minister.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - CONSTITUTION, ORGANISATION AND ADMINISTRATION OF FORCE
section: 4
title: Functions of Force
content:
4. —(1) The functions of the Force are — ( a ) to carry out civil defence duties; ( b ) to instruct the members of the public regarding civil defence and, if necessary, to equip them for the purposes of such defence; and ( c ) to carry out, on a day‑to‑day basis, operations for the protection of the life, health or safety of individuals, whether or not arising out of a civil defence emergency. [32/2010; 53/2018] (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Force may exercise and perform all the following functions and duties: ( a ) rescue endangered persons and remove them to areas of safety; ( b ) provide first-aid to casualties and for their removal for medical treatment or to areas of safety; ( c ) train and, if necessary, equip the civilian population to cope with any civil defence emergency; ( d ) assist the public authorities to undertake measures for the retrieval and, if necessary, decontamination of the dead bodies from any place affected by any civil defence emergency; ( e ) disseminate information and advice to the public; ( f ) take lawful measures to extinguish and prevent the spread of fire; ( g ) provide, maintain, control and operate prescribed civil defence emergency devices; ( h ) manage all public shelters including air-raid shelters and temporary shelters; ( i ) take lawful measures for protecting life and property in case of fire; ( j ) take lawful measures to mitigate the consequences of hazardous materials incidents and for protecting life and property in such an event; ( k ) provide and maintain an adequate emergency ambulance service; ( l ) ensure effective coordination between the Force and other emergency services in Singapore; and ( m ) execute such other duties as may be imposed on the Force by this Act or any other written law. [32/2010; 53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - CONSTITUTION, ORGANISATION AND ADMINISTRATION OF FORCE
section: 5
title: Organisation
content:
5. —(1) The Force consists of such units, corps or divisions as are from time to time organised by or under the authority of the Minister. (2) The Minister may disband any unit, corps or division constituted under subsection (1) in whole or in part or amalgamate any unit, corps or division with any other unit, corps or division. (3) The Force consists of — ( a ) officers appointed to, and servicemen enlisted in, the Force; ( b ) national servicemen enlisted in the Force; ( c ) volunteer ex‑NSmen enrolled under section 9A; ( d ) persons who are recruited to serve as auxiliary members; and ( e ) public officers who are serving in the Force. [32/2010; 53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - CONSTITUTION, ORGANISATION AND ADMINISTRATION OF FORCE
section: 6
title: Administration of Force by Commissioner
content:
6. —(1) The Minister may appoint a Commissioner of Civil Defence who must — ( a ) be responsible for the supreme command, direction and administration of the Force and of members of the Force who are appointed, enlisted or recruited under the provisions of this Act; and ( b ) exercise such functions, and perform such duties and powers with respect to civil defence as are conferred upon him or her by this Act. (2) The Minister may appoint any number of Deputy Commissioners, Senior Assistant Commissioners and Assistant Commissioners of Civil Defence as the Minister thinks fit. [32/2010] (3) Unless otherwise provided, the Deputy Commissioners, the Senior Assistant Commissioners and the Assistant Commissioners of Civil Defence have and may exercise all the powers conferred on the Commissioner by or under this Act, subject to such limitations as the Commissioner may see fit to impose. [32/2010; 53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 7
title: Appointment of officers and enlistment of servicemen in Force
content:
7. —(1) The Minister may appoint and enlist any number of officers and servicemen for the Force as the Minister thinks fit. (2) The Commissioner may, in accordance with such conditions and subject to such qualifications or requirements as are prescribed or provided for by the regulations, recruit persons to serve in the auxiliary units of the Force on a part‑time basis. [53/2018] (3) Auxiliary members are not bound to serve continuously but are bound to render service for such periods as are prescribed by the regulations. (4) The Minister may, from time to time, authorise such allowances to be paid to auxiliary members for their services. [53/2018] (5) The Commissioner may at any time dismiss an auxiliary member from the Force without assigning any reason.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 8
title: Public officers serving as members of Force
content:
8. —(1) The Public Service Commission continues to have control over the confirmation, emplacement on the permanent or pensionable establishment, promotion, transfer, dismissal and exercise of disciplinary control over public officers who are posted to serve in the Force. (2) A public officer who is posted to the Force as an officer or a serviceman may resign from the Force by giving the notice of termination of service prescribed by the terms and conditions of his or her appointment as a public officer.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 9
title: Enlistment of national servicemen in Force
content:
9. —(1) A person on whom a notice under section 10 of the Enlistment Act 1970 has been served requiring the person to report for enlistment in the Force is, as from the time when the person reports for enlistment for national service, deemed to have been enlisted in the Force. (2) A person enlisted for national service pursuant to the provisions of the Enlistment Act 1970 is, from such time as the proper authority transfers the person to the service of the Force, deemed to have been enlisted in the Force. (3) National servicemen who are enlisted in the Force must render — ( a ) full-time service for the period prescribed by the Enlistment Act 1970; and ( b ) where they have completed full-time service for the prescribed period, operationally ready national service for the period prescribed by the Enlistment Act 1970.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s9A
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 9A
title: Volunteer ex-NSmen
content:
9A. —(1) The Commissioner may enrol under this section, as a volunteer ex‑NSman, any ex‑NSman who was enlisted as a national serviceman in the Force where — ( a ) the Commissioner wants that ex‑NSman to continue to serve in the Force; and ( b ) the ex‑NSman is offering his service. [53/2018] (2) The provisions of sections 14, 15, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25 and 30 of the Enlistment Act 1970 affecting any person who is liable for operationally ready national service apply (so far as relevant) to a volunteer ex‑NSman enrolled under this section as if the volunteer ex‑NSman were an individual liable for operationally ready national service, with such prescribed exceptions, modifications and adaptations as the differences between an operationally ready national serviceman and a volunteer ex‑NSman require. [53/2018] (3) The provisions of any other existing law that relate to an individual liable for operationally ready national service have effect as if any reference therein to any such individual also includes a reference to any volunteer ex‑NSman, with such prescribed exceptions, modifications and adaptations as the differences between this Part and that existing law require. [53/2018] (4) The Minister may, from time to time, authorise such emoluments to be paid to volunteer ex‑NSmen for their services. [53/2018] (5) In this section, “existing law” means any written law having effect as part of the law of Singapore immediately before 1 February 2019. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s9B
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 9B
title: Appointments and promotions
content:
9B. —(1) Subject to section 8, the Minister may do the following: ( a ) appoint or promote a member to the rank of lieutenant‑colonel and above; ( b ) reduce the rank of a member of the rank of lieutenant‑colonel and above. [53/2018] (2) Subject to section 8, the Commissioner may do the following: ( a ) appoint or promote a member to the rank of major and below; ( b ) reduce the rank of a member of the rank of major and below. [53/2018] (3) The Commissioner may delegate the power under subsection (2) to any officer of the rank of lieutenant‑colonel and above. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 10
title: Discharge of national servicemen from Force
content:
10. A member who is enlisted in the Force pursuant to the Enlistment Act 1970 is discharged — ( a ) from continuous full-time service in the Force when the member has completed the period of full‑time service prescribed by the Enlistment Act 1970; and ( b ) from operationally ready national service in the Force when — (i) the proper authority notifies the member that the member has been transferred from the Force to another force specified by the proper authority; (ii) the proper authority notifies the member that the member is released from the Force; or (iii) the member ceases to be a person subject to the Enlistment Act 1970.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s10A
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 10A
title: Discharge of volunteer ex-NSmen
content:
10A. —(1) The Commissioner may, without notice, discharge any volunteer ex‑NSman. [53/2018] (2) Any volunteer ex‑NSman is entitled, except when a state of emergency or a state of civil defence emergency is in force or when volunteer ex‑NSmen are mobilised under section 113(1)( a ), to be discharged from the Force after giving the Commissioner at least 3 months’ notice in writing of the volunteer ex‑NSman’s intention to resign from the Force. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 11
title: Discharge of auxiliary members
content:
11. Except when a state of emergency or a state of civil defence emergency is in force or when auxiliary members are mobilised for continuous full-time service, an auxiliary member is entitled to be discharged from the Force after giving the Commissioner at least 30 days’ notice in writing of the auxiliary member’s intention to resign from the Force.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 12
title: Identity card
content:
12. An identity card must be issued to every full‑time national serviceman and is evidence of the national serviceman’s enlistment in the Force under this Act. [32/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - ENLISTMENT AND DISCHARGE OF MEMBERS OF FORCE
section: 13
title: Delivery of Government property on leaving Force
content:
13. —(1) Every member who, by resignation, dismissal, discharge or otherwise, leaves the Force must before leaving deliver up in good order (fair wear and tear excepted) any accoutrement, uniform or other article supplied to him or her and any other property belonging to the Government which may be in his or her possession. (2) Any person neglecting to deliver up any such article or property shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $500 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months, and in addition thereto shall be liable to pay the value of the article or property not delivered up, which value is to be ascertained in a summary manner by the same court before which the person was convicted.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 14
title: Application
content:
14. —(1) The following members are persons subject to this Act at all times: ( a ) national servicemen enlisted in the Force who are rendering continuous full-time service either as officers or servicemen; ( b ) officers and servicemen who are appointed to or enlisted in the Force under section 7(1). (2) National servicemen enlisted in the Force as either officers or servicemen who are rendering operationally ready national service and volunteer ex‑NSmen are subject to this Act while on duty, in uniform or while under arrest, in custody or undergoing punishment or detention in accordance with the provisions of this Act. [53/2018] (3) Auxiliary members are subject to this Act while on duty, in uniform or while under arrest, in custody or undergoing punishment or detention in accordance with the provisions of this Act. (4) For the purposes of subsection (2), a member is deemed to be on duty — ( a ) from the time appointed by the Commissioner for the member to report to or to attend at a place specified by the Commissioner for rendering any operationally ready national service which the member is required to render under the Enlistment Act 1970 until the member is duly released or discharged from that service; or ( b ) while acting or purporting to act in or with intended reference to his or her capacity as a member of the Force. (5) For the purposes of subsection (3), an auxiliary member is deemed to be on duty while acting or purporting to act in or with intended reference to his or her capacity as a member of the Force.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 15
title: Modification of Act
content:
15. The regulations may make provision for — ( a ) the exemption of all or any of the classes of members from all or any of the provisions of this Act; ( b ) the modification of any provision so far as it relates to all or any of those classes; or ( c ) the addition or substitution of provisions relating to all or any of those classes. [32/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 16
title: Certain persons to remain subject to Act
content:
16. Subject to section 73, a person who has ceased to be a member may, in respect of a service offence committed within 6 months before he or she ceased to be a member, be dealt with as though he or she were still a member, if and only if he or she is charged with the offence not later than 3 years from the date of the commission of the offence. [32/2010] Division 2 &#x2014; Liability of persons subject to this Act to be tried and punished for service offences


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 17
title: Trial and punishment of person committing service offence
content:
17. —(1) Any person subject to this Act who is alleged to have committed a service offence may be charged, dealt with and tried by a court or may be dealt with by a disciplinary officer under the provisions of this Act and shall, if found guilty of the service offence by a court or by a disciplinary officer, be liable to be punished or dealt with in accordance with the provisions of this Act. (2) Where a charge against a person for a service offence is dealt with by a disciplinary officer, a reference in any provision of this Act to a conviction is to be construed as a reference to a finding of guilt made by a disciplinary officer.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 18
title: Trial and punishment of service offences under Act despite offender ceasing to be subject to Act
content:
18. —(1) Subject to section 19, where a service offence under this Act has been committed, or is reasonably suspected of having been committed, by any person while subject to this Act, then in relation to that service offence the person is to be treated, for the purposes of this Act relating to arrest, keeping in custody, investigation of charges, trial and punishment by a disciplinary officer including review and execution of sentences, as continuing to be subject to this Act despite the person’s ceasing at any time to be subject thereto. (2) Subject to section 19, where a service offence under this Act has been committed, or is reasonably suspected of having been committed, by any person while subject to this Act, then the disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board before whom the offence is triable may, under the authority of the Commissioner, order that person to report for trial for the offence as if that person continued to be subject to this Act despite the person ceasing at any time to be subject to this Act. [53/2018] (3) Any person who fails to comply with any order under subsection (2) — ( a ) is deemed to have failed to comply with a lawful order within the meaning of section 35(1); and ( b ) is liable to be arrested, proceeded against and punished for an offence under section 35(1) as if the person continued to be subject to this Act. [53/2018] (4) Where, while a person is in service custody by virtue of this section (whether before, during or after trial) the person commits, or is reasonably suspected of having committed, an offence which if the person were subject to this Act would be a service offence, then in relation to that offence or suspected offence the person is to be treated, for the purposes of this Act mentioned in subsection (1) and the provisions thereof as to the dealing with charges by a disciplinary officer, as having been subject to this Act when the offence was committed or is suspected of having been committed and as continuing to be subject to this Act thereafter. (5) Where under subsection (1) or (4) a person is treated as being at any time subject to this Act for the purpose of any provision of this Act, that provision is to apply to the person — ( a ) if the person holds any service rank, as to a person having that rank; and ( b ) in any other case, as to a person having the rank which the person had when last actually subject to this Act. (6) Where apart from this subsection any provision of this Act would under subsection (5) apply to a person, in relation to different service offences, as to a person having different ranks, the provision is to apply to the person as to a person having the lower or lowest of those ranks.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s19
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 19
title: Limitation of time for trial of offences under Act
content:
19. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), a person is not liable to be tried by a disciplinary officer for a service offence unless the trial begins within 3 years after the later of the following dates: ( a ) the date on which the service offence was alleged to have been committed; ( b ) the date on which information relating to the commission of that offence was first reported to or discovered by an investigating officer for that service offence. [53/2018] (2) Every person who is subject to this Act at the time of the alleged commission by the person of a service offence of desertion or absence without leave continues to be liable to be charged, dealt with and tried at any time under this Act. (3) In calculating the period of limitation referred to in subsection (1), there is not to be included — ( a ) any time during which a person was serving sentence in a prison; ( b ) any period of absence caused by a person’s detention in a drug rehabilitation centre or at any other place pursuant to the provisions of any other written law; and ( c ) any period of absence in respect of which a person has been found guilty by a disciplinary officer of desertion or absence without leave. (4) This section does not affect the jurisdiction of a court to try any person for any service offence committed by the person.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s20
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 20
title: Jurisdiction of courts
content:
20. —(1) This Act does not affect the jurisdiction of any court to try a person for any offence under any other written law triable by the court where the act or omission of that person also constitutes a service offence. (2) Where a person subject to this Act has been charged with a service offence and has had the charge dealt with by a disciplinary officer, a court is debarred from trying the person subsequently for an offence substantially the same as that offence. (3) To avoid doubt, nothing in this Act is to be construed as restricting the jurisdiction of any court to try a person subject to this Act for an offence. (4) For the purposes of this section, a case is deemed to have been dealt with by a disciplinary officer notwithstanding that the finding of that officer has been quashed, or the award of that officer quashed or varied, on the review thereof. (5) A person subject to this Act must not be tried by a court for any service offence unless the Public Prosecutor has given his or her consent for the trial.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s21
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 21
title: Persons not to be tried under Act for offences already disposed of
content:
21. Where a person subject to this Act has been tried for a service offence by a court or has had a service offence committed by the person taken into consideration by the court in sentencing him or her, the person shall not be liable in respect of that offence to be dealt with and punished by a disciplinary officer pursuant to this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s22
chapter: PART 4 - JURISDICTION AND LIABILITY
section: 22
title: Application of principles of Penal Code 1871
content:
22. The principles of the Penal Code 1871 with respect to criminal liability apply in relation to service offences under this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s23
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 23
title: Looting
content:
23. Any person who — ( a ) steals from, or, with intent to steal, searches the person of anyone killed or injured in a civil defence emergency; ( b ) steals any property which has been left exposed or unprotected in consequence of a civil defence emergency; ( c ) takes, otherwise than for the purposes of the Force, any property abandoned or left exposed in consequence of a civil defence emergency, shall be guilty of the offence of looting and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s24
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 24
title: Desertion
content:
24. Any person who being on duty, or having been notified to report for duty, with intent to remain permanently absent without leave, leaves or does not attend at, the person’s place of duty without leave, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s25
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 25
title: Connivance at desertion
content:
25. Any person who — ( a ) being aware of the desertion or intended desertion of a member, does not without reasonable excuse inform the person’s superior officer immediately; or ( b ) fails to take any steps in the person’s power to cause the apprehension of a member whom the person knows, or has reasonable cause to believe, to be a deserter, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s26
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 26
title: Assault on guard
content:
26. —(1) Any person who — ( a ) commits an assault on a member who is on guard duty; or ( b ) by threat or force compels that member to let him or her or any other person pass a member’s post, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) In this section, any reference to a person on guard duty includes a reference to a person who is — ( a ) posted or ordered to patrol; or ( b ) a member of a guard or other party mounted or ordered to patrol, for the purpose of — ( c ) protecting any person, premises or place or ship, vehicle, aircraft or other thing; ( d ) preventing or controlling access to, or egress from any premises or place or ship, vehicle, aircraft or other thing; or ( e ) regulating traffic by road, rail or water.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s27
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 27
title: Offence by or in relation to person on guard or on watch
content:
27. —(1) Any person who, while on guard duty or on watch — ( a ) sleeps at his or her post or on watch; ( b ) not being on duty at a post, sleeps when his or her duty requires him or her to be awake; ( c ) is drunk; or ( d ) leaves his or her post or otherwise absents himself or herself from a place where it is his or her duty to be, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) In this section, “a person on guard duty” has the meaning given by section 26. (3) For the purposes of this section, a person is deemed to be drunk if, and only if, the person’s faculties are, by reason of being under the influence of intoxicating liquor, a drug or a psychoactive substance, so impaired that — ( a ) it would be imprudent to trust the person, or to allow the person to continue, with the discharge of the person’s duties; or ( b ) the person is unfit for the discharge of the person’s duties. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s28
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 28
title: Violence to superior
content:
28. Any person who commits an assault on a person of a higher rank shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s29
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 29
title: Assault on subordinate
content:
29. Any person who commits an assault on, or ill‑treats, a person of a lower rank shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s30
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 30
title: Cruel, indecent or disgraceful conduct
content:
30. Any person who behaves in a cruel, indecent or disgraceful manner or in a manner unbecoming of a member of the Force shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s31
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 31
title: Obstruction of provost officer
content:
31. Any person who — ( a ) obstructs; or ( b ) when called upon refuses to assist, a provost officer, or a person lawfully exercising authority under or on behalf of a provost officer, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s32
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 32
title: Insubordinate behaviour
content:
32. Any person who — ( a ) uses threatening, insubordinate or insulting language to a person of a higher rank; or ( b ) in the presence of a person of a higher rank uses threatening, insubordinate or insulting language about the person of a higher rank, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s32A
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 32A
title: Refusing medical or dental examination or treatment
content:
32A. Any person who, without reasonable excuse, does not submit to — ( a ) a medical or dental examination or test; ( b ) inoculation, vaccination or immunisation; or ( c ) medical or dental treatment, where required to by the Commissioner, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to any other punishment authorised by this Act. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s33
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 33
title: Disobedience to command
content:
33. Any person who disobeys a lawful command given to him or her by a person of a higher rank shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s34
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 34
title: Failure to comply with direction of person‑in‑command
content:
34. Any person who, when in or near any service ship, aircraft or vehicle, fails to comply with a lawful direction given to him or her by or with the authority of the person‑in‑command of the ship, aircraft or vehicle — ( a ) in relation to the sailing or handling of the ship, flying or handling of the aircraft or handling of the vehicle; or ( b ) affecting the safety of the ship, aircraft or vehicle or persons on board the ship, aircraft or vehicle, whether the person‑in‑command is a member or not, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s35
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 35
title: Failure to comply with order
content:
35. —(1) Any person who does not comply with a lawful order that is applicable to him or her shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) In this section, “order” means — ( a ) an order, instruction or directive issued by, or under the authority of, the Commissioner; or ( b ) a general standing or routine order or instruction in force with respect to the Force.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s36
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 36
title: Abuse of authority
content:
36. Any person who knowingly exceeds his or her authority over a person of a lower rank shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s37
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 37
title: Destruction of, or damage to, service property
content:
37. Any person who intentionally, recklessly or negligently destroys or damages service property shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s37A
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 37A
title: Causing irrecoverable loss of service property
content:
37A. —(1) Any person who wilfully causes the irrecoverable loss of any service property shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. [32/2010] (2) Any person who, by any negligent act or omission, causes the irrecoverable loss of any service property shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. [32/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s38
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 38
title: Dishonest misappropriation of service property
content:
38. Any person who — ( a ) steals or dishonestly misappropriates any service property or any property belonging to a person subject to this Act or is concerned in the stealing or dishonest misappropriation of any such property; or ( b ) receives any service property or property belonging to a person subject to this Act knowing it to have been stolen or to have been dishonestly misappropriated, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s39
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 39
title: Misapplication and waste of service property
content:
39. Any person who misapplies or wastefully expends any service property shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s40
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 40
title: False statement in application
content:
40. Any person who, in or in connection with, or in support of, an application for any grant, payment, allotment of money or allowances, leave of absence or any other benefit or advantage, for himself or herself or another, makes, either orally or in writing, any statement which is to his or her knowledge false in a material particular shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s41
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 41
title: Falsification, etc., of service documents
content:
41. —(1) Any person who with a view to gaining for himself or herself or another or with intent to deceive another or cause loss to another — ( a ) makes or signs a service document that is false in a material particular; ( b ) makes in a service document an entry that is false in a material particular; ( c ) alters a service document so that the document is false in a material particular; ( d ) suppresses, defaces, makes away with or destroys a service document, or a part of a service document, that it is his or her duty to preserve or produce; or ( e ) does not make an entry in a service document that it is his or her duty to make, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) In this section, “service document” means — ( a ) any document which is the property of the Force; or ( b ) any document submitted to the Force for any purpose, and includes any such document in the form of an electronic record, and a reference to signing of a service document is deemed to include the application of an electronic signature to an electronic record. [32/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s42
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 42
title: False statement in relation to appointment or enlistment
content:
42. —(1) Any person who — ( a ) for the purposes of the person’s appointment to or enlistment in the Force with intent to deceive — (i) makes a false answer to any question set out in a document required to be completed in relation to the person’s appointment or enlistment; (ii) provides any false information or document in relation to the person’s appointment or enlistment; or (iii) does not disclose, if and when lawfully required to do so, particulars of any prior service in the Force; and ( b ) is subsequently appointed to or enlisted in the Force, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) Any person who, with intent to deceive — ( a ) makes a false answer to any question set out in a document required to be completed in relation to the person’s appointment or enlistment; ( b ) provides any false information or document in relation to the person’s appointment or enlistment; or ( c ) does not disclose, if and when lawfully required to do so, particulars of any prior service in the Force, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s43
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 43
title: False evidence
content:
43. Any person who having been lawfully sworn as a witness or as an interpreter in proceedings before a disciplinary officer or a board of inquiry makes a statement material in those proceedings which the person knows to be false or does not believe to be true shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s44
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 44
title: Delay or denial of justice
content:
44. —(1) Where any person is under arrest or in custody for an alleged service offence, a person who does not take such action as is required of the person by or under this Act — ( a ) to have the case of the firstmentioned person brought before a commanding officer for investigation; or ( b ) to have the case of the firstmentioned person disposed of or tried summarily by a disciplinary officer, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) Where a person in custody under this Act is entitled to be released, a person who does not take such action as is required of him or her by or under this Act to release, or to order the release of the firstmentioned person shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s45
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 45
title: Resistance to arrest
content:
45. Any person who — ( a ) refuses to obey a lawful order for the person’s arrest; or ( b ) commits an assault on — (i) a member who gives the order; or (ii) a person, whether a member or not who attempts to apprehend the firstmentioned person, or take or hold the firstmentioned person in custody, pursuant to the order, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s46
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 46
title: Escape from custody
content:
46. Any person who escapes from custody or a place of detention in which the person is being held under this Act shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s47
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 47
title: Unlawful release, etc., of person in custody
content:
47. —(1) Any person who allows to escape or without authority releases a person who is delivered into his or her custody under this Act or whom it is his or her duty to guard shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) Any person who facilitates the escape of a person who is in custody or confinement under this Act shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (3) Any person who with intent to facilitate an escape from a place of confinement under this Act conveys anything into that place shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s48
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 48
title: Absence without leave
content:
48. —(1) Any person who is absent without leave shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) For the purposes of this section, a person is absent without leave if the person — ( a ) without authority leaves his or her place of duty; ( b ) without authority is absent from his or her place of duty; ( c ) having been authorised to be absent from his or her place of duty, fails to return to his or her place of duty at the expiration of the period for which his or her absence was authorised; or ( d ) having been notified to report for duty fails to report to his or her place of duty without lawful excuse. (3) It is a defence for any person charged with an offence under this section to prove that the person’s absence was a result of circumstances over which the person had no control. [32/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s49
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 49
title: Malingering
content:
49. —(1) Any person who with intent to render or keep himself or herself unfit for service or duty — ( a ) injures himself or herself or causes or permits himself or herself to be injured; or ( b ) by act or omission causes himself or herself to suffer from a sickness or disability or prolongs or aggravates a sickness or disability from which he or she suffers, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) Any person who, with intent to avoid service or duty, falsely represents himself or herself to be suffering from a sickness or disability shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s50
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 50
title: Drunkeness on duty, etc.
content:
50. —(1) Any person who — ( a ) is drunk on duty; or ( b ) is drunk when the person reports or should report for duty, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or any other punishment authorised by this Act. (2) For the purposes of this section, a person is deemed to be drunk if, and only if, the person’s faculties are, by reason of being under the influence of intoxicating liquor, a drug or a psychoactive substance, so impaired that — ( a ) it would be imprudent to entrust the person, or to allow the person to continue, with the discharge of the person’s duties; or ( b ) the person is unfit for the discharge of the person’s duties. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s51
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 51
title: Assaults, insulting words, etc.
content:
51. Any person who, on service land, in a service ship, aircraft or vehicle or in a public place — ( a ) commits an assault on another person; ( b ) causes a disturbance or behaves in a manner likely to cause a disturbance; ( c ) behaves in an obscene manner; ( d ) uses insulting or provocative words to another person; or ( e ) by reason of being under the influence of intoxicating liquor, a drug or a psychoactive substance behaves in a disorderly manner, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act. [Act 12 of 2023 wef 01/06/2024]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s52
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 52
title: Negligent performance of duty
content:
52. Any person who, in the performance of a duty that he or she is required by his or her office or appointment to perform, does not exercise such care as he or she could reasonably be expected to exercise having regard to the activities upon which he or she is engaged and to his or her training and experience in the Force shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s53
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 53
title: Contempt
content:
53. Any person who — ( a ) fails to comply with a summons or order to attend as a witness at a board of inquiry or at a trial of a service offence before a disciplinary officer; ( b ) refuses to take an oath or make an affirmation when required to do so by a disciplinary officer at a trial of a service offence or by a board of inquiry; ( c ) refuses to produce any document or material in the person’s custody or control which a board of inquiry, a disciplinary officer or an investigating officer lawfully requires the person to produce; ( d ) as a witness refuses to answer any question which a board of inquiry or a disciplinary officer lawfully requires an answer; ( e ) wilfully insults a disciplinary officer at a trial of a service offence or a board of inquiry; or ( f ) wilfully interrupts, obstructs or disturbs the proceedings of a trial before a disciplinary officer or a board of inquiry, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s54
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 54
title: Attempts to commit service offence
content:
54. —(1) Any person who, with intent to commit an offence under this Part, by act or omission behaves in a manner that is, or that the person believes to be, a substantial step towards the commission of the offence is deemed, for the purpose of this section, to have attempted to commit the offence. (2) Any person who attempts to commit a service offence under any of the provisions of this Part shall be liable on conviction to the like punishment for that offence. (3) Any person charged with attempting to commit a service offence may be convicted of the attempt even though the evidence in the proceedings proves that the person committed the offence. (4) Where an attempt to commit a service offence is voluntarily abandoned, the fact and circumstances of that abandonment may be taken into consideration in mitigation of any punishment to be imposed in respect of the attempt.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s55
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 55
title: Aiding, etc., commission of service offence
content:
55. Any person who intentionally or recklessly — ( a ) aids, abets, counsels or procures; ( b ) incites to, urges or encourages; or ( c ) commands or orders, the commission of a service offence shall be guilty of the offence.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s56
chapter: PART 5 - SERVICE OFFENCES
section: 56
title: Conduct to the prejudice of Force discipline
content:
56. Any person who is guilty of any conduct or neglect to the prejudice of good order or discipline of the Force shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year or any other punishment authorised by this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s57
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 57
title: Arrest without warrant
content:
57. —(1) A member may, without warrant, arrest a person over whom the member has a power of arrest if — ( a ) the member finds the person committing a service offence; or ( b ) the member suspects, on reasonable grounds, that the person is committing or has committed a service offence and believes, on reasonable grounds, that the arrest of the person without warrant is necessary — (i) to ensure the appearance of the person before a disciplinary officer; (ii) to prevent any further disturbance of a substantial nature to public order; (iii) to ensure the personal safety or wellbeing of the person; or (iv) to prevent persistence in, or a repetition or continuance of, the service offence. (2) For the purposes of this section — ( a ) an officer has subject to the regulations a power of arrest over — (i) a member of a lower rank; and (ii) any officer, if the officer is behaving in a disorderly or violent manner; ( b ) a non-commissioned officer has a power of arrest over — (i) a serviceman of a lower rank; and (ii) any serviceman, if the serviceman is behaving in a disorderly or violent manner; ( c ) a provost officer, or a person lawfully exercising authority under or on behalf of a provost officer, has a power of arrest over any member; and ( d ) a police officer has a power of arrest over a person whom the police officer suspects on reasonable grounds — (i) to be unlawfully at large during the currency of a sentence of imprisonment or detention imposed under this Act; or (ii) to be in desertion or absence without leave. (3) A power of arrest under this section may be exercised personally or by giving an order for the arrest of the person concerned, and it is the duty of the member to whom such an order is given to carry out the order.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s58
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 58
title: Arrest under warrant
content:
58. —(1) A commanding officer, an officer superior in command to that officer or an officer authorised by the regulations may issue a warrant for the arrest of a person subject to this Act where that person is not present and the issuing officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that that person — ( a ) has committed an offence against this Act; and ( b ) will not appear before a disciplinary officer. (2) A police officer or a member may, in execution of a warrant issued in accordance with subsection (1), arrest the person for whose arrest the warrant has been issued.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s59
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 59
title: Reasonable force to effect arrest
content:
59. Any person authorised to effect an arrest may use such force as is reasonably necessary for that purpose.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s60
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 60
title: Arrested person to be informed of alleged offence
content:
60. A person exercising a power of arrest must inform the person he or she is arresting at the time of the arrest, in ordinary language, of the nature of the charge upon which the person is being arrested, unless it is not reasonably practicable to do so or unless the reason for the arrest is obvious in the circumstances.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s61
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 61
title: Detention in civil custody of arrested person
content:
61. Any police officer may detain a person arrested (whether by himself or herself or by another) at a police station or other place provided for the holding of persons in custody for such time as is reasonably necessary to enable the arrested person to be delivered into the custody of a provost officer or of any other member who is authorised for the purpose by or under the regulations.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s62
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 62
title: Person in custody to be dealt with in accordance with Act
content:
62. It is the duty of a member who receives a person into the member’s custody to deal with the person as provided by this Act and the regulations.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s63
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 63
title: Avoidance of delay after arrest
content:
63. —(1) When a member exercises his or her power of arrest or receives a person into service custody, the member must as soon as practicable having regard to the circumstances of the arrest cause the person arrested to be transferred to the custody of a commanding officer. (2) Where a person arrested has come into the custody of a commanding officer, that commanding officer must release the person arrested as soon as the person’s continued custody, for one of the reasons specified in section 57(1)( b ), is no longer necessary and may impose such restrictions as are permitted by section 64. (3) When a person arrested is not released in accordance with subsection (2), the commanding officer into whose custody the person arrested has been transferred in accordance with subsection (1) must, within 24 hours of receiving the person into custody, cause the person to be given a copy of the charge on which the person is being held. (4) Within 48 hours of a person arrested being received into custody of a commanding officer, the commanding officer is to cause proceedings to be commenced for the hearing and determination of the charge or report his or her reasons for not so doing to the appropriate authority. (5) Where a person who has been charged with an offence remains in custody for a period exceeding 4 days without the charge having been disposed of or tried by a disciplinary officer, the commanding officer must make a written report to the appropriate authority stating the reasons for the delay. (6) The commanding officer must make a similar report to the appropriate authority at the conclusion of each subsequent period of 4 days if the person is still held in custody without the charge having been disposed of or tried by a disciplinary officer. (7) A commanding officer who certifies in writing that, having regard to the exigencies of service, it is not reasonably practicable to do so, is not required to comply with subsection (5) or (6). (8) Where a person remains in custody for 8 days and the charge against the person has not been heard and determined, it is the duty of the appropriate authority to whom a report under subsection (5) or (6) has been made to notify the Commissioner of the reasons why the charge has not been heard and determined. (9) Upon receipt of a notification in accordance with subsection (8), the Commissioner must, unless the Commissioner is satisfied that it is proper that the person should continue in custody, order the release of the person from custody.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s64
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 64
title: Conditional release
content:
64. —(1) A commanding officer may at any time release from custody a person charged with an offence and may impose such reasonable restrictions on the person as the commanding officer considers appropriate. (2) A person released under subsection (1) or under section 63 may only be returned into custody — ( a ) if the person is in breach of a restriction imposed upon the person under subsection (1); ( b ) if the person is arrested under section 57 or 58 in relation to another offence; or ( c ) if it is necessary for any of the reasons specified in section 57(1)( b ). (3) A restriction imposed upon a person under subsection (1) may, at any time, be revoked by the officer who imposed it, or by an officer acting in the place of that officer and, if not so revoked ceases to have effect when — ( a ) the person is again taken into custody in connection with the charge; or ( b ) the charge is heard and determined.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s65
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 65
title: Making of physical examination
content:
65. —(1) Where a person is in custody and a provost officer believes, on reasonable grounds, that the making of a physical examination of the person may — ( a ) provide evidence of the commission of an offence by the person; or ( b ) provide evidence of the identity of the person, that officer may authorise a duly qualified medical practitioner to make a physical examination of the person and may authorise the use of such force as is reasonably necessary to convey that person to a duly qualified medical practitioner. (2) A duly qualified medical practitioner who is authorised to do so under subsection (1) may make a physical examination of a person and may, for that purpose, use such force and obtain such assistance as is reasonably necessary. (3) Where a duly qualified medical practitioner makes a physical examination of a person under this section, that medical practitioner has to give to the provost officer who authorised the examination a report setting out the results of the examination.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s66
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 66
title: Search of place where person sought to be arrested has entered
content:
66. —(1) If any person acting with a warrant of arrest issued under section 58 or acting without a warrant of arrest under section 57 has reason to believe that any person to be arrested has entered into or is within any place, the person residing in or in charge of such place must, on demand of such person acting as aforesaid, allow him or her free entry thereto and afford all reasonable facilities for search therein of the person to be arrested. (2) Where free entry to such place cannot be obtained under subsection (1) it is lawful for a person acting with a warrant of arrest or a provost officer acting without a warrant of arrest, where such warrant is not immediately obtainable in order to enter such place, to break open any outer or inner door or window of any place whether that of the person to be arrested or of any other person if, after notification of his or her authority and purpose and demand of admittance duly made, he or she cannot otherwise obtain admittance.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s67
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 67
title: Search of person in custody
content:
67. Subject to section 68, where a person is in custody — ( a ) the person whose custody he or she is in; ( b ) a provost officer; or ( c ) a person acting in accordance with the directions of a person referred to in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ), may search the firstmentioned person and may take from the firstmentioned person anything found on him or her.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s68
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 68
title: Search by person of same sex, etc.
content:
68. Despite section 67 — ( a ) a person must not be searched except by a person of the same sex; ( b ) a person must not be searched except in the presence of a third person of the same sex; and ( c ) an officer must not be searched except by or under the authority of an officer.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s69
chapter: PART 6 - ARREST, CUSTODY AND SEARCH
section: 69
title: Disposal of property taken on search
content:
69. —(1) Where property of which possession has been taken under section 67 is required as evidence in connection with a charge, the property may be retained for that purpose and then disposed of as the disciplinary officer hearing the charge orders but, if it is not so required, it must be returned to the person from whose possession it was taken. (2) The power to retain and dispose of property conferred by subsection (1) is in addition to, and not in derogation of, the powers conferred by any other provision of this Act.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s70
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 70
title: Manner of dealing with charges
content:
70. —(1) Before an allegation against a person subject to this Act (called in this Act the accused) that he or she has committed a service offence is further proceeded with, the allegation must — ( a ) if the accused is a public officer — be reported in the form of a charge to a disciplinary officer and dealt with in accordance with the provisions of this Part; or ( b ) if the accused is not a public officer — (i) be reported in the form of a charge to a disciplinary officer and dealt with in accordance with the provisions of this Part; or (ii) be referred to a member or public officer authorised by the Commissioner to compound service offences for composition of the offence under section 85A. [Act 24 of 2022 wef 28/10/2022] (2) A disciplinary officer when dealing with a charge against an accused — ( a ) must refer the charge to the Commissioner if the accused is a public officer or if the disciplinary officer considers that the charge ought to be dealt with by a court; ( b ) may dismiss the charge if the disciplinary officer is of the opinion that it ought not to be further proceeded with; or ( c ) may try the accused. (3) References in this Act to dealing with a charge by a disciplinary officer are references to the taking by the appropriate disciplinary officer, as the case may require, of the following actions: ( a ) determining whether the accused is guilty; ( b ) dismissing the charge or recording a finding of guilt accordingly; and ( c ) awarding punishment.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s71
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 71
title: Manner of dealing with charge against members who are public officers
content:
71. A charge against an accused who is a public officer may, if the Commissioner thinks fit, be referred to the Public Service Commission for the member to be dealt with by the Public Service Commission in accordance with the regulations governing disciplinary proceedings against officers in the public service.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s72
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 72
title: Jurisdiction of disciplinary officers
content:
72. —(1) If the accused is an officer below the rank of lieutenant‑colonel, the charge must, within such time as may be prescribed, be brought before a senior disciplinary officer who is at least 2 ranks above the accused. (2) If the accused is a senior warrant officer or a warrant officer, the charge must, within such time as may be prescribed, be brought before a senior disciplinary officer. [32/2010] (3) If the accused is a serviceman below the rank of warrant officer, the charge must, within such time as may be prescribed, be brought before a junior disciplinary officer.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s73
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 73
title: Trial of former members
content:
73. A person who is subject to this Act under section 16 may be tried for an offence committed while the person was a member only by a court.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s74
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 74
title: Dismissal of charge
content:
74. Where a disciplinary officer dismisses a charge, the disciplinary officer must record the reason for the dismissal of the charge.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s75
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 75
title: Punishments
content:
75. —(1) Where a junior disciplinary officer finds an accused guilty of a charge, the junior disciplinary officer may award one of the following punishments: ( a ) detention for a period not exceeding 40 days; ( b ) a fine not exceeding $1,500; ( c ) a reprimand; ( d ) any other minor punishment that may be prescribed by regulations. [53/2018] (2) Where a senior disciplinary officer finds an accused guilty of a charge, the senior disciplinary officer may award one of the following punishments: ( a ) if the accused is a warrant officer (of any rank), detention for a period not exceeding 40 days; ( b ) if the accused is a warrant officer (of any rank), second lieutenant or lieutenant, a fine not exceeding $2,000 or, if the accused is a captain or major, a fine not exceeding $3,000; ( c ) a reprimand; ( d ) any other minor punishment that may be prescribed by regulations. [53/2018] (3) Where a disciplinary officer is of the opinion that the accused should be reduced in rank in addition to or in lieu of any punishment which may be awarded by the disciplinary officer, he or she may refer the charge and the record of the proceedings to the Commissioner with a recommendation that the accused be reduced in rank and the Commissioner may, at his or her discretion but subject to section 76B, reduce the rank of the accused in addition to or in substitution for the punishment imposed by the disciplinary officer. [53/2018] (4) In addition to any of the punishments mentioned in subsection (1), a disciplinary officer may order an officer or serviceman found guilty of any offence under this Act to pay compensation, not exceeding $300, to any person who suffered bodily injury, damage or loss occasioned by the commission of the service offence. [32/2010] (5) In addition to or in lieu of any other punishment, a disciplinary officer may order the accused to pay such sum as the disciplinary officer may determine as compensation to the Government for the loss of or damage to any service property or part thereof occasioned by the commission of the service offence. (6) In assessing the amount of compensation payable under subsection (5), the disciplinary officer must have regard to the earnings of the accused. (7) Nothing in subsection (4) shall prejudice the right of any person to a civil remedy for the recovery of damages beyond the amount of compensation ordered.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s76
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 76
title: Power of Disciplinary Board to deal with charges against lieutenant-colonel, etc.
content:
76. —(1) A charge against an officer of the rank of lieutenant‑colonel or above may be dealt with only by a Disciplinary Board consisting of 3 persons (none of whom may be the Commissioner) appointed for the purpose, either generally or specially, by the Minister. [53/2018] (2) The following provisions apply to an officer dealt with by a Disciplinary Board as if the officer were dealt with by a disciplinary officer: Sections 17, 18(1), 19(1) and (3), 20, 21, 43, 53, 74, 75(4), (5), (6) and (7), 83, 85, 89(1)( b ), ( c ) and ( d ), 91, 97 and 115(2)( e ). [53/2018] (3) A Disciplinary Board may — ( a ) dismiss the charge if it thinks that the charge ought not to be proceeded with; or ( b ) deal with the case and upon conviction of the accused impose — (i) a reprimand; or (ii) if the accused is a lieutenant-colonel or a colonel, a fine not exceeding $6,000, or if the accused is an Assistant Commissioner, a fine not exceeding $10,000, and may additionally make a recommendation to the Minister that the accused be reduced in rank, and the Minister may, subject to section 76B, reduce the rank of the accused in addition to or in substitution for the punishment imposed by the Disciplinary Board. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s76A
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 76A
title: Appeal against award or finding
content:
76A. —(1) An accused who is aggrieved by a finding or punishment awarded by a disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board may, within 5 days after being notified of the finding or punishment (or a longer or shorter period if prescribed in substitution), appeal to the Commissioner against the finding or punishment. [53/2018] (2) An appeal under subsection (1) must be made in such form and manner as may be prescribed. [53/2018] (3) Where an appeal has been made under subsection (2) against a finding or punishment awarded by a disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board, the punishment awarded is suspended pending the determination of the appeal. [53/2018] (4) The Commissioner may determine an appeal under subsection (2) against a finding or punishment awarded by a disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board — ( a ) by confirming any finding of guilt or punishment ordered by the disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board; ( b ) by quashing any finding of guilt or punishment ordered by the disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board and, if the Commissioner is of the opinion that the case against the appellant should be re-tried, by ordering the case to be re‑tried by another disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board; ( c ) by replacing any finding by the disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board that, in the Commissioner’s opinion, is illegal or cannot be supported by the evidence with a new finding that could validly have been made by the disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board on the charge and on the facts; or ( d ) by varying the punishment by way of enhancement, reduction, substitution or otherwise except that no greater or more severe punishment is to be ordered unless the appellant has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard. [53/2018] (5) The Commissioner’s decision under this section is final. [53/2018] (6) Every appellant must be notified of the Commissioner’s decision under this section. [53/2018] (7) The Commissioner may designate a Deputy Commissioner to hear and determine, in the Commissioner’s place, any appeal to the Commissioner under subsection (1). [53/2018] (8) A reference to the Commissioner in subsections (4), (5) and (6) includes a reference to a person designated under subsection (7). [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s76B
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 76B
title: Reduction after conviction
content:
76B. Where a disciplinary officer or Disciplinary Board recommends to the Commissioner or the Minister under section 75(3) or 76(3)( b ) to reduce the rank of an accused, the Commissioner or the Minister must not reduce the rank of the accused before — ( a ) the expiry of the period for making an appeal under section 76A(1); or ( b ) the determination of any appeal under section 76A, whichever is later. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s77
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 77
title: Commencement of sentence of detention
content:
77. —(1) A sentence of detention imposed as a punishment takes effect from the date on which it was passed, unless the disciplinary officer passing the sentence otherwise directs. (2) Where a person convicted of a service offence was already under service custody prior to the date on which an order for the person’s detention was made, the sentence of detention takes effect from the date the person was in service custody.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s78
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 78
title: Sentence of detention
content:
78. Any person sentenced to detention under this Act must, unless otherwise provided for in the regulations, serve the person’s sentence in detention barrack.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s79
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 79
title: Suspension of sentence
content:
79. —(1) It is lawful for a disciplinary officer when passing a sentence of detention to order that the sentence be suspended and the accused must not in that event be committed to detention barrack. (2) Where any such sentence is suspended and the offender so sentenced is sentenced for a fresh offence during the period of suspension by a disciplinary officer to detention, the disciplinary officer — ( a ) may cancel the suspension of the earlier sentence; and ( b ) must direct whether the 2 sentences are to run concurrently or consecutively.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s80
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 80
title: Provisions as to persons unlawfully at large
content:
80. —(1) Any person who, having been sentenced to detention under this Act, is at large may (without prejudice to any other power of arrest) be arrested by any police officer or any officer of the Force or a provost officer without warrant and taken to any place in which the person may be required to be detained in accordance with this Act. (2) Where any person sentenced to detention under this Act is at large at any time during the period for which the person is liable to be detained in pursuance of the sentence, no account is to be taken, in calculating the period for which the person is liable to be so detained, of any time elapsing after the person was at large and before either the person is taken into custody or the person is received into a detention barrack.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s81
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 81
title: Review of findings and awards
content:
81. —(1) Where a charge has been dealt with by a disciplinary officer otherwise than by the dismissal thereof, the Commissioner may review the finding or award. [53/2018] (2) Where on a review under this section it appears to the Commissioner expedient to do so by reason of any mistake in law in the proceedings on the dealing with the charge or of anything occurring in those proceedings which in the Commissioner’s opinion involved substantial injustice to the accused, the Commissioner may quash the finding and may order a re‑trial if the Commissioner considers that a re‑trial is necessary in the interests of justice. [53/2018] (3) If a finding in any proceedings is quashed under subsection (2) and the award made in those proceedings relates only to the finding quashed, the Commissioner may also quash the award. [53/2018] (4) If the award relates also to any other finding and it appears to the Commissioner that the award was not warranted by this Act in respect of that other finding, the Commissioner may vary the award by substituting such punishment as the Commissioner may think proper, being a punishment which could have been included in the original award in relation to that other finding, and not being in the opinion of the Commissioner more severe than the punishment included in the original award. [53/2018] (5) Where on a review under this section it appears to the Commissioner that a punishment awarded was invalid, or too severe, the Commissioner may vary the award by substituting such punishment as the Commissioner may think proper, being a punishment which could have been included in the original award and not being in the Commissioner’s opinion more severe than the punishment included in the original award. [53/2018] (6) Where on a review under this section it appears to the Commissioner that an order to pay compensation made under section 75(4) or (5) was invalid, or unduly excessive, the Commissioner may quash the order or vary the amount of compensation payable under the order. [53/2018] (7) The Commissioner may at any time suspend the execution of any sentence passed by a disciplinary officer for such period as the Commissioner thinks fit. [53/2018] 82. [ Repealed by Act 32 of 2010 ]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s83
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 83
title: Inapplicability of law of evidence
content:
83. A disciplinary officer is not bound by the law of evidence and must act in such manner as seems to the disciplinary officer most expedient for the disposal of the charge.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s84
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 84
title: Detention in default of payment of fine
content:
84. —(1) A disciplinary officer, if he or she is empowered under this Act to impose detention as a punishment, may direct that in default of the payment of any fine imposed by him or her on any offender, the offender must, subject to subsection (2), undergo detention for such period as the disciplinary officer may determine. (2) The period of detention which a disciplinary officer may direct under subsection (1) is as follows: ( a ) if the fine does not exceed $300, detention for a period not exceeding 10 days; ( b ) if the fine exceeds $300 but does not exceed $1,000, detention for a period not exceeding 20 days; ( c ) in any other case, detention for a period not exceeding 40 days. [32/2010; 53/2018] (3) Such detention takes effect from such date as the disciplinary officer may direct and terminates whenever the fine is paid.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s85
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 85
title: Rules of Procedure
content:
85. —(1) Subject to this section, the Minister may make rules (called in this Act the Rules of Procedure) with respect to the investigation and trial of, and awarding of punishment for, offences which may be dealt with by a disciplinary officer. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the Rules of Procedure may make provision with respect to all or any of the following matters: ( a ) the procedure to be observed in the bringing of charges before a disciplinary officer; ( b ) the manner in which charges so brought are to be investigated, and the taking of evidence (whether orally or in writing, whether or not on oath and whether in full or in summary or abstract form) for the purpose of investigating or dealing with such charges; ( c ) the addition to, or substitution for, a charge which has been investigated of a new charge for an offence disclosed by evidence taken on the investigation and the treating of the investigation as the investigation of the new charge; ( d ) the procedure to be observed in proceedings before a disciplinary officer; ( e ) procuring the attendance of witnesses before such proceedings and at the taking of evidence pursuant to rules made under paragraph ( b ); ( f ) empowering a disciplinary officer to amend a charge which is being tried by him or her; ( g ) the forms of orders and other documents to be made or used for the purposes of any provision of this Act or the Rules of Procedure relating to the investigation or trial of, or award of punishment for, service offences; and ( h ) any matter which by this Part is required or authorised to be prescribed. (3) Any provision of the Rules of Procedure which is inconsistent with the provisions of this Act is to the extent of the inconsistency void.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s85A
chapter: PART 7 - TRIAL AND PUNISHMENT BY DISCIPLINARY OFFICERS
section: 85A
title: Composition of service offences
content:
85A. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), any member or public officer authorised by the Commissioner to compound service offences (called in this section an authorised composition officer), may compound any service offence that is prescribed as a compoundable offence (called in this section a prescribed offence) by collecting from an accused (not being a public officer) reasonably suspected of having committed the offence a sum not exceeding the lower of the following: ( a ) one half of the amount of the maximum fine that is authorised to be imposed by a disciplinary officer on the accused for the offence under this Part; ( b ) $5,000. (2) An authorised composition officer must not compound a prescribed offence reasonably suspected to have been committed by an accused who is in the same chain of command as the authorised composition officer. (3) On payment of the sum of money under subsection (1), no further proceedings are to be taken against the accused in respect of the prescribed offence. (4) All sums collected for the composition of a service offence under this Act must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. [Act 24 of 2022 wef 28/10/2022]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s86
chapter: PART 8 - POWERS OF INVESTIGATION
section: 86
title: Provost officer may investigate service offences
content:
86. A provost officer may conduct an investigation where there is reason to believe that a service offence has been committed.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s87
chapter: PART 8 - POWERS OF INVESTIGATION
section: 87
title: Powers of investigation of provost officer
content:
87. —(1) In an investigation relating to the commission of a service offence, a provost officer has all the powers of a police officer under the Criminal Procedure Code 2010 in relation to an investigation of a seizable offence. [15/2010] (2) For the purposes of subsection (1), when a provost officer is exercising the powers of a police officer under the Criminal Procedure Code 2010, the provost officer is deemed to be an officer not below the rank of inspector of police. [15/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s88
chapter: PART 9 - DEDUCTIONS FROM PAY OF MEMBER
section: 88
title: Authorised deductions only to be made from pay
content:
88. The pay of a member is to be paid without any deduction other than the deductions authorised by this Act or by any other written law.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s89
chapter: PART 9 - DEDUCTIONS FROM PAY OF MEMBER
section: 89
title: Deductions from ordinary pay of member
content:
89. —(1) Subject to subsection (2), the following deductions may, or if the regulations so provide must, be made from the ordinary pay due to a member: ( a ) all ordinary pay — (i) for every day of absence on desertion or without leave, or for overstaying the period for which leave of absence is granted; (ii) for every day of imprisonment, corrective training, preventive detention, reformative training or detention of any other description, to which the member is liable in consequence of an order or sentence of a court; (iii) for every day of detention imposed by a disciplinary officer under section 75; (iv) for every day during which the member is in a drug rehabilitation centre; (v) for every day during which the member is in hospital on account of sickness certified by the proper medical officer attending to the member at the hospital to have been caused by a service offence committed by the member; ( b ) the sum required to make good any compensation which a disciplinary officer has in exercise of the powers conferred by section 75(4) ordered the member to pay to any person; ( c ) the sum to make good any compensation which a disciplinary officer has under section 75(5) ordered the member to pay to the Government; ( d ) the sum required to pay any fine or penalty which a disciplinary officer before which the member has been charged with a service offence has ordered the member to pay; and ( e ) the sum which the member is required to pay as contribution to the Government pursuant to an order made under section 92(3). (2) The total amount of deductions from the ordinary pay due to a member in respect of the sums referred to in subsection (1) must not exceed such sums as will leave to the member less than $5 a day. [32/2010] (3) A member must not be subjected to any deduction greater than the sums which he or she has been ordered to pay to make good the loss or damage.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s90
chapter: PART 9 - DEDUCTIONS FROM PAY OF MEMBER
section: 90
title: Supplemental provisions as to deductions from ordinary pay
content:
90. —(1) Any sum authorised by this Act to be deducted from the ordinary pay of a member may, without prejudice to any other mode of recovering the same, be deducted from the ordinary pay or from any sum due to the member, in such manner, and when deducted or recovered may be appropriated in such manner, as may from time to time be directed by the regulations. (2) The regulations may from time to time declare what is, for the purposes of this Act relating to deductions from pay, deemed to constitute a day of absence or a day of imprisonment or detention, so that — ( a ) no person may be treated as absent, imprisoned or detained for the purposes of this Act unless the absence, imprisonment or detention has lasted 6 hours or more, except where the absence prevented the absentee from fulfilling any duty; ( b ) a period of absence, imprisonment or detention which commences before and ends after midnight may be reckoned as a day; ( c ) the number of days may be reckoned as from the time when the absence, imprisonment or detention commences; and ( d ) no period of less than 24 hours may be reckoned as more than one day.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s91
chapter: PART 9 - DEDUCTIONS FROM PAY OF MEMBER
section: 91
title: Write-off of public property
content:
91. Without affecting section 19 of the Financial Procedure Act 1966 — ( a ) where, during or at the conclusion of a trial by a disciplinary officer, the disciplinary officer — (i) makes an order under section 75(5) for the payment of compensation for part of the loss of or damage to service property; or (ii) does not make any order for the payment of compensation for the loss of or damage to service property; or ( b ) where there is any loss of or damage to any service property which was caused by the commission of an offence which has been dealt with by a court, the Commissioner may write off the full value or part thereof of the loss or damage to service property which remains irrecoverable or unrecovered.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s92
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 92
title: Board of inquiry
content:
92. —(1) Where it is expedient that the Minister, or such other person as the Minister may appoint to exercise the powers conferred upon the Minister by this Part, should be informed on any matter connected with the government, discipline, administration or functions of the Force or affecting any person subject to this Act, the Minister or the person appointed by the Minister may convene a board of inquiry. [32/2010] (2) A board of inquiry must inquire into and report on the facts relating to any matter referred to it and, if directed by the Minister to do so, express its opinion on any question arising out of any such matter. (3) The Minister may, where a board of inquiry has found that any wrongful or negligent act or omission of a member has caused or will cause the Government to suffer any loss or to incur any liability arising from the negligent act or omission of the member, order the member (whether or not he or she is still a member when the order is made) to pay such sum as the Minister may determine as contribution to the Government for the loss or liability. (4) The Minister may write off the value of any loss which remains irrecoverable or unrecovered. (5) The Minister may exercise the powers conferred by this section even though any other person has been appointed under subsection (1). (6) In this Part, “Minister” includes the person appointed by the Minister under subsection (1) to act on his or her behalf for the purposes of this Part.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s93
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 93
title: Composition
content:
93. —(1) A board of inquiry consists of one or more persons who must be appointed by the Minister. (2) Where a board of inquiry consists of more than one person, the Minister must appoint one of the members to be the chairperson. (3) Where a board of inquiry consists of one member only, he or she is to be vested with the powers of chairperson. (4) Members of a board of inquiry need not necessarily be members of the Force.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s94
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 94
title: Powers
content:
94. A board of inquiry may — ( a ) summon any person to give evidence on oath or on affirmation or produce any document or material necessary for the purpose of the inquiry; and ( b ) visit any place in order to inquire into any matter which may arise in the course of the inquiry.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s95
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 95
title: Summoning and privilege of witnesses at board of inquiry and misconduct of civilian thereat
content:
95. —(1) Every person required to give evidence before a board of inquiry may be summoned or ordered to attend the proceedings of the board. (2) Every person attending pursuant to such summons or order as a witness before any board has, during the person’s necessary attendance at such inquiry and in going to and returning from the same, the same privilege from arrest as he or she would have if he or she were a witness before a civil court. (3) Where any person who is not subject to this Act — ( a ) on being duly summoned as a witness before a board of inquiry and after payment or tender of the reasonable expenses of the person’s attendance, makes default in attending; or ( b ) being in attendance as a witness — (i) refuses to take an oath lawfully required by the board to be taken; (ii) refuses to produce any document in the person’s power or control lawfully required by the board to be produced by him or her; or (iii) refuses to answer any question to which a board may lawfully require an answer, the chairperson of the board may certify the offence of the person under the hand of the chairperson to a Magistrate’s Court and that Court may thereupon inquire into the alleged offence. (4) After examining any witness that may be produced against or on behalf of the person so accused, and after hearing any statement that may be offered in defence, the Magistrate’s Court may, if it seems just, punish the person in the like manner as if he or she had committed the offence in a proceeding in the Court. (5) Where a person not subject to this Act when examined on oath or on affirmation before a board of inquiry wilfully gives false evidence, he or she shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction before a competent court to be punished for the offence of giving false evidence in a judicial proceeding. (6) Where a person not subject to this Act is guilty of any contempt towards a board of inquiry — ( a ) by using insulting or threatening language; ( b ) by causing any interruption or disturbance in its proceedings; or ( c ) by printing observations or using words calculated to influence the members of or witnesses before the board or to bring the board into disrepute, the chairperson of the board may certify the offence of the person under the hand of the chairperson to a Magistrate’s Court. (7) The Magistrate’s Court may thereupon inquire into the alleged offence as specified in subsection (6), and after hearing — ( a ) any witness that may be produced against or on behalf of the person so accused; and ( b ) any statement that may be offered in defence, if it seems just, punish or take steps for the punishment of the person in the like manner as if he or she had been guilty of contempt of that Court.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s96
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 96
title: Evidence and procedure
content:
96. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, a board of inquiry is not bound by the rules of evidence and may act in such manner as it thinks most expedient.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s97
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 97
title: Admissibility of evidence
content:
97. No statement made in the course of any inquiry and no report of a board of inquiry are admissible as evidence in proceedings before a disciplinary officer other than proceedings for an offence under section 43.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s98
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 98
title: Sittings not open to public
content:
98. —(1) A board of inquiry must not sit in public. (2) A person is not allowed to attend an inquiry or address the board of inquiry except with the permission of the chairperson of the board or if the Minister so directs.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s99
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 99
title: Person who may be affected by finding
content:
99. —(1) Where it appears to a board of inquiry that any person subject to this Act may be adversely affected by its findings, it must notify him or her thereof and give him or her an opportunity to be present at the sittings of the board of inquiry or at such part thereof as the chairperson of the board may specify. (2) Any such person as referred to in subsection (1) is allowed to give evidence and examine witnesses.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s100
chapter: PART 10 - BOARD OF INQUIRY
section: 100
title: Record of proceedings
content:
100. —(1) The chairperson of the board of inquiry is to record or cause to be recorded in writing the proceedings of the board. (2) The evidence of each witness before the board of inquiry must be read over to the person and must be signed by that person. (3) A record of the proceedings must be signed by the chairperson of the board of inquiry and its members (if any) and forwarded to the Minister.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s101
chapter: PART 11 - CIVIL DEFENCE FORCE FUND
section: 101
title: Civil Defence Force Fund
content:
101. —(1) A fund called the Civil Defence Force Fund is established. (2) The Fund consists of — ( a ) all sums forfeited by or fines inflicted on members under the powers conferred by this Act; ( b ) donations offered to the Fund and accepted by the Commissioner; ( c ) voluntary contributions from members; and ( d ) contributions from moneys provided by Parliament. (3) The Fund is to be controlled by the Commissioner and applied for the purposes of the welfare of members, civil defence volunteers and their families and for such other purposes as the Commissioner thinks fit.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s101A
chapter: PART 11A - DAY‑TO‑DAY OPERATIONS
section: 101A
title: Powers for day‑to‑day operations
content:
101A. —(1) The Commissioner or any member authorised by the Commissioner may, if the action authorised by this section appears to him or her to be necessary for the discharge of the function in section 4(1)( c ) — ( a ) enter upon and, if necessary, break into any place, building, premises or land; ( b ) remove from any place, vehicle, structure or thing impeding such operations and, to facilitate its removal, use such force as is reasonably necessary or break into any such vehicle; ( c ) remove, using reasonable force if necessary, any individual whose life, health or safety is, in his or her opinion, endangered; ( d ) stop individuals from entering, or close or cause to be closed to traffic, any road, street, path, private street, private way, service lane, waterway, right of way or access way or other way; ( e ) shut off or disconnect the supply of gas, fuel oil, water or electricity to any premises or order any person having the control of such supply to shut off or disconnect the supply; ( f ) require any individual whom he or she has reason to suspect has been exposed to any hazardous material in a hazardous materials incident to undergo such medical examination and medical treatment at such place or hospital as he or she may specify; and ( g ) seize any thing that is contaminated by any hazardous material as a result of a hazardous materials incident and dispose of the thing. [53/2018] (2) The Commissioner or any member authorised by the Commissioner may, for the purposes of facilitating the provision of urgent medical care to an individual whose identity is not known and who is unconscious or otherwise unable to communicate, take the individual’s fingerprints or other personal identifiers. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s101B
chapter: PART 11A - DAY‑TO‑DAY OPERATIONS
section: 101B
title: Persons assisting Force
content:
101B. —(1) The powers conferred by section 101A(1)( a ) to ( e ) and (2) may also be exercised by the following persons: ( a ) any employee of an emergency ambulance service provider providing emergency ambulance services for the Force in the performance of a contract between the emergency ambulance service provider and the Government; ( b ) any regular serviceman or national serviceman enlisted with the Singapore Armed Forces who is attached to the Force to assist in the provision of emergency ambulance services by the Force. [53/2018] (2) An employee of an emergency ambulance service provider providing emergency ambulance services for the Force in the performance of a contract between the emergency ambulance service provider and the Government is, in relation to the employee’s performance of the employee’s duties in connection with the provision of the emergency ambulance services, taken to be a public servant for the purposes of the Penal Code 1871. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s101C
chapter: PART 11A - DAY‑TO‑DAY OPERATIONS
section: 101C
title: Protection from personal liability
content:
101C. No liability shall lie personally against the Commissioner or any member, or any person mentioned in section 101B who, acting in good faith and with reasonable care, does or omits to do anything in the execution or purported execution of this Act. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s102
chapter: PART 12 - STATE OF CIVIL DEFENCE EMERGENCY
section: 102
title: Declaration of state of civil defence emergency
content:
102. —(1) If at any time it appears to the Minister that a civil defence emergency has occurred or may occur in any part or district of Singapore, the Minister may declare that a state of civil defence emergency exists in that part or district. (2) The Minister must immediately give public notice by such means of communication as are available of every declaration of a state of civil defence emergency made under subsection (1) and the declaration must be published in the Gazette as soon as possible. (3) A state of civil defence emergency for any part or district in Singapore terminates on the expiry of the seventh day from the time the state of civil defence emergency is in force. [32/2010] (4) The Minister may, with the approval of the President, extend the duration of a state of civil defence emergency for such further period or periods as the Minister thinks fit.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s103
chapter: PART 12 - STATE OF CIVIL DEFENCE EMERGENCY
section: 103
title: Special powers during emergency
content:
103. —(1) During a state of emergency or a state of civil defence emergency, the Commissioner, a member or a police officer may, if the action authorised by this section appears to him or her to be necessary for the carrying out of civil defence measures or for the preservation of human life or property — ( a ) direct any person to render any assistance to the Force to save life in immediate danger; ( b ) direct the evacuation of any area, building or place, and the exclusion of persons from any area, building or place and in the exercise of that power may remove or cause to be removed a person who does not comply with a direction to evacuate or a person who enters or is found in any area, building or place in respect of which a direction for the exclusion of persons has been given; ( c ) remove from any place, vehicle, structure or thing that is impeding civil defence operations and to facilitate its removal may use such force as is reasonably necessary or may break into any such vehicle; ( d ) enter upon and, if necessary, break into any place, building, premises or land where he or she believes on reasonable grounds that it is necessary to do so for saving life or preventing injury or rescuing injured or endangered persons or for facilitating the carrying out of any urgent measures in respect of the relief of suffering and distress; and ( e ) restrict the movement of persons and close to traffic any road, street, path, private street, private way, service lane, waterway, right of way or access way or other way or close any public place. [53/2018] (2) Any person who renders any assistance under subsection (1)( a ) is entitled to fair and reasonable remuneration from the Commissioner, such claim to be made in accordance with the regulations and paid out of moneys appropriated by Parliament for the purpose. (3) Any person who suffers loss of or damage to his or her property by reason of the exercise of the powers conferred by subsection (1)( c ) and ( d ) is entitled to fair and reasonable compensation for such loss or damage, such claim to be made in accordance with the regulations and paid out of moneys appropriated by Parliament for the purpose. (4) Any person who contravenes a direction lawfully given under this section shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or to both.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s103A
chapter: PART 12A - PUBLIC WARNING SYSTEM
section: 103A
title: Interpretation of this Part
content:
103A. —(1) In this Part — “owner” — ( a ) in relation to any premises comprised in a strata title plan under the Land Titles (Strata) Act 1967, means — (i) in the case of a lot, the person who is registered as the subsidiary proprietor of the lot under that Act; (ii) in the case of a common property, the management corporation having control of that common property, or the person receiving any rent or charge for the maintenance and management of that common property; and (iii) in the case of a limited common property as defined in section 2(1) of the Building (Strata Management) Act 2004, the subsidiary management corporation established by that Act having control of that limited common property, or the person receiving any rent or charge for the maintenance and management of that limited common property; [Act 12 of 2020 wef 01/10/2025] ( b ) in relation to a building in a housing estate of the Housing and Development Board (called an HDB housing estate), means — (i) in the case of a flat, any owner of the flat as defined in section 2(1) of the Housing and Development Act 1959; (ii) in the case of the building’s common property in an HDB housing estate that is controlled, managed and maintained by a Town Council, that Town Council; and (iii) in the case of the building’s common property in an HDB housing estate that is not controlled, managed and maintained by a Town Council, the Housing and Development Board; ( c ) in relation to a subdivided building that is not mentioned in paragraph ( a ) or ( b ), means — (i) in the case of a lot, the person who is registered under the Land Titles Act 1993 as the proprietor of the fee simple, estate in perpetuity or leasehold estate of that lot; and (ii) in the case of the subdivided building’s common property, every person who is registered under the Land Titles Act 1993 as the proprietor of the fee simple, estate in perpetuity or leasehold estate of a lot in that building, or the person receiving any rent or charge for the maintenance and management of the common property; ( d ) in relation to any premises which are not a subdivided building mentioned in paragraph ( a ), ( b ) or ( c ), means any person who is registered under the Land Titles Act 1993 as the proprietor of the fee simple, estate in perpetuity or leasehold estate of those premises; and ( e ) in relation to any other premises or building, means the person for the time being receiving the rent of the premises or building, whether on the person’s own account or as agent, trustee or receiver, or who would receive such rent if the premises or building were let to a tenant, and includes the person whose name is entered in the Valuation List prepared under section 10 of the Property Tax Act 1960 as the owner of the premises or building, or a mortgagee in possession; “relevant premises” means any building or part of a building but does not include — ( a ) a residential building not exceeding such height as may be prescribed; and ( b ) any other type of building that may be prescribed; “working day” means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday. [53/2018] (2) For the purposes of this Part, the height of a building is the distance, measured in a straight line on a vertical plane, from the lowest point of the building at ground level to the highest point of the building (including any structure fixed to the building). [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s103B
chapter: PART 12A - PUBLIC WARNING SYSTEM
section: 103B
title: Provision of space to install prescribed civil defence emergency devices
content:
103B. —(1) The Commissioner may by direction require the owner of any relevant premises to provide, at the owner’s expense and within such period as may be specified in the direction — ( a ) such space or facility within or on the premises specified in the direction; and ( b ) access to the premises, as will substantially assist the Commissioner in installing a prescribed civil defence emergency device. [53/2018] (2) To avoid doubt, the Commissioner may give a direction under subsection (1) even though the direction may prejudice the contractual obligations of the owner or occupier of the premises, whether the obligation relates to a contract made before, on or after 1 February 2019. [53/2018] (3) No liability shall lie against any party to a contract made before, on or after 1 February 2019 for or in relation to, any breach of the contract where the breach is solely attributable to, or occasioned by, the compliance by that party with any direction of the Commissioner under subsection (1). [53/2018] (4) Subsection (3) does not affect the operation of the Frustrated Contracts Act 1959. [53/2018] (5) The Commissioner may at any time vary, suspend or revoke the whole or any part of a direction under subsection (1). [53/2018] (6) Any owner who contravenes any direction under subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s103C
chapter: PART 12A - PUBLIC WARNING SYSTEM
section: 103C
title: Power to enter premises for assessment, repair and maintenance
content:
103C. —(1) The Commissioner may — ( a ) enter any relevant premises to assess whether the premises are suitable for installing a prescribed civil defence emergency device; and ( b ) enter any premises on which a prescribed civil defence emergency device is installed by the Commissioner to inspect or carry out works to repair or maintain the prescribed civil defence emergency device. [53/2018] (2) The Commissioner must not exercise the power under subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ) in respect of any premises unless the Commissioner notifies the owner of the premises of the intention to exercise a power conferred by that subsection not less than 5 working days before the power is exercised. [53/2018] (3) Despite subsection (2), where the Commissioner has reason to believe that a civil defence emergency is likely to occur and urgent repairs to a prescribed civil defence emergency device installed on any relevant premises are needed, and — ( a ) entry into those premises has been refused or such refusal is apprehended; or ( b ) the Commissioner is, after reasonable efforts, unable to obtain the owner’s consent to enter the premises for any other reason, the Commissioner may enter the premises to carry out such urgent repairs to the prescribed civil defence emergency device at any time and without giving the owner of the premises notice of the Commissioner’s intention to do so. [53/2018] (4) The Commissioner may, in exercising the power under subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ), take with the Commissioner any other persons that may be necessary. [53/2018] (5) The Commissioner may, in exercising the power under subsection (3), do all or any of the following: ( a ) take with the Commissioner any other persons that may be necessary; ( b ) break open any outer or inner door or window leading to the premises; ( c ) forcibly enter the premises and every part of the premises; ( d ) remove by force any obstruction to the entry; ( e ) remove or demolish any fixtures or fittings in the premises if the removal or demolition is necessary for the carrying out of urgent repairs to a prescribed civil defence emergency device. [53/2018] (6) The Commissioner’s powers under subsections (1) to (5) may be exercised by any officer or serviceman authorised by the Commissioner (called in this section an authorised person), and any reference to the Commissioner in those subsections includes a reference to such an authorised person. [53/2018] (7) Before entering the premises under subsection (1)( a ) or ( b ), an authorised person must produce, if so required — ( a ) the authorised person’s original identity card or such identification card as the Commissioner may direct to be carried by the person as proof of the authorised person’s identity; and ( b ) some duly authenticated document showing the authorised person’s authority. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s103D
chapter: PART 12A - PUBLIC WARNING SYSTEM
section: 103D
title: Damage, etc., to prescribed civil defence emergency devices
content:
103D. Any person who wilfully removes, relocates, destroys, damages or tampers with any prescribed civil defence emergency device installed by the Commissioner shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s104
chapter: PART 13 - TRAINING OF CIVILIAN POPULATION IN CIVIL DEFENCE
section: 104
title: Civil defence training for civilian population
content:
104. The Minister may from time to time make arrangements for the civilian population to be trained in matters of civil defence and for the conduct of exercises for the purposes of civil defence.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s105
chapter: PART 13 - TRAINING OF CIVILIAN POPULATION IN CIVIL DEFENCE
section: 105
title: Protection of civil defence volunteers
content:
105. —(1) For the purposes of the Government Proceedings Act 1956, any civil defence volunteer acting or purporting in good faith to be acting under any order or instruction given to the civil defence volunteer by a member of the Force whilst participating in any civil defence measures or whilst receiving instruction in civil defence is deemed to be the agent of and acting under the instructions of the Government. (2) No act or default done or made by the civil defence volunteer in good faith whilst participating in any civil defence measures or whilst receiving instruction in civil defence shall subject him or her to any personal liability. (3) For the purposes of subsection (1), “civil defence volunteer” means any person who has agreed to take part in civil defence measures or receives instruction in civil defence organised under the authority of the Commissioner.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s105A
chapter: PART 13A - SERVICE OUTSIDE SINGAPORE
section: 105A
title: Minister may send members of Force outside Singapore
content:
105A. —(1) Subject to subsections (3) and (7), the Minister may — ( a ) on a request in that behalf being made by, or with the consent of, a government of a territory outside Singapore; ( b ) on a request in that behalf being made by a United Nations agency; or ( c ) in connection with any agreement or arrangement with a government of a territory outside Singapore, order such number of members of the Force as to the Minister seems expedient to proceed outside Singapore to carry out duties to respond to and deal with a civil defence emergency taking place in such territory. [32/2010] (2) In making an order under subsection (1), the Minister must specify the purposes for which the members of the Force are to carry out duties outside Singapore or in any territory outside Singapore. [32/2010] (3) The Minister must not make an order under subsection (1) unless the Minister is satisfied that adequate provisions have been or will immediately be made in the territory outside Singapore for the proper carrying out of duties by members of the Force in that territory, which may include provisions — ( a ) that all members of the Force serving in that territory under the provisions of this Part must remain under the orders of their own commanding officers; or ( b ) that all members of the Force serving in that territory under the provisions of this Part must be conferred with the powers, duties and privileges of members of the equivalent civil defence force in that territory. [32/2010] (4) The Commissioner may issue directions of a routine nature for the deployment, command, control and information of members of the Force ordered under subsection (1) to proceed outside Singapore to carry out duties outside Singapore. [32/2010] (5) Any direction under subsection (4) must not be inconsistent with subsection (3). [32/2010] (6) All members of the Force ordered under subsection (1) to proceed outside Singapore for service must comply with every direction issued under subsection (4). [32/2010] (7) To avoid doubt, the Minister may order such number of members of the Force as to the Minister seems expedient to carry out duties in international waters, and this Part applies, with the necessary modifications, to members of the Force serving outside Singapore pursuant to such an order as it applies to members of the Force serving outside Singapore pursuant to an order under subsection (1). [14/2013] (8) No volunteer ex‑NSman or auxiliary member shall be liable to serve or proceed on duty outside Singapore unless he or she first consents to such service. [32/2010; 53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s105B
chapter: PART 13A - SERVICE OUTSIDE SINGAPORE
section: 105B
title: Members of Force serving outside Singapore to remain subject to this Act
content:
105B. Subject to section 105D, a member of the Force who is temporarily attached to the forces of another territory, or otherwise serving outside Singapore, pursuant to any order made under section 105A does not cease to be subject to this Act by reason only of the member being so temporarily attached, or being outside Singapore. [32/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s105C
chapter: PART 13A - SERVICE OUTSIDE SINGAPORE
section: 105C
title: Jurisdiction during overseas service
content:
105C. —(1) Section 105D applies to any act done or omitted to be done outside Singapore by any member of the Force while the member is serving outside Singapore pursuant to any order made under section 105A. [32/2010] (2) For the purposes of this section, a person is deemed to be serving outside Singapore pursuant to an order made under section 105A from the time the person leaves Singapore to undertake those duties until the time the person returns to Singapore. [32/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s105D
chapter: PART 13A - SERVICE OUTSIDE SINGAPORE
section: 105D
title: Offences and misconduct during overseas service
content:
105D. —(1) If any member of the Force to whom this section applies does, or omits to do, any act outside Singapore (whether or not the act or omission concerned constitutes an offence under the laws in force in the territory where it took place) that if done or omitted to be done within Singapore would constitute an offence, that act or omission is deemed to have taken place within Singapore unless — ( a ) the person is subject to the criminal jurisdiction of the territory in which the act or omission took place; and ( b ) the authorities in that territory — (i) are not subject to any obligation to cede jurisdiction to the Singapore authorities in respect of that act or omission; and (ii) are bringing criminal proceedings against the member of the Force in that territory. [32/2010] (2) No information may be laid against any member of the Force over whom jurisdiction is claimed by virtue of subsection (1) without the Attorney‑General’s consent. [32/2010] (3) If any member of the Force is alleged to have committed an offence in respect of which the laying of information requires the Attorney‑General’s consent under subsection (2), the member concerned may be arrested and detained in custody or remanded in custody or on bail, even though the Attorney‑General’s consent has not been obtained to the making of such complaint in respect of that offence, but no further proceedings may be taken until that consent is obtained. [32/2010] (4) If any member of the Force to whom this section applies does, or omits to do, any act outside Singapore, and that act or omission would, if it occurred in Singapore, be a disciplinary offence for the purposes of this Act — ( a ) the person may be investigated and, if appropriate, proceeded against under this Act by way of disciplinary proceedings under Part 7 and punished, in the same manner as if the act or omission had occurred in Singapore; and ( b ) for that purpose, this Act and the Civil Defence (Arrests, Searches, Investigation and Trial of Offences) Regulations apply to the person with any necessary modifications. [32/2010]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s106
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 106
title: Persons exercising power, etc., not to be obstructed
content:
106. Any person who assaults, obstructs, threatens, abuses, insults or intimidates a person carrying out or performing his or her duties or functions under this Act shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s106A
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 106A
title: Wearing and possession of uniforms, etc., by others
content:
106A. —(1) A person who, when the person is not a member — ( a ) wears or possesses any SCDF uniform, or uses any SCDF insignia — (i) for the purpose of personating or representing himself or herself as a member; or (ii) knowing that it is likely to cause any member of the public to believe that he or she is a member; ( b ) uses the designation of a member or a rank of the Force, in connection with any business, occupation or employment — (i) for the purpose of personating or representing himself or herself as a member; or (ii) knowing that it is likely to cause any member of the public to believe that he or she is a member; ( c ) represents himself or herself, by word or conduct, to be a member for the purpose of personating or representing himself or herself as a member; or ( d ) wears or possesses any SCDF uniform, or uses any SCDF insignia, in connection with any business, occupation or employment, for the purpose of falsely claiming, suggesting or implying — (i) that the person receives or is to receive, a fee, commission or other reward for providing professional or other services in relation to a matter being dealt with or to be dealt with by the Force; (ii) that the Force has agreed to acquire any goods or services provided by or on behalf of the person, or that those goods or services had previously been used or acquired by the Force; or (iii) that the person has the sponsorship or approval of the Force for any goods or services provided by or on behalf of the person, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,500 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [53/2018] (2) A member who wears an SCDF uniform or uses any SCDF insignia otherwise than — ( a ) in the course of, and for the purpose of, exercising the functions of a member; or ( b ) for such other purpose authorised in writing by the Commissioner, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $2,500 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both. [53/2018] (3) It is a defence to any prosecution for an offence under subsection (1)( a ) or (2) if the accused proves, on a balance of probabilities, that — ( a ) the accused had the express permission of the Commissioner to wear or possess the SCDF uniform or use the SCDF insignia, as the case may be; or ( b ) the accused wore or possessed the SCDF uniform or used the SCDF insignia (as the case may be) for the purposes of a public entertainment provided in compliance with the Public Entertainments Act 1958. [53/2018] (4) A person (whether or not a member) who — ( a ) manufactures any SCDF uniform or SCDF insignia otherwise than under an agreement with the Government; ( b ) sells any SCDF uniform or SCDF insignia to a person who is neither a member nor otherwise authorised or permitted under subsection (3) to wear or possess the SCDF uniform or use the SCDF insignia; or ( c ) gives or provides, whether or not for a consideration, any SCDF uniform or SCDF insignia to a person who is neither a member nor otherwise authorised or permitted under subsection (3) to wear or possess the SCDF uniform or use the SCDF insignia, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both. [53/2018] (5) It is a defence to any prosecution for an offence under subsection (4) if the accused proves, on a balance of probabilities, that — ( a ) the accused had reasonable grounds to believe and did make reasonable inquiries to ascertain that the person to whom the SCDF uniform or SCDF insignia was sold, given or provided was — (i) a member; or (ii) a person otherwise authorised or permitted under subsection (3) to wear or possess the SCDF uniform or use the SCDF insignia; or ( b ) the accused had received from the person to whom the SCDF uniform or SCDF insignia was sold, given or provided, evidence purporting to show that — (i) that person was a member or was otherwise authorised or permitted under subsection (3) to wear or possess the SCDF uniform or use the SCDF insignia; and (ii) it was reasonable to and the accused did accept that evidence as correct. [53/2018] (6) An offence under subsection (1), (2) or (4) is an arrestable offence. [53/2018] (7) In this section — “SCDF insignia” means — ( a ) any item (being any insignia, emblem, logo, symbol, representation, device, badge of rank or other thing) that is generally recognised as pertaining to the Force or as being used by members; ( b ) any part of any such item; ( c ) any reasonable imitation of any such item, or part of such item; or ( d ) any insignia, emblem, logo, symbol, representation, device, badge of rank or other thing prescribed as being within this definition; “SCDF uniform” means the uniform of a member, and includes — ( a ) any part of such a uniform or any accoutrement of a member that is generally recognised as a part of the uniform or accoutrement of a member; or ( b ) any reasonable imitation of such a uniform or accoutrement, or part of a uniform or accoutrement; “sell” includes — ( a ) exchange or let on hire; ( b ) offer, expose, possess, send, forward or deliver for sale, exchange or hire; or ( c ) cause, suffer or allow any sale, exchange or hire; “use”, in relation to SCDF insignia, includes — ( a ) driving on a public road a vehicle that has on it any SCDF insignia; and ( b ) using a reproduction or representation of SCDF insignia, but does not include wearing an SCDF uniform. [53/2018]


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s107
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 107
title: Offences by body corporate
content:
107. Where a body corporate commits an offence against this Act — ( a ) the managing director, manager, or other governing officer, by whatever name called, and every member of the governing body thereof, by whatever name called; and ( b ) every person who manages or acts or takes part in the management, administration, or government of the business of the body corporate, are deemed also to have committed the offence jointly with the body corporate and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly unless he or she proves that — ( c ) the offence was committed without his or her consent or connivance; and ( d ) he or she exercised such diligence to prevent the commission of the offence as he or she ought to have exercised having regard to the nature of his or her function in that capacity and to all the circumstances.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s108
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 108
title: Protection of employment rights
content:
108. A person who, during a state of emergency or a state of civil defence emergency, is absent from his or her usual employment by reason of carrying out duties in connection with civil defence measures in any capacity shall not be liable for dismissal, loss of vacation leave, or other benefits to which he or she may be entitled under the industrial award or agreement applicable to his or her usual employment, by reason only of his or her absence on those duties, whether or not his or her usual employer has consented to his or her absence.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s110
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 110
title: Civil Defence General Orders and Standing Orders
content:
110. —(1) The Commissioner may from time to time make such orders not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act to be called Civil Defence General Orders as the Commissioner may consider necessary or expedient to provide for — ( a ) conduct and discipline and the regulation and carrying out of punishment; ( b ) classifications and promotions; ( c ) instructions and examinations; ( d ) inspections, drill, parades, training and exercises; ( e ) civil defence services and duties of every description and the manner in which they are to be carried out; ( f ) the institution and maintenance of common rooms and canteens; ( g ) the manner and form of reports, correspondence and other records; and ( h ) any other matters that may be necessary and expedient for rendering the Force efficient in the discharge of its duties and for carrying out the purposes of this Act. (2) A commanding officer may issue orders of a routine nature to be called Standing Orders and any directives not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act or the Civil Defence General Orders for the control, direction and information of the members of the Force in his or her command. (3) It is not necessary to publish any Civil Defence General Orders, Standing Orders or directives in the Gazette .


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s111
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 111
title: Compensation for personal injury
content:
111. The Government shall be liable to pay compensation in respect of the loss of life of, or injury to, a person that occurs while that person is — ( a ) engaged in civil defence measures under the authority of the Commissioner; or ( b ) participating in training for civil defence measures under the control of the Commissioner or a person acting under the authority of the Commissioner, at the rates prescribed by the regulations and paid out of the Pension Fund established by the Pension Fund Act 1995.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s112
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 112
title: Protection from liability
content:
112. No action or proceeding shall lie or be brought against the Government, any officer or employee of the Government, a member of the Force or any other person acting under any direction given or purported to be given under this Act in respect of anything done or omitted to be done in good faith under and for the purposes of this Act during a state of civil defence emergency or a state of emergency.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s113
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 113
title: Mobilisation of ex-NSmen or auxiliary members
content:
113. —(1) During a state of emergency or a state of civil defence emergency, the Minister may by declaration mobilise all or any of the following for continuous full‑time service: ( a ) volunteer ex‑NSmen; ( b ) auxiliary members. [53/2018] (2) A declaration under subsection (1) must be published in the Gazette as soon as possible. (3) Whenever a volunteer ex‑NSman or an auxiliary member is mobilised for continuous full‑time service, such member is bound to render continuous full‑time service for such period as the Minister directs until the publication of a declaration in the Gazette notifying that the employment of volunteer ex‑NSmen or auxiliary members on continuous full‑time service is no longer required. [53/2018] (4) Auxiliary members mobilised for continuous full‑time service are to be paid such salaries and allowances as are prescribed or provided for by regulations.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s114
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 114
title: Section 14 of Government Proceedings Act 1956 applies to Force
content:
114. Section 14 of the Government Proceedings Act 1956 applies to members of the Force including any person serving as an auxiliary member of the Force.


document_id: cda-1986
provision_ref: s115
chapter: PART 14 - GENERAL
section: 115
title: Regulations
content:
115. —(1) The Minister may make regulations, not inconsistent with this Act, for carrying out or giving effect to the provisions of this Act. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the regulations may provide for all or any of the following matters: ( a ) the manner in which, and conditions subject to which, persons are to be enlisted in the Force; ( b ) the administration and organisation of the Force; ( c ) ranks of officers and servicemen; ( d ) the suspension from duty of members suspected of committing a service offence or an offence under any other written law; ( e ) the practice and procedure to be adopted by disciplinary officers when dealing with charges of service offences under this Act; ( f ) detention barracks for members of the Force sentenced to detention; ( g ) the classification, treatment, employment, discipline and control of members serving sentences of detention or in custody; ( h ) the establishment and administration of any association for the welfare of members and the control of the funds of any such association and the collection from members thereof of subscriptions thereto; ( i ) the reimbursement for or payment to members; ( j ) the payment of compensation in respect of death and physical injury suffered by any member of the Force or by a member of the public in the course of being trained in civil defence measures or taking part in civil defence measures or drills; ( k ) the assessment and payment of remuneration for work done and services rendered and compensation payable in respect of loss of or damage to property in consequence of the exercise of the powers conferred by or under this Act including the determination of objections made against the assessment of such remuneration or compensation; ( l ) the administration of the Fund; ( m ) the convening of boards of inquiry; ( n ) the instruction of members of the public in civil defence and, if necessary, to equip them for the purposes of civil defence; ( o ) the provision, storage and maintenance of essential foodstuff and equipment for the purposes of civil defence; ( p ) prescribing anything which may be prescribed. [32/2010; 53/2018]


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s1
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 1
title: Short title and commencement
content:
1. This Act is the Communicable Diseases Agency Act 2025 and comes into operation on a date that the Minister appoints by notification in the Gazette .


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s2
chapter: PART 1 - PRELIMINARY
section: 2
title: Interpretation
content:
2. In this Act — “Agency” means the Communicable Diseases Agency established by section 3; “Chairperson”, in relation to the Agency, means the member of the Agency who is appointed under section 13 as the Chairperson of the Agency, and includes any individual appointed under section 15 to act in that capacity; “Chief Executive” means the Chief Executive of the Agency appointed under section 33, and includes any individual acting in that capacity; “committee” means a committee of the Agency appointed under section 29; “committee member” means an individual appointed to be a member of a committee; “delegate” means a person to whom the Agency under section 31 delegates the performance or exercise of any of its functions or powers; “Deputy Chairperson”, in relation to the Agency, means a member of the Agency who is appointed under section 13 as a Deputy Chairperson of the Agency; “functions”, in relation to the Agency, means functions conferred on the Agency by this Act or any other Act; “infectious disease” means any disease — ( a ) that is caused or is suspected to be caused by a micro‑organism or any agent of disease; and ( b ) that is capable or is suspected to be capable of transmission by any means to human beings; “member”, in relation to the Agency, means a member of the Agency appointed under section 11, and includes any individual appointed under section 15 to act in that capacity; “officer”, in relation to the Agency, means an employee of the Agency and includes an individual under a secondment arrangement which makes available the service of the individual to the Agency; “public body” means a body corporate established by a public Act for the purposes of a public function but excludes a Town Council established under section 4 of the Town Councils Act 1988; “surveillance” means the collection, analysis and interpretation of data related to the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s4
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS
section: 4
title: Agency is body corporate
content:
4. The Agency — ( a ) is a body corporate with perpetual succession; ( b ) may acquire, hold and dispose of real and personal property; and ( c ) may sue and be sued in its corporate name.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s5
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS
section: 5
title: Objective and functions of Agency
content:
5. —(1) The objective of the Agency is to prevent, manage and control infectious diseases in Singapore. (2) The Agency has the following functions: ( a ) to advise and make recommendations to the Government on policies and strategies for the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases in Singapore; ( b ) to devise, organise and implement programmes and other activities for or related to the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases in Singapore and to collaborate with any person to devise, organise and implement such programmes and activities; ( c ) to conduct and facilitate research and development activities (including research and development activities within the meaning of section 3(1) of the National Research Fund Act 2006) relating to the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases in Singapore; ( d ) to monitor through surveillance and detection the occurrence or prevalence of infectious diseases and the vaccination coverage in respect of those infectious diseases; ( e ) to establish, manage and maintain systems for the recording and collection of information relating to infectious diseases; ( f ) to promote and develop professional and technical expertise in public health for the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases in Singapore; ( g ) to oversee, coordinate and implement public health education and training activities for the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases in Singapore; ( h ) to oversee, coordinate and develop national public health functions and resources for the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases in Singapore; ( i ) to represent the Government internationally on matters related to or connected with the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases; ( j ) to establish standards and provide guidance for the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases in Singapore; ( k ) to oversee infectious diseases clinical services and capacities in Singapore so as to manage infectious diseases; ( l ) to cooperate and collaborate in particular with any public officer or other public body or Health Officer in the administration of the Infectious Diseases Act 1976; ( m ) to perform such other functions as may be conferred on the Agency by any other Act. (3) In addition to the functions conferred by this section, the Agency may undertake such other functions as the Minister may assign to the Agency, by notification in the Gazette , and in so undertaking — ( a ) the Agency is deemed to be fulfilling the purposes of this Act; and ( b ) the provisions of this Act apply to the Agency in respect of those other functions. (4) Nothing in this section imposes on the Agency, directly or indirectly, any form of duty or liability enforceable by proceedings before any court to which the Agency would not otherwise be subject.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s6
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS
section: 6
title: Powers of Agency
content:
6. —(1) The Agency has power to do all things necessary or expedient to be done for, or in connection with, the performance of its functions. (2) Without limiting subsection (1), the powers of the Agency include the following: ( a ) to enter into contracts, agreements or arrangements; ( b ) to acquire, develop, hold and dispose of real or personal property; ( c ) to appoint and act through agents; ( d ) to employ staff and engage consultants; ( e ) to publish or provide any information, or publish or sponsor the publication of works; ( f ) to apply for, obtain and hold, whether on its own behalf or jointly with any other person, any intellectual property rights; ( g ) to enter into agreements or arrangements for the commercial exploitation of those intellectual property rights, whether by assignment, licensing or otherwise; ( h ) with the approval of the Minister, to form or join in the formation of a company, association, trust or partnership or enter into a joint venture with any person; ( i ) to establish institutes for the conduct of research and development in the area of infectious diseases; ( j ) to be a member of a company, association, trust or partnership; ( k ) to provide financial incentives, support, grant, aid or assistance to any person; ( l ) to charge for the provision of goods or services, or the performance of work, by or on behalf of the Agency; ( m ) to waive the payment of fees and charges payable to the Agency; ( n ) to accept grants, gifts, donations or contributions from any source, or raise funds by all lawful means; ( o ) to provide technical, consultancy or advisory services to the Government or any other person on any matter related to, or connected with, the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases; ( p ) to collect, compile, analyse and disseminate information of a statistical nature or otherwise concerning matters relating to its functions; ( q ) to set up and administer systems for the recording and collection of information for the prevention, management and control of infectious diseases; ( r ) to do any other thing that is incidental or conducive to the performance of its functions. (3) To avoid doubt, subsections (1) and (2) do not limit any other power given to the Agency by any other provision in this Act or by any other Act. (4) The Agency may exercise its powers inside or outside Singapore.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s7
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS
section: 7
title: Directions of Minister, etc.
content:
7. —(1) The Minister may give to the Agency any direction under section 5 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018. (2) To avoid doubt, the Minister is entitled — ( a ) to have information in the possession of the Agency; and ( b ) where the information is in or on a document, to have, and make and retain copies of, that document. (3) For the purposes of subsection (2), the Minister may request the Agency — ( a ) to provide information to the Minister; or ( b ) to give the Minister access to information. (4) The Agency must comply with a request under subsection (3). (5) In this section — “document” includes any tape, disc or other device or medium on which information is recorded or stored; “information” means information specified, or of a description specified, by the Minister that relates to the functions of the Agency.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s8
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS
section: 8
title: Agency’s symbol, etc.
content:
8. —(1) The Agency has the exclusive right to the use of one or more symbols or representations as the Agency may select or devise (each called in this section the Agency’s symbol or representation), and to display or exhibit those symbols or representations in connection with the Agency’s activities or affairs. (2) A person who — ( a ) uses, without the prior written permission of the Agency, a symbol or representation identical to the Agency’s symbol or representation; or ( b ) uses a symbol or representation that so resembles the Agency’s symbol or representation as to deceive or cause confusion, or to be likely to deceive or to cause confusion, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s9
chapter: PART 2 - ESTABLISHMENT, FUNCTIONS
section: 9
title: Use of name, etc., of Agency
content:
9. —(1) The Agency may conduct its operations under its full name or under the acronym CDA. (2) A person other than the Agency must not — ( a ) use in connection with a business, trade, profession or occupation; ( b ) use as the name, or as part of the name, of any firm, body corporate or institution; or ( c ) use in relation to — (i) services or products; or (ii) the promotion, by any means, of the supply of services or products, the name of the Agency or the acronym CDA, or a name or acronym so closely resembling the name of the Agency or the acronym CDA, as to be likely to be mistaken for it. (3) Any person who contravenes subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s10
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 10
title: Membership of Agency
content:
10. —(1) The Agency consists of at least 7 and not more than 15 members. (2) One of the members (who is not the Chairperson) may be the Chief Executive.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s11
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 11
title: Appointment of Agency members
content:
11. —(1) Each member of the Agency is to be appointed by the Minister. (2) Every appointment must be made by instrument in writing given to the member. (3) The instrument must state — ( a ) the term of the appointment; and ( b ) the date the appointment takes effect, which must not be a date earlier than the date the instrument is received by the member.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s12
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 12
title: Membership disqualification
content:
12. —(1) In appointing members of the Agency, the Minister must have regard to whether the members of the Agency will collectively possess the appropriate knowledge, skills and experience to assist the Agency to perform its functions effectively. (2) However, the following individuals are disqualified from being a member of the Agency: ( a ) an undischarged bankrupt or an individual who has an arrangement with any of his or her creditors; ( b ) a Judge or judicial officer; ( c ) an individual who has been sentenced to imprisonment for a term of 6 months or more, and has not received a free pardon; ( d ) an individual who is — (i) disqualified under section 154(1) of the Companies Act 1967 from acting as a director, or taking part (whether directly or indirectly) in the management, of a company during the period of disqualification in that provision; (ii) disqualified from being a director or in any way (whether directly or indirectly) being concerned in, or taking part in, the management of a company by a court order under section 149(1), 149A(1) or 154(2) of the Companies Act 1967 during the period of disqualification in the court order; (iii) disqualified under section 58(1) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018 from acting as a director, or taking part (whether directly or indirectly) in the management of a VCC during the period of disqualification in that provision; or (iv) disqualified by a court order under section 56(1), 57(1) or 58(2) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018 from being a director or in any way (whether directly or indirectly) being concerned in, or taking part in, the management of a VCC during the period of disqualification in the court order; ( e ) an individual who lacks capacity in respect of his or her duties as a member within the meaning of the Mental Capacity Act 2008, or in respect of whom an order is made under section 10 of the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) Act 2008. (3) In this section, “VCC” has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Variable Capital Companies Act 2018.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s13
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 13
title: Chairperson and Deputy Chairperson
content:
13. —(1) The Minister may, by instrument in writing, appoint — ( a ) a member (other than the Chief Executive) to be the Chairperson of the Agency for the period specified in the instrument; and ( b ) one or more members (other than the Chairperson) to be a Deputy Chairperson of the Agency for the period specified in the instrument. (2) The Chairperson or a Deputy Chairperson holds office until whichever of the following first happens: ( a ) his or her term of office as Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson (as the case may be) expires; ( b ) he or she ceases to hold office as a member of the Agency; ( c ) the Minister terminates the appointment as Chairperson or Deputy Chairperson, as the case may be. (3) A Deputy Chairperson has and may exercise all of the functions and powers of the Chairperson in relation to a matter if — ( a ) the Chairperson is unavailable; or ( b ) the Chairperson is interested in the matter (within the meaning given by Part 4 of the Public Sector (Governance) Act 2018).


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s14
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 14
title: Premature vacancies
content:
14. —(1) If a premature vacancy occurs in the office of any member of the Agency, the Minister may, subject to sections 10, 11 and 12, appoint an individual to fill the vacancy and hold that office for the remainder of the term for which the vacating member was appointed. (2) In this section, “premature vacancy”, for an office, means a vacancy that occurs in that office by virtue of section 21(1) or for any reason other than the expiry of the term of office.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s15
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 15
title: Acting Chairperson and members
content:
15. —(1) The Minister may appoint an individual (other than the Chief Executive) to act temporarily as the Chairperson during any period, or during all periods, when the Chairperson — ( a ) is absent from duty or Singapore; or ( b ) is, for any reason, unable to perform the duties of the office. (2) The Minister may appoint an individual to act temporarily as a member of the Agency (other than the Chairperson) during any period, or during all periods, when the member — ( a ) is absent from duty or Singapore; or ( b ) is, for any reason, unable to perform the duties of the office. (3) An individual is ineligible for appointment under this section to act as the Chairperson or a member of the Agency if the individual is disqualified under section 12(2) for appointment as a member.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s16
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 16
title: Removal of member
content:
16. —(1) The Minister may, at any time and without giving any reason, remove a member of the Agency from office. (2) Every removal under subsection (1) must be made by written notice given to the member with a copy to the Agency. (3) The notice must state the date the removal takes effect, which must not be a date earlier than the date the notice is received by the member.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s17
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 17
title: Resignation from office
content:
17. —(1) A member of the Agency may resign his or her office by written notice to the Minister (with a copy to the Agency) signed by the member. (2) The resignation is effective when the notice in subsection (1) is received by the Minister or at any later time specified in the notice.


document_id: cdaa-2025
provision_ref: s18
chapter: PART 3 - CONSTITUTION AND MEMBERSHIP OF AGENCY
section: 18
title: Validity of acts, etc.
content:
18. —(1) Despite section 33 of the Interpretation Act 1965, the exercise of any power or performance of any function of the Agency by the Agency is not affected merely because at the relevant time — ( a ) there was a vacancy in the membership of the Agency, including a vacancy arising from the failure to appoint a member; ( b ) there was some defect or irregularity existing in the appointment or continuance in office of the individual purporting to be a member of the Agency; or ( c ) there was an irregularity in the Agency’s decision‑making procedure that does not affect the merits of the decision made. (2) The acts of an individual as a member of the Agency are not affected merely because — ( a ) there was some defect or irregularity existing in the appointment or continuance in office of the individual purporting to be a member of the Agency; or ( b ) in the case of an individual acting in the capacity of the Chairperson, a member or the Chief Executive, the occasion for the individual so acting, or for his or her appointment, had not arisen or had ended. Division 2 &#x2014; Terms and conditions for members


